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Maladjusted Mind 2030 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Deviance

A

Behaving differently, behaviours straying from societal norms or standards

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2
Q

Abnormal

A

Those having abilities that differ from the general public

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3
Q

Goodness of it

A

Understanding behaviour within a specific context, a behaviour can be problematic or not problematic depending on the environment in which it occurs

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4
Q

Culture

A

Shared patterns and lifestyle that differentiate from one group of people from another

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5
Q

Culture-bound syndrome

A

Originally described abnormal behaviours that were specific to a particular location or group, some of these patterns are now recognized to extend across ethnic groups or areas

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6
Q

Eccentric Behaviour

A

May violate societal norms, but it is not considered abnormal because it is not always negative or harmful to others (ex. millionaire leaving estate to his dog)

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7
Q

Behaving dangerously that -

A

May result from intense emotional state or signal of a psychological disorder, but alone is not necessary or sufficient (skydiving is dangerous but is not a sign of abnormal behaviour)

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8
Q

Behaving dysfunctional -

A

Behaviour that interferes with normal daily routines and / or causes significant distress, frequency of behaviours can cause distress and dysfunction

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9
Q

Abnormal behaviour

A

Behaviour that is inconsistent with the individual’s developmental, cultural and societal norms and creates emotional distress or interferes with daily functioning

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10
Q

1 in __ Canadians meet the criteria for at least one of the six disorders at some point in their lives

A

1 in 3

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11
Q

How many Canadians meet the criteria for a substance use disorder?

A

6 million (20%)

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12
Q

How many Canadians meet the criteria for a mood disorder?

A

3.5 million (13%)

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13
Q

Prevalence and sex for mood disorders

A

More common among women

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14
Q

Prevalence and sex for substance use disorders

A

More common among men

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15
Q

Mood disorders and substance use disorders prevalence highest among people aged

A

15-24 years

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16
Q

By age 16, 1 in ___ children and adolescents have suffered from a psychological disorder

A

1 in 3

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17
Q

Categorical approach to abnormal behaviour

A

Do you meet the criteria or not? Either have it or you don’t. Problem is symptoms rarely fall neatly into just one category and may not appear sufficient in severity to determine that they represent a psychological disorder

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18
Q

Dimensional approach to abnormal behaviour

A

Abnormal behaviour is on a continuum and constantly changes in severity over time. Recognizes that abnormal behaviour varies

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19
Q

Developmental trajectory

A

Symptoms vary by age - adolescent vs. child has a different way of interpreting things thinking

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20
Q

Example of developmental trajectory

A

Generalized anxiety disorder is more seen in adults because it requires the ability to understand the concept of “future” which is a cognitive skill that usually emerges around age 12

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21
Q

Socioeconomic status and the development of psychological disorders

A

Study has shown that all SES groups developed disorders at the same rate, but once the child had the disorder, children from lower SES were less likely to overcome or recover from the disorder

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22
Q

Downward drift

A

The idea that the impairment that results from a psychological disorder (inability to sleep, addiction to alcohol) leads to job loss or limited educational achievement (anxiety causing someone to skip classes an drop out)

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23
Q

The rate of psychological disorders ___ as boys enter __ years

A

Decrease as boys enters teen years

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24
Q

Te rate of psychological disorders ___ as girls enter ___

A

Increase as girls enter adolescence

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25
Q

Ancient cultures in Egypt on abnormal behaviour

A

Believed spirits controlled someone’s behaviour

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26
Q

Ancient treatment of mental disorders (ancient Egypt)

A

Used Trephination - created a hole in the skull to release the evil spirits or maybe to just fix wounds

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27
Q

Cause of mental illnesses according to classic Greek and Roman views

A

Mental illness considered result from traumatic experience of imbalance in fluids found within the body, these fluids were called humours

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28
Q

Hippocrates

A

(460-377 BC) father of medicine - produced diagnostic classification system and a model to explain abnormal behaviour. First to identify symptoms associated with schizophrenia, somatoform disorder and mood disorders

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29
Q

Four symptoms Hippocrates identified

A

Hallucinations, delusions, melancholia and hysteria

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30
Q

Hallucinations

A

Hearing or seeing things not evident to others

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31
Q

Delusions

A

Beliefs with no basis in reality

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32
Q

Melancholia

A

Severe sadness

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33
Q

Hysteria

A

Blindness or paralysis with no organic cause

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34
Q

Hysteria is now called

A

Conversion disorder

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35
Q

Hysteria used to be thought ..

A

To be only in women - empty uterus wandering through the body searching for conception, external symptoms = where the uterus was lodged internally

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36
Q

What are four humours?

A

Blood, black bile, yellow bile and phlegm

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37
Q

What does blood represent?

A

Courageous and hopeful outlook on life

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38
Q

What does phlegm represent?

A

Calm and emotional attitude

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39
Q

What does yellow bile represent?

A

Mania

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40
Q

What does black bile represent?

A

Melancholia

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41
Q

Hippocrates’ views on treatment of mental illness

A

Advocated the removal of patients from their families as treatment - foreshadowing the practice of humane treatment and institutionalization

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42
Q

Galen’s contribution

A

Attributed hysteria to a psychological cause, believing it to be a symptom of unhappiness in women who had lost interest and an enjoyment of sex. Saw people with delusions

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43
Q

Middle ages through the renaissance - perspective on mental illness

A

Influence of the Roman Catholic Church, abnormal behaviour was seen as the work of the devil (demons). Witchcraft also explained abnormal behaviour - mass hysteria (caused by spirits)

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44
Q

Tarantism

A

During the middle ages there was a belief that the bite of a wolf spider (tarantula) would cause death unless a person engaged in joyous, frenetic dancing. This was fuelled by mass hysteria, as this bite as completely harmless

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45
Q

Lycanthropy

A

During the middle ages there was a belief that people were possessed by wolves, also driven by mass hysteria

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46
Q

Scientific basis for mass hysteria

A

Emotional contagion - automatic mimicry and synchronization of expressions, vocalizations, postures and movements of one person by another

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47
Q

Enlightenment by Johann Weyer and Paracelsus on treatment of mental illness

A

Refuted idea that abnormal behaviours were linked to demonic possession, believed there could be psychological origin to some physical illnesses. During the middle ages

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48
Q

Where were the people with mental disorders placed in the middle ages?

