Midterm 1 Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

what are 4 factors that can influence bioavailability?

A
  1. first-pass hepatic metabolism
  2. solubility of the drug
  3. chemical instability
  4. nature of the drug formulation
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2
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination)

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3
Q

Class I drug

A

dose less than the binding capacity of albumin, very little unbound drug

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4
Q

Class II drug

A

given in doses that greatly exceed the number of albumin binding sites, high proportion of the drug is not bound

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5
Q

what are 5 factors that influence the distribution of a drug?

A
  1. protein binding
  2. blood flow
  3. membrane permeability
  4. tissue solubility
  5. pKa (intrinsic to drug properties)
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6
Q

(apparent) volume of distribution (Vd)

A

Vd = amount of drug in body/concentration of drug in blood or plasma

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7
Q

what is the volume of distribution if the drug is evenly distributed and unbound?

A

volume of distribution = body volume (42L)

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8
Q

what is the volume of distribution if the drug is sequestered in plasma?

A

Vd = about 7L

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9
Q

what is the volume of distribution if the drug accumulates in specific tissues outside of the vascular system?

A

Vd = very large

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10
Q

if Vd is large, what is the fate of the drug after it is released from binding proteins (albumin)?

A

large Vd = easily displaced from albumin

  • the drug displaced from the albumin distributes to the periphery
  • the change in free-drug concentration in the plasma is not significant
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11
Q

if Vd is small, what is the fate of the drug after it is released from binding proteins (albumin)?

A
  • the newly displaced drug does not move into the tissues as much
  • the increase in free drug in the plasma is more profound
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12
Q

amount of drug metabolized in a half life is dependet on:

A

concentration (always cut in half) with the exception of alcohol (constant rate of 10mL/hour)

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13
Q

what is the relationship between time to reach steady state and dose?

A

Time is independent of dose. Time depends on the interval between doses.

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14
Q

If dosed at an interval equal to half-life, how long will it take to reach steady state?

A

after 4-6 half-lives

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15
Q

what is the steady state LEVEL determined by?

A

dose, interval, half-life

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16
Q

steady state

A

rate of administration equals rate of elimination

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17
Q

dissociation constant formula

A

Kd = k off/k on = { [ligand]*[receptor]} / [ligand * receptor]

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18
Q

what is the law of mass action? what is an assumption of the law of mass action?

A

Law of mass action: interactions between drug and receptor is due to diffusion and random collisions, the higher the concentration of both, the more frequent the interactions. Assumes that the reaction is reversible

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19
Q

when the concentration of ligand equals the Kd (dissociation constant), what percentage of receptors will be occupied?

A

50% of receptors will be occupied at equilibrium (high affinity = low Kd=low concentration of ligand to bind half the receptors because less likely to dissociate)

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20
Q

quantal dose effect curve

A

exhibits a Guassian distribution (bell shape) when plotted as cumulative responses, exhibits a quantal “yes” or “no” response

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21
Q

potency

A

refers to the amount of a particular drug required to elicit a specific response (lower EC50 = more potent), not necessarily clinically useful

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22
Q

efficacy

A

maximal asymptotic response, greater efficacy = larger max effect, clinically relevant

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23
Q

range

A

the difference between the biggest dose to give NO EFFECT and the smallest dose to give a MAX EFFECT, shallow slope = more working range