A

Housed in asylums - often called madhouses, treatment consisted of confinement (chains, shackles, isolation in dark cells), torturous practices (ice-cold baths, spinning in chairs, severely restrictive diets) and medical treatments (emetics, purgatives and bloodletting)

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49
Q

19th Century’s views on mental illnesses

A

Removed patients from warehouse asylums into specialized facilities devoted to the care and treatment of the mentally ill. More advocation for more humane, moral treatment. Us of respect, kindness, religion and vocation

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50
Q

Key founders of new outlook on mental illness in the 19th century

A

Pinel, Tuke, Rush, Diz, Kraepelin

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51
Q

Kraepelin

A

Etiology - cause of mental illness and Prognosis - development of the illness

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52
Q

Pinel advocated for …

A

Physicians listening to the patient and observing their behaviour

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53
Q

Mesmer

A

Demonstrated power of placebo effect

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54
Q

Perspective change within the 19th century on development / cause of mental illnesses

A

Discovery that a physical disease could cause a psychological disorder was significant (syphilis led to general paresis - physical paralysis and mental illness)

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55
Q

First asylum in what is now North America

A

Hotel Dieu in Quebec in 1639

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56
Q

Conversion asylums in the 1800s

A

Many jails and military barracks converted into asylums

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57
Q

Homewood retreat in Guelph

A

Received moral treatment, catered to the wealthy, wanted routine, activities, healthy diet, exercise (paying for treatment). Privately funded so residents had control over interventions

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58
Q

Biological scarring

A

Years of living with a disorder causes changes in the brain

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59
Q

Behavioural models, behavioural genetics

A

Brain malfunctioning or structural abnormalities can exist from psychological disorders (ex. frontal lobe of schizophrenics is less dense than normal)

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60
Q

Viral infection theory

A

A fetus is exposed to toxins or a virus in prenatal stage, or shortly after birth (may take several pathways to produce disorder)

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61
Q

Freud

A

Found of psychoanalysis, believed roots of abnormal behaviour were established in the first five years of life (unconscious memory). All behaviour originated in the unconscious motivations

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62
Q

Freud’s three regions of the brain

A

Id - basic instinctual drives, source of psychic energy (libido), pleasure seeking

Ego - develops when id comes in contact with reality

Superego - imposes moral restraint on the id’s impulses (especially sexual and aggressive)

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63
Q

Defence mechanisms

A

The mind’s negative or distressing thoughts and feelings are disguised to emerge to consciousness in a more acceptable form

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64
Q

Psychosexual stages of development

A

Oral, anal, phallic (sexual fantasies about parents), latency and genital phases

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65
Q

Which psychosexual stages of development play a more limited role in abnormal behaviour?

A

Latency phase and genital phase

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66
Q

Fixation in psychosexual development

A

Individuals become fixated (stalled) at a stage of psychosexual development, leaving a psychological mark on the unconscious

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67
Q

Treatment of psychoanalysis

A

Dream analysis, interpretation, free association, insight and catharsis (release of emotion)

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68
Q

Denial

A

Dealing with an anxiety-provoking stimulus by acting as if it doesn’t exist

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69
Q

Displacement

A

Taking out impulses on a less-threatening target

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70
Q

Intellectualization

A

Avoiding unacceptable emotions by focusing on the intellectual aspects of an event

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71
Q

Projection

A

Attributing your own unacceptable impulses to someone else

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72
Q

Rationalization

A

Supplying a plausible but incorrect explanation for a behaviour rather than the real reason

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73
Q

Reaction formation

A

Taking the opposite belief because the true belief causes anxiety

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74
Q

Regression

A

Under threat, returning to a previous stage of development

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75
Q

Repression

A

Burying unwanted thoughts out of conscious thought

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76
Q

Carl Jung

A

Analytic therapy, believed behavioural motivators are psychological and spiritual (not sexual) and that future goals rather than past events motivate behaviours

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77
Q

Alfred Adler

A

Individual psychology (birth order, sibling rivalry, inferiority complex)

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78
Q

Ego psychology

A

Increased focus on conscious motivations and healthy forms of human functioning

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79
Q

Object relations theory

A

Addresses people’s emotional relations with important objects, emphasizes people’s basic drive for social interactions and that motivations for social contact are more than simply to satisfy sexual and aggressive instincts

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80
Q

Behaviourism

A

All behaviour (normal or abnormal) is to be learned as a result of experiences of interactions with the environment (importance of external events)

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81
Q

We learn both adaptive and manipulative behaviours as a ..

A

Source of coping

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82
Q

Pavlov’s dogs and classical conditioning

A

UCS (meat) –> UCR (salivation), neutral stimulus of the bell paired with UCS –> CS –> CR

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83
Q

Watson

A

All behaviour is learned (little Albert and little Peter), observable behaviours

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84
Q

Little Albert

A

Paired a white rabbit with a loud noise, eventually paired fear with rabbit, eventually showed rabbit without the noise and elicited fear response

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85
Q

Wolpe

A

Demonstrated that classical conditioning could be used in the development of anxiety and to eliminate fear. Used a hierarchy of events to eliminate anxiety and taught patients how to relax

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86
Q

Wolpe based his theories on ..

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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87
Q

Example of hierarchy of events to eliminate anxiety by Wolpe

A

Someone who fears flying would divide up the task into small, doable tasks - first go to the airport, then sit in the boarding area, then go onto the plane, then take off (deal with the small things first)

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88
Q

Vicarious conditioning

A

Learning by observing another’s behaviour, then incorporating that into own way of behaving. No trial learning - the person does not need to actually do the behaviour in order to learn it (watching a model, observation)

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89
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

Reinforcement (positive and negative) increases behaviour and punishment (positive and negative) decreases behaviour

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90
Q

Operant conditioning - primary reinforcers

A

Those that have their own intrinsic value (satisfy basic need - food, water or even attention)

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91
Q

Operant conditioning - secondary reinforcers

A

Those that have gained value to the person because they become associated with primary reinforcers (money)

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92
Q

Operant conditioning - shaping

A

Closer steps or successive approximations to a final goal are rewarded (teaching dolphin to do long tricks for a show). Start with rewarding small behaviour and then gradually expect and therefore reward for larger behaviour

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93
Q

Biological

A

Field of behavioural genetics emerged with works by Galton

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94
Q

Biological field suggests potential relationship between

A

Viral infection and the onset of psychological disorders - virus may act directly by infecting the CNS or virus may act indirectly by changing the immune system of the mother of the fetus thereby making one or both more susceptible to other biological or environmental factors

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95
Q

Psychological approaches

A

Emphasizes how environmental factors (family and cultural factors) may influence the development and maintenance of abnormal behaviour

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96
Q

Cognitive

A

Proposes that abnormal behaviours is a result of distorted cognitive (mental) processes, not internal forces or external events. The way we perceive or think about the events we experience shapes who we are

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97
Q

Aaron Beck

A

Cognitive perspective. 3 distorted views of depression (the negative cognitive triad) - negative view of self, world and future

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98
Q

Negative assumptions often called

A

Cognitive distortions

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99
Q

Treatment for cognitive

A

Change these distorted thoughts using behavioural experiments and talk therapy

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100
Q

Example of all-or-nothing thinking

A

If I don’t go to an Ivy League school, I’ll be a bum

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101
Q

Example of overgeneralizing

A

Everything I do is wrong

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102
Q

Example of mental filtering

A

The instructor said the paper was good but criticized an example of page 6, therefore he really hated the paper.

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103
Q

Example of disqualifying the positive

A

Sure I got an A, but that was pure luck. I’m not that smart

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104
Q

Example of jumping to conclusions

A

The bank teller barely looked at me, she really hates me

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105
Q

Example of magnifying or minimizing

A

I mispronounced that word in my speech, I really screwed up OR I can dance well, but that’s not really important, being smart is important and I’m not smart

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106
Q

Example of catastrophizing

A

I failed the quiz. I’ll never graduate from college

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107
Q

Example of reasoning emotionally

A

I feel hopeless, so this situation must be hopeless

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108
Q

Example of making “should” statements

A

I should get an A in this class even though it is really hard

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109
Q

Example of mislabeling

A

I failed this quiz. I’m a complete and total idiot

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110
Q

Example of personalizing

A

We did not get that big account at work. It’s all my fault

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111
Q

Humanistic

A

Based on phenomenology - a person’s subjective perception of the world is more important than the actual world. Humans are good and are motivated to self-actualize (develop to their full potential)

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112
Q

Humanistic approach on abnormal behaviour

A

Occurs when there is a failure in the process of self-actualization

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113
Q

Carl Rogers

A

Abnormal behaviour originates when one’s self image and actual self are incongruent, limits ability to achieve’s one full potential, the larger the discrepancy, the motion emotional and real-world problems the person experiences

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114
Q

Client centered therapy

A

Part of cognitive approach - release the individual’s existing capacity to self-actualize through interactions with the therapist. Focuses on genuineness, epithetic and understanding (trying to understand how the client sees themselves), unconditional positive regard

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115
Q

Sociocultural models

A

Abnormal behaviour must be understood within the context of social and cultural forces such as gender roles, social class, interpersonal resources and ethnicity. Abnormal behaviour reflects the social and cultural environment in which a person lives

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116
Q

Sociocultural models - boys

A

Tend to be discouraged from showing emotion because it shows weakness (less likely to admit to having a phobia, seek help)

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117
Q

Sociocultural models - girls

A

Girls are more likely to develop eating disorders from expectations from society

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118
Q

Biopsychosocial model

A

No single model can fully explain the presence of abnormal behaviour, examines biological, psychological, social and cultural factors

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119
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

Diathesis indicates a predisposition to a psychological disorder. Assumes that psychological disorders may have a biological basis - presence of predisposition and a stress to set it off results in psychological disorders

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120
Q

Translational research

A

Scientific approach that focuses on communication between basic science and applied clinical research - scientific discoveries must be translated into practical applications

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121
Q

3 main points of ethics and responsibility

A

Respect for persons (subjects in study must be capable of making decisions about themselves)

Beneficence - maximizing benefits and minimize harm

Justice - fairness in distribution of what is deserved

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122
Q

Important points of ethnics and responsibility

A

Informed consent, subjects remain anonymous, research ethics boards must review studies, based on tri-council policy statement - sets standards for research ethnics

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123
Q

Two main parts of the nervous system

A

CNS (brain and spinal cord), PNS

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124
Q

Dendrite

A

Tree-like branches that receive messages from the neurons

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125
Q

NTM

A

Chemicals that transmit information to and from the neurons

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126
Q

Soma

A

Keeps the cell alive, cell body containing the nucleus

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127
Q

Axon

A

Tube-like structures that carry messages to the cells

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128
Q

Synapse

A

Space between the neurons

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129
Q

Neuron

A

Nerve cell found throughout the body (86 billion nerve cells)

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130
Q

Brain stem

A

Primital, controls fundamental biological functions - breathing

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131
Q

Hindbrain

A

Medulla, pons, cerebellum (regulations breathing, heart beat, motor control, balance)

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132
Q

Lesion

A

Area of damage or abnormality

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133
Q

Midbrain

A

Coordinates sensory information and movement, houses the reticular activating system which regulates our sleep and arousal systems

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134
Q

Thalamus

A

Relay station, directs nerve signals that carry sensory data to the cortex

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135
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Homeostasis, regulation of blood pressure, body temperature, fluid and electrolyte balance and body weight

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136
Q

Forebrain

A

Cerebral cortex, plus limbic system and basal ganglia

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137
Q

Limbic system

A

Amygdala, cingulate gyrus and hippocampus - deals primarily with emotions and impulses

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138
Q

Hippocampus

A

Memory formation (linked with memory deficits)

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139
Q

Basal ganglia

A

Controls movement (finger tapping), associated with dopamine, may inhibit movement (structures within - caudate putamen, nucleus accumbens, globus plaids, substantia nigra and subthalamic nucleus)

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140
Q

Alzheimer’s brain

A

Contains greater number of plaques and tangles

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141
Q

Biological scarring

A

Changes in the brain over time with years of living with a disorder

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142
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Higher cognitive functioning - reasoning, abstract thought, perception of time and creativity

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143
Q

Left hemisphere

A

Language and cognitive functioning, processes information in a linear and logical manner

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144
Q

Right hemisphere

A

Processes the world in a holistic manner, spatial, creativity, imagery and intuition

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145
Q

Each hemisphere has ..