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24
Q

variability

A

differences due to individual responses

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25
therapeutic index
ratio between ED50 and TD50 or LD 50, TI=TD50/ED50, larger TI is safer because larger dosage difference between therapeutic dose and lethal dose
26
synergistic interaction
in order for one to do its job, you need the other one to activate it or to work synergistically
27
additive interaction
adding on drugs to have better effect, produces a bigger effect
28
what are sources of drug interaction?
multiple systems, pharmacokinetic, pharmacodynamic
29
agonists
drugs that bind to same site as endogenous substance, and that elicit a similar or identical response
30
competitive antagonists
bind to same site as endogenous ligand, have no biological effect of their own and do not change the basal level of response of the receptor
31
what is the result of adding a competitive antagonist
same Emax but shifts the dose-response to the right (larger EC50)
32
what can act as a competitive antagonist?
weak partial agonist
33
partial agonist
drugs which elicit a similar direction of effect as agonist or endogenous ligand but which have a lower E max (same capacity to bind but only partial effect/activation), can be used as a competitive antagonist
34
inverse agonist
drug which produces the opposite effect of the agonist with the same AMOUNT of effect produced, stabilizes receptor in an inactive conformation (reversible)
35
irreversible antagonist
very low Kd, permanently bound/covalent bonds, can decrease E max, duration of action is thus independent of clearance
36
non-competitive drug
does not bind at the same site as the endogenous ligand (ex. allosteric binding, can be an agonist or antagonist)
37
what is the effect of adding agonists?
can shift the dose-response to the left, lower EC50=lower dose to get max effect
38
increasing the # of receptors (spare receptors) causes:
decrease in EC50 (administering a dose at its Kd will always bind 50% of the receptors)
39
spare receptors allow:
low affinity drugs to produce full responses (can elicit a maximal response with less than complete receptor binding)
40
what are 4 forms of regulation of receptors?
synthesis, degradation, modification, internalization
41
reticular formation
collection of nuclei that influence arousal, attention, sleep and muscle tone, located in the pons (metencephalon)
42
locus coeruleus
axons extend to many areas of forebrain, source of NE, located in the pons (metencephalon)
43
raphe nuclei
axons extend to all areas of forebrain, source of 5-HT, located in the pons (metencephalon)
44
periaquaductal gray (PAG)
modulation of pain, located in the tegmentum (mesencephalon)
45
substantia nigra
dopaminergic pathway to striatum: initiation and modulation of movement, located in tegmentum (mesencephalon)
46
ventral tegmental area (VTA)
use dopamine (mesolimbic and mesocortical tract), located in tegmentum (mesencephalon)
47
what are the 2 major tasks of receptors?
1. recognize a specific neurotransmitter | 2. activate an effector system
48
what are the 2 types of receptors and what are their distinguishing features?
1. ionotropic (gate ions directly) | 2. metabotropic (indirectly gate channels, receptor and effector are separate molecules)
49
what are the 2 main classes of ionotropic receptors?
ligand gated ion channels and voltage gated ion channels
50
what are the 2 main classes of metabotropic receptors?
1. G Protein coupled receptors | 2. receptor tyrosine kinases
51
2nd messenger in GPCR can trigger a biochemical cascade such as:
1. activation of protein kinases (phosphorylate a variety of proteins) 2. mobilize calcium from intracellular stores (changes a cell's biochemical state) 3. activation of ion channels
52
what are 3 different cascades activated by 2nd messenger?
- cAMP/cGMP - hydrolysis of phospholipids (IP3 and DAG, arachidonic acid/endocannabinoids) - intracellular calcium
53
Gs
stimulatory G protein
54
Gi
inhibitory G protein
55
Golf
olfactory G protein
56
Gq
activates phospholipase C
57
G?
activates phospholipase A2
58
what determines the action of an activated G protein?
the type of alpha subunit, which determines the type of G-protein it is
59
what are type I synapses?
wider synaptic cleft, large active zone, prominent dense regions on presynaptic membrane and dense postsynaptic basement membrane, round vesicles
60
what are type II synapses?
narrow synaptic cleft, small active zone, little/no basement membrane, oval-shaped/flat vesicles
61
what are the two types of vesicles?
small synaptic vesicles (near active zones) and large dense core vesicles (not near active zone)
62
what do small synaptic vesicles contain?
ACh, glutamate, GABA, glycine
63
what do large dense core vesicles contain?
neuropeptides, dopamine/norepinephrine/serotonin
64
when are small vesicles released?
in response to low-frequency stimulation (localized increase in intracellular calcium concentration)
65
what are dense core vesicles released?
in response to high-frequency stimulation (more diffuse increase in intracellular calcium concentration)
66
what are the 6 stages of vesicle release?
1. restraint (prevent accidental release) 2. mobilization (targets vesicle to active zone) 3. docking (attach vesicle to release machinery) 4. priming (ready vesicle for release) 5. fusion/exocytosis 6. recycling/endocytosis
67
what are the 6 major categories of neurotransmitters?
amino acids, monoamines, acetylcholine, neuropeptides, lipids, gases
68
what are 3 amino acid neurotransmitters?
glutamate, GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid), glycine
69
what are 3 monoamines?
dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin
70
what are 3 neuropeptides?
endorphins/enkephalins, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)
71
what is an example of a lipid neurotransmitter?
anandamide
72
what is an example of a gaseous neurotransmitter?
nitric oxide (NO)
73
what are 4 criteria to be defined as a neurotransmitter?
1. synthesized in the neuron that releases it 2. present in the presynaptic terminal and released in amounts sufficient to exert a direct action on the postsynaptic target 3. when administered exogenously in reasonable concentrations, it mimics the action of the endogenous chemical exactly 4. has a specific mechanism for removing it from the synaptic cleft
74
small molecule neurotransmitter characteristics?
small, charged, short biosynthetic pathways, synthesized by cytosolic enzymes (EXCEPTION is NE which is converted from DA inside the vesicle)
75
what are the 3 categories of biogenic amines?
catecholamines, indolamines, histamine
76
what are 3 catecholamines?
dopamine (DA), norepinephrine (NE), epinephrine
77
what are 2 indolamines?
serotonin, melatonin (hormone)
78
GABA
inhibitory
79
glycine
inhibitory
80
glutamate
excitatory
81
what components can be transported by the rapid anterograde axoplasmic transport mechanism?
secretory vesicles, synaptic vesicle precursors, dense-cored vesicles containing neuropeptides, mitochondria, smooth ER elements
82
what is fast anterograde transport mediated by?
kinesis (heterotetramer with 2 heavy and 2 light chains): globular head of heavy chain binds to microtubule and acts as motors - allows movement of legs
83
kinesin (anterograde transport) moves along microtubules towards:
+ end (axon terminal)
84
dynein (retrograde transport) moves along microtubules towards:
- end (cell body)