A

4 lobes - temporal, parietal, occipital and frontal

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146
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Understanding auditory / verbal information and verbal memory

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147
Q

Parietal lobe

A

Integrates sensory information from various sources, visuospatial processing

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148
Q

Occipital lobe

A

Center of visual processing

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149
Q

Frontal lobe

A

Reasoning impulse control, judgement, memory, problem solving and sexual and social behaviour

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150
Q

Corpus callosum

A

Allows communication between the two hemispheres

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151
Q

PNS

A

Sensory-somatic nervous system and autonomic NS

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152
Q

Sensory-somatic nervous system

A

Nerves which control sensation and muscle movement, consists of the cranial nerves

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153
Q

Autonomic NS

A

Sympathetic NS which controls involuntary movements, activated the body and actives in presence of stress or anxiety (bodily arousal) and parasympathetic NS which returns the body functioning to resting levels

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154
Q

The Endocrine system

A

Works together twitch the CNS, a system in the body that sends messages to the bodily via hormones, endocrine glands produce hormones - released into the bloodstream to act on target organs

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155
Q

Pituitary gland

A

Master gland

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156
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Regulates the pituitary gland

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157
Q

Adrenal glands

A

Above the kidneys, releases epinephrine (adrenaline)

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158
Q

Thyroid glands

A

Regulates metabolism, body temperature and weight

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159
Q

Which hormones may be elevated in people with depression, anxiety and other psychological disorders?

A

Cortisol, prolactin

160
Q

Patient H.M

A

Hit his head when he was young, developed grand mal seizures, part of his medial temporal lobe was removed from each side. Two thirds of his hippocampus was removed (suffered from amnesia of long term memories that occurred after the surgery

161
Q

What did patient H.M teach us?

A

Short term memories do not depend on a functioning hippocampus

Long term memories must go through the hippocampus in order to be permanently stored

162
Q

Hebb

A

Human behaviour and mental functioning could not be adequately explained by focusing only on the workings of the brain, he emphasized a systems approach, whereby nervous system in a way that each modifies the other - network of neurons can be modified to recognize incoming stimuli (inputs) and to produce specific responses (outputs)

163
Q

Communication in the NS is ..

A

Both electrical and chemical

164
Q

NTM

A

Chemical substances that relay electrical signals between one neuron to the next

165
Q

When the electrical signal reaches the axon terminal..

A

The NTM is released, travel across the synapse and land on the surface of the neighbouring neuron - it can cause excitation or inhibition depending on the NTM

166
Q

Neuroimaging

A

Pictures of the brain, neuroanatomy –> brain structure (CT or CAT scans, MRI), neurophysiology (brain function), PET scans, fMRI

167
Q

Loci

A

Specific places on specific chromosomes that are associated with many complex traits

168
Q

Influence of genes on characteristics

A

Height, eye colour, various diseases, personality, abnormal behaviour

169
Q

Complex traits

A

Many genes and environmental factors exert small to moderate effects to influence most behavioural traits

170
Q

Law of segregation

A

Individual receives one of two elements from each parent, one dominant (expressed in offspring) another recessive (genetically present but not expressed in offspring unless received two recessive genes from both parents)

171
Q

Law of independent assortment

A

Alleles (variations) of one gene assort independently from the alleles of other genes

172
Q

Behavioural genetics

A

Studies the interaction between genes and environment in determining individual differences in behaviour

173
Q

Family studies

A

Family history, cannot separate genetic vs. environmental

174
Q

Family aggregation

A

Studies examine whether the family members of someone with a disorder (the proband) are more likely to have that disorder than are family members of people without the disorder

175
Q

When is the disorder considered to be familial or to aggregate in families?

A

If the disorder is more commonly found among the proband’s family

176
Q

Adoption studies, adopted away offspring similar to biological parents =

A

Genetic influence

177
Q

Adoption studies, adopted away offspring similar to adopted parents =

A

Environmental influence - doesn’t work for selective adoptions (adopted into a family that is similar to their original family)

178
Q

Twin studies, monozygotic

A

MZ = identical, allows for examination of the role of environmental influence

179
Q

Twin studies, dizygotic

A

DZ = fraternal, dizygotic twins with behavioural differences can be caused by environmental or genetic factors

180
Q

Molecular genetics

A

Study of the structure and function of genes at a molecular level, looks at more specifically which gene may cause the development of a disorder

181
Q

Genome wide linkage analysis

A

Large samples of affected relative pairs (people with the same disorder) or large family in which many people have the disorder. Looks for regions on genome that affected relative share. Narrows the search for genes from the whole genome to areas on specific chromosomes

182
Q

Candidate gene association study

A

CGAS - compares a large group of individuals who have a specific trait or disease with a well matched group without trait or disease, choose one or several genes in advance based on some knowledge of the biology of the trait or the function of the gene

183
Q

Genome wide association study

A

GWAS - study thousands of genes vs. as few as CGAS, also uses large samples of cases and well-matched controls, GWAS does not require choice of gene prior

184
Q

Epigenetics

A

Focuses on heritable changes in the expression of genes, which are not caused by changes in actual DNA sequence but rather by environmental exposures - environment has the ability to influence which genes are activated vs. silenced

185
Q

Case study

A

A comprehensive description of an individual or group of individuals

186
Q

Benefits of a case study

A

Can focus on the assessment and description of abnormal behaviour or its treatment, examine rare phenomena, generate hypothesis for group studies, allows practitioners to be involved in research and illustrates important clinical issues

187
Q

Limitations of a case study

A

Impossible to replicate, nothing is manipulated by the observer, limited in ability to understand abnormal behaviour, inability to make any firm conclusions (no causality - no control group)

188
Q

Single-case designs

A

Experimental studies conducted with a single individual, most common ABAB studies (patients are their own control group, therefore we can get causality from these studies)

189
Q

Benefits of single-case designs

A

Controlled study = some causality, individual serves as his / her own control group

190
Q

Limitations of single-case designs

A

Not generalize results to heterogenous groups, not address the impact of individual differences (age, sex and ethnicity), telling someone you are measuring or observing a certain behaviour may increase or decrease the frequency of that behaviour

191
Q

ABAB studies

A

A represents a baseline phase and B represents a treatment phase, the two phases are alternated to examine their impact on behaviour - ensure behaviour is stabilized within each condition, can be used to reverse certain learned behaviours (bad habits)

192
Q

Multiple baseline design

A

When a behaviour cannot be reversed, applies only one AB sequence, but the sequence is repeated across individuals, settings or behaviours (can be applied to a single individual across different behaviours (first smoking then overeating) or settings

193
Q

Multiple baseline design, how do we know if the intervention is effective

A

If the B phase consistently produces the same behaviour change (or is replicated) this is evidence that the intervention is effective

194
Q

Research at the group level

A

One group will be given treatment while the other will not (control), most common kind of research. Allows researchers to evaluate the impact of different treatments, but cannot draw conclusions about any one individual

195
Q

Correlation Methods

A

Relationship between two or more variables

196
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

One variable change causes a change in another variable, describes the direction and strength of the relationship, ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 C

197
Q

Positive correlation

A

Variable A increases causes increase in variable B - same direction

198
Q

Negative correlation

A

Variable A increases causes decrease in variable B - opposite direction

199
Q

Controlled group design

A

Ensures the design of the study is appropriate to the question of interest, includes a good size sample size. Different groups are exposed to different conditions at least one of which is experimental and one of which is a control group. Experimental group exposed to variable

200
Q

Moderators

A

Third variables can influence the relationship and make it appear like there is some kind of relationship between the variables

201
Q

Limitation of controlled group design

A

The failure of inclusion in their sample (age, sex, race)

202
Q

Correlation vs. causation

A

Correlation suggests some type of relationship, but causation is that one variable actually causes the other

203
Q

Predict vs. causality

A

Predict indicates that a certain level of variable x, assessed at time 1 are significantly associated with certain levels of variable y, assessed at time 2

204
Q

IV

A

Independent variable is controlled by the experimenter (what is manipulated)

205
Q

DV

A

Dependent variable is assessed to determine the effect of the IV (what is measured)

206
Q

Placebo control group

A

Control group with an inactive treatment is provided (ineffective drug but the subjects are unaware of their involvement in this group - blind)

207
Q

Random assignment

A

Of subject involvement in each group, variabilities of the subjects spread out between the groups (reduces affect of third variables)

208
Q

Random assignment helps to increase

A

Internal validity

209
Q

Internal validity

A

Does you study measure what it is supposed to study? Control of the study, the extent to which the study design allows conclusion that the IV (intervention) caused changes in the DV (outcome)

210
Q

External validity

A

Can the results of the study be generalized to subjects outside of the study

211
Q

Internal vs. external validity =

A

Efficacy vs. effectiveness

212
Q

Reliability

A

How reliable is the study in measuring the variable you are examining (Math test used to measure IQ is not a reliable test), the consistency of the study, to get the same results among different trials

213
Q

Valid

A

Measure of a variable accurately

214
Q

Statistical significance

A

Using numbers to prove relevancy of the data, probability that the conclusions of the study were not due to chance

215
Q

Clinical significance

A

More generalized conclusions of significance in the subject’s actual life, of more practical or clinical value

216
Q

Analogue study

A

Advertise for subjects who have same interests or behaviours you want to study

217
Q

Clinical sample

A

People seeking help

218
Q

Double blind studies

A

Neither the subject nor the evaluator are aware of which group the subject is in

219
Q

Single blind studies

A

Either the subject OR the evaluator is aware of which group the subject is in

220
Q

Cohort

A

A group of people who share a common characteristic and move forward in time as a unit

221
Q

Birth cohort

A

Born in a certain geographic area in a given year

222
Q

Inception cohort

A

Individuals enrolled in a study at a given point in time

223
Q

Exposure cohort

A

Individuals based on common exposure such as witnessing the events of 9/11 or exposure to lead paint in childhood

224
Q

Cohort studies used to study ..

A

Incidence (onset of new cases), causes and prognosis (outcome)

225
Q

Cross sectional design

A

Cohorts are assessed once for the specific variable under investigation, they are fast and efficient

226
Q

Main problem of cross sectional designs

A

Main problem what is causing this relationship over time, is it something in the subject’s past, there are many other variables to take into account, cause and effect can rarely be determined

227
Q

Longitudinal design

A

A research design in which a cohort are assessed at least twice over a certain time interval

228
Q

Project Impact Study

A

Example of a longitudinal design study where they found a decrease in the prevalence of smoking rate in students over time using school-based tobacco control policies and programs

229
Q

Main problem of longitudinal studies

A

People may die during this time or just leave the study

230
Q

Research at the population level

A

Looking at issues at the population level and the cause of these, examples - what is causing people to decide to smoke? crime? unemployment rate?

To understand abnormal psychology at the broadest possible level

231
Q

Epidemiology

A

Focuses on the prevalence and incidence of mental disorders, disease patterns in human populations and factors that influence these patterns

232
Q

Prevalence

A

Is the number of cases of a disorder in a given population at a designated time

233
Q

Incidence

A

Is the number of new cases that emerge in a given population during a specified period of time

234
Q

Observational epidemiology

A

Documents the presence of physical or psychological disorders in human populations, diagnostic interviews

235
Q

Experimental epidemiology

A

Manipulation of exposure to either causal or preventive factors, random assignment

236
Q

Psychotic disorders

A

Unusual thinking, distorted perceptions and odd behaviours (out of touch with reality and unable to think in a logical or coherent manner)

237
Q

Psychosis

A

A loss of contact with reality (emotions, thoughts, behaviours)

238
Q

Delusion

A

A false belief (overwhelming including basically everything in their life)

239
Q

Hallucinations

A

A false sensory perceptions (of all senses, including taste)

240
Q

Psychotic symptoms may also occur in patients with..

A

Bipolar disorder, major depressive disorder, PTSD and substance-related disorders

Or people with neurological disorders or brain tumours

241
Q

Psychotic symptoms in someone with neurological disorders

A

Typically more rapid onset

242
Q

Brief, limited psychotic experiences

A

Occurs in 2-12% of adults, but thoughts or voices are more positive, still feel in control

243
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Characterized by disorganization in thought, perception and behaviour, it is a severe psychological disorder - typically don’t recover once you have it

244
Q

First person to look at schizophrenia

A

Kraepelin called it Dementia Praecox (thought it was an earlier form of dementia)

245
Q

What does preacox mean?

A

Early life onset

246
Q

Schizo

A

Greek word for split, but it is not describing split personalities, but the split between an individual’s thoughts and feelings

247
Q

Schizophrenia vs. DID

A

Not split or multiple personalities with schizophrenia

248
Q

Bleuler focused on four core symptoms of schizophrenia including ..

A

Ambivalence, disturbances of affect, disturbances of association and preferences for fantasy over reality

249
Q

DSM-5 Criteria for schizophrenia

A

Two or more of the symptoms active for much of a 1 month period, one must be delusions, hallucinations and disorganized speech, other two symptoms may be grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour and negative symptoms. Level of functioning is below onset, continuous signs for a least 6 months, no mood episodes, no physiological cause, no history of autism spectrum disorder

250
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Those that are above the normal scope of sensations and perceptions (things normal people would not experience)

251
Q

Examples of positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Unusual thoughts, feelings, perceptions and behaviours, delusions, hallucinations

252
Q

Persecutory delusions

A

Someone is out to get them

253
Q

Of influence delusions

A

Someone / something is trying to control their thoughts and influence how they think

254
Q

Hallucinations in schizophrenics

A

Visual, auditory (most common), olfactory, somatic, gustatory

Visual hallucinations are less common, more seen in severe cases of the disorder but often include seeing the devil or a dead relative or friend

255
Q

Loose associations

A

Sentences or words one after another will not make sense, no association between thoughts, no connection, positive symptom of schizophrenia

256
Q

Thought blocking

A

Time delay within thoughts, positive symptom of schizophrenia

257
Q

Clang associations

A

Governed by words that sound a like, one sentence will hinge off of a word and the next sentence will be about a word that sounds similar to that one word, positive symptom of schizophrenia

258
Q

Catatonia

A

Muscle rigidity and mental stupor, person is awake but is non-responsive to external stimulation, positive symptom of schizophrenia, may be paired with waxy flexibility (if you put someone’s arm up it will stay there)

259
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Negative symptoms are those behaviours, thoughts and perceptions that are absent in people with schizophrenia that normal people have

260
Q

Examples of negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Blunted affect, anhedonia, abolition, alogia, psychomotor retardation

261
Q

Blunted effect

A

Minimized emotion or even no emotion (in voice - monotonic voice, and in facial expressions), negative symptom of schizophrenia

262
Q

Anhedonia

A

No capacity for joy or pleasure, negative symptom of schizophrenia

263
Q

Avolition

A

No motivation, inability to initiate or follow through on plans, negative symptom of schizophrenia

264
Q

Alogia

A

Without / poverty of speech, decreased quality or quantity of speech, negative symptom of schizophrenia

265
Q

Psychomotor retardation

A

Retarded in their movement, slow in reaching for something they want to get (slowness in mental or physical activities)

266
Q

Negative symptoms to be more ___ to medication

A

More resistant, often persisting with medication

267
Q

Social cognitive deficit of schizophrenia

A

Doesn’t know the generally accepted rules of social interaction (doesn’t know not to go up to someone and just stare at them in the face), difficulty in identifying emotional states of others, lies and sarcasm

268
Q

People with schizophrenia struggle with visual, verbal and abstract learning

A

Difficult time learning about abstract concepts like social interactions, relationships and love

269
Q

Echolalia

A

People with schizophrenia can sometimes show this by repeating what the other person said with no purpose

270
Q

Cognitive deficits symptoms in schizophrenics

A

Cognitive deficits are one of the earliest signs of schizophrenia and are often long-lasting, persisting with medication

271
Q

Comorbidity with schizophrenia

A

Can have comorbidity with depression (higher rates of suicide) or anxiety. Often paired with substance abuse - self-medication hypothesis (medication may help the patients deal with negative symptoms, like not feeling pleasure)

272
Q

Has to have some type of ___ to be diagnosed as disorder

A

Functional impairment

273
Q

Symptom severity vs. level of impairment of schizophrenia

A

Positive correlation

274
Q

Cycle of symptoms in schizophrenia

A

Remission and relapses of positive symptoms

275
Q

Period of recovery form in schizophrenia

A

Presence of all of the following for one year - no psychotic symptoms, no negative symptoms and demonstration of adequate psychosocial functioning (working at least half-time, moderate social activity, no hospitalizations)

276
Q

Someone is “in recovery” with schizophrenia when ..

A

They were formerly substance dependent and now can manage most aspects of their life, but may still have symptoms

277
Q

Schizophrenics and violence

A

Tend to be more violent than general population, but not necessarily more than other psychotic disorders. Higher risk of being victims and perpetrators of violence. Violence more likely if the person also shows substance abuse

278
Q

Prevalence rates of schizophrenia

A

Averages about 1% of general population among various groups

279
Q

Schizophrenia is more common for people ..

A

Who live in urban settings (more complicated lifestyle), who move to a new area / country (social isolation and discrimination) and who are male

280
Q

Schizophrenia is often premorbid

A

Before the illness, features exist for many years before the actual psychotic symptoms emerge

281
Q

Prodromal phase of schizophrenia

A

Social withdrawal or deterioration in hygiene

282
Q

Acute phase of schizophrenia

A

Starts to exhibit positive symptoms

283
Q

Residual phase of schizophrenia

A

Psychotic symptoms no longer present, negative symptoms remain (typically happens when taking anti-psychotics, negative symptoms not touched well)

284
Q

Phases of schizophrenia development

A

Prodromal, acute and residual

285
Q

Onset of schizophrenia

A

Typically occurs in late adolescence or early adulthood

286
Q

Women vs. males with schizophrenia

A

Women tend to develop at an older age and have milder forms

287
Q

More positive outcomes for schizophrenics

A

Found in developing countries than in developed - possibly because there is fewer social supports in more industrialized countries

288
Q

Developmental factors for schizophrenia

A

Much less social when 11 to 13 years old, as children, adults who develop schizophrenia may have situational anxiety, nervous tension, depression, magical thinking or ideas or delusions of reference

289
Q

Early onset of schizophrenia

A

17-19 years, lose more cortical gray matter over 5 years compared to any other disorder, the gray matter is the neurons, loss is from the front to back. 8-20% achieve full remission - much worse than an adult with schizophrenia

290
Q

Magical thinking

A

Possible early symptom seen in childhood for people who could develop schizophrenia when they are adults. Involves beliefs that thinking about something can make it happen (thinking about parents dying will cause them to)

291
Q

Ideas of reference

A

Possible early symptom seen in childhood for people who could develop schizophrenia when they are adults. Involves someone interpreting casual events as being directly related to them (walking by two people laughing, they’ll think they are laughing at them)

292
Q

Delusions of reference

A

Possible early symptom seen in childhood for people who could develop schizophrenia when they are adults. Involves the idea that someone is sure that people are talking about you

293
Q

Hormonal implications of schizophrenia

A

Estrogen levels in females have strong influence on brain development, might be a result of estrogen imbalance that causes retardation in brain development in schizophrenia

294
Q

The most common type of schizophrenia

A

Paranoid schizophrenia

295
Q

Intermediate onset of schizophrenia

A

22 years

296
Q

Late onset of schizophrenia

A

33 years

297
Q

Limitations in studying schizophrenia

A

Data often collected retrospectively (asking the patient or parents about their childhood once they are already diagnosed)

298
Q

Inaccurate diagnosis of schizophrenia

A

No cultural competence among clinicians (not trained well across different cultures), language barriers and diagnosis solely based on symptoms without knowing culture can lead to misdiagnosis

299
Q

Etiology

A

Cause of the disorder

300
Q

Biological etiology of schizophrenia

A

Low levels of GABA and glutamate associated with cognitive deficits (as they are responsible for learning and memory). Low levels of dopamine and serotonin in the cortex associated with negative symptoms and too much dopamine in the neural synapses in the limbic areas associated with the disorder

301
Q

Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia

A

Too much dopamine in the limbic system neural synapse may lead to some symptoms (including psychosis) of the disorder

302
Q

Neuroanatomy and schizophrenia

A

Increased size of ventricles - pushes on other brain structures, decreased amount of cortical gray matter. Theses changes can also be seen in family members of someone who has the disease, when they themselves do not. Therefore abnormalities are not the result of the illness, but rather are present before the positive symptoms emerge

303
Q

Viral theories of schizophrenia

A

Wonder if viruses (including the influenza during the first or second semester) may increase the risk of development for the fetus

304
Q

Pregnancy events increasing risk of schizophrenia

A

Maternal genital or reproductive infections during time of conceptions, nutritional deprivation during early gestation, severe prenatal maternal stress and bleeding during pregnancy

305
Q

Synaptic pruning and schizophrenia

A

Synaptic pruning of weak neurons occurs faster in individuals with schizophrenia - less communication (may lead to neural retardation), acceleration of this during adolescence

306
Q

Genetic risk of schizophrenia

A

15% - one parent

50% - both parents

307
Q

How many chromosome have been identified to possibly contribute to the onset of schizophrenia

A

9

308
Q

Development of schizophrenia can possibly be direct or indirect

A

Direct transmission of the actual disorder from one family member to another or indirect transmission by affecting the functioning or NTMs such a dopamine

309
Q

What we expect is the cause of the development of schizophrenia

A

Involves the action of hundreds of genes (polygenic influence) and that epigenetic and environmental stressors factors are likely to also play a role

310
Q

Expressed emotion

A

The level of emotional involvement and critical attitudes that exist within a family of a patient

311
Q

Family influences and etiology of schizophrenia

A

With a parent with schizophrenia - family environment high in conflict and criticism and low EE

Without parent with schizophrenia - family environment with high EE (high levels of emotional over-involvement and critical attitudes) are more likely to relapse (environmental stressors)

312
Q

Historical treatment of schizophrenia

A

Lobotomies were used to remove part of the brain to reduce violence and aggressive behaviour

313
Q

1950s treatment of schizophrenia

A

Used chlorpromazine to treat symptoms

314
Q

Delay of treatment of schizophrenia, increases..

A

Severity of impairment - more time for neuronal damage

315
Q

Pharmacological treatment of schizophrenia

A

Anti-psychotic drugs block dopamine receptors D1-D4 (a lot of side effects from typical anti-psychotics including muscle stiffness, tremors and tardive dyskinesia), but does treat positive symptoms.

Atypical anti-psychotic drugs cause less severe side effects of tardive dyskinesia and can have some effects on negative symptoms and cognitive impairments

316
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A

Typical symptoms of anti-psychotic drugs especially the typical anti-psychotic drugs. It involves abnormal and involuntary motor movements of the face, mouth, limbs and trunks

317
Q

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS) for schizophrenia

A

Provides stimulation to a targeted area of cerebral cortex to change brain activity. Decreased (temporarily) the frequency of voices (auditory hallucinations) and reduced distractions when they do occur. Does not reduce delusions

318
Q

Psychosocial treatment of schizophrenia (main)

A

Psychoeducation - both patient and family members are educated about what to expect, types of schizophrenia and symptoms

319
Q

Cognitive-behavioural treatment (CBT)

A

Used to reduce or eliminate psychotic symptoms, somewhat effective when taken in conjunction with anti-psychotic drugs

320
Q

Psychosocial treatment of schizophrenia (others)

A

Social skills training - teaches the basics of social interactions and both verbal and non-verbal skills. Supported employment - a psychological intervention that provides job skills

321
Q

Brief psychotic disorder

A

Sudden onset of psychotic symptoms (lasts less than a month), returns to normal level of functioning, related to psychological stress

322
Q

Schizophreniform disorder

A

Identical to schizophrenia but is, more than one month but less than 6 months, and some patients are able to still have some normal functioning

323
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

Has schizophrenia and depression, mania or mixed

324
Q

Delusional disorder

A

Have non-bizarre delusions (events that could actually happen), no disruption in functioning

325
Q

Shared psychotic disorder

A

Two people sharing a delusional belief (inducer or primary case is the individual who develops the disorder with the delusional content and then the secondary individual over time adopts the belief system, if the relationship is interrupted, the secondary person will lose the delusional beliefs quite quickly)

326
Q

Common delusional themes among individuals with delusional disorder

A

Erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, persecutory, somatic

327
Q

Erotomanic delusions

A

The person believes that someone of higher status is in love with them (sometimes found among celebrity stalkers)

328
Q

Grandiose delusions

A

The person has feelings of inflated worth, power, knowledge, identity or special relationships to a deity or a famous person

329
Q

Jealous delusions

A

The person’s sexual partner is unfaithful

330
Q

Persecutory delusions

A

The person (or someone close to the person) is being badly mistreated

331
Q

Somatic delusions

A

The person has a medical condition or physical defect for which no medical cause can be bound

332
Q

Clinical assessment

A

Involves gathering information to make decisions about the nature, status and treatment of psychological problems

333
Q

Clinical assessments begin with..

A

A set of referral questions (usually from general practitioners or other psychologists) that determine goals of assessment (want to answer this specific question of concern)

334
Q

Successful clinical assessments

A

Clinical assessments that lead to a diagnosis usually includes the evaluation of symptom and disorder severity, patterns of symptoms over time and the patient’s strengths and weaknesses

335
Q

Screening process of clinical assessments

A

Identifying problem or predict the risk for future problems (ex. risk of suicide for someone with clinical depression)

336
Q

Answering the questions of clinical assessments gives insight into ..

A

What instruments to use for diagnosis and treatment (what procedures to do)

337
Q

CES-D scale

A

Scale used for depression, score of 16 or higher out of 20 indicates the possibility of significant depression

338
Q

To evaluate the usefulness of any particular screening measure, psychologists looks for instruments that have strong …

A

Sensitivity - the ability to identify a problem that exists and strong specificity (percent of time that the screener actually identifies the absence of a problem)

339
Q

Important to tailor assessment to ..

A

Patient’s symptoms, age and medical status (medical history can lead to depression)

340
Q

How to evaluate patient’s progress through clinical assessments

A

Clinical assessment can be repeated at regular intervals during treatment to evaluate a patient’s progress

341
Q

Diagnosis

A

Identification of illness, derived from all of the information gotten prior, requires the presence of a cluster of symptoms in psychology

342
Q

Differential diagnosis

A

Attempt to determine which diagnosis most clearly describes the patient’s symptoms

343
Q

Treatment plan

A

Specific to the type of disorder or illness identified

344
Q

Outcome evaluation

A

Wide range of outcomes, to be useful the same measures must be administered consistently over the course of treatment

345
Q

Clinical significance

A

The amount of change in symptoms

346
Q

Reliable change index

A

Frequently used to determine whether the degree of change from beginning to end of treatment is meaningful

347
Q

Misdiagnosing

A

Misdiagnosing can quite easily occur, especially with something like schizophrenia when details of the symptoms are not taken correctly

348
Q

Examples of misdiagnosis

A

Deafness vs. intellectual disability

Epilepsy vs. schizophrenia

Medication reaction vs. depression (some medications cause depression)

349
Q

Standardization

A

Giving the same test to everyone involved (or of the same type)

350
Q

Normative comparison

A

Comparing scores with thousands and thousands of people of the same age

351
Q

Self-referent comparison

A

Comparing scores of one subject to an older score of their own (when someone gets a possible concussion - seeing impact of it)

352
Q

Reliability

A

Of the tests and the results, the test should produce the same scores if taken multiple times by the same person (consistency)

353
Q

Types of reliability

A

Test-retest reliability - the scores of the tests should be the same between different trials taken at different times

Inter-rater agreement - different people give out the same test (2 different interviewers reach same conclusions = good reliability)

354
Q

Validity

A

Is what I’m measuring actually what I want to be measuring

355
Q

Types of validity

A

Construct - is it measuring what it’s supposed to be

Criterion - how well is this IQ test correlated with other measures of IQ

Concurrent - given two tests for depression, are they well correlated

Predictive - can a test predict certain behaviours or outcomes (MCAT scores correlate well with success in medical school)

356
Q

What are the three important properties of psychological assessment instruments =

A

Standardization, reliability and validity

357
Q

Clinical assessments with different ages

A

Developmental changes over time, changes the type of tests and the people you want to ask about the patient’s behaviour

358
Q

Clinical assessments and development status

A

Where are they developmentally, are they acting as they should?

359
Q

The Letter International Performance Scale

A

No written / verbal component, more related to matching objects or shapes. Used to try to avoid cultural bias because simply translating the tests may not be completely sufficient in inclusivity

360
Q

Assessment instrument types

A

Self-report measures (patients evaluate symptoms - rating scale) or clinician-rated measures (clinician rates symptoms)

361
Q

Types of assessments

A

Clinician interviews (feels more personal with the patient), psychological tests, behavioural assessments, psychophysiological assessments

362
Q

Clinical interviews

A

Conversation to gather information. Purpose screening, diagnosis, treatment planning or outcome evaluation. Trusts with the patient is essential for them feeling comfortable sharing their symptoms and experiences - more likely to share more if they feel like they’re not being judged

363
Q

Types of clinical interviews

A

Unstructured (conclusions unreliable - nothing to compare it to) or structured (open / close-ended questions)

364
Q

Psychological tests / personality tests

A

Objective tests - give someone a sentence, is it true or false, they know what the sentence means and what answer to give

OR

Projective tests - used to discover the underlying personality or issue, don’t know how to respond to the test so it tests more of your fantasy (asked to respond to ambiguous stimuli)

365
Q

Example of objective psychological tests

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) - empirical keying = discriminates among groups along various clinical dimensions (people with anxiety or depression) and the Million Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) - lacks fit with the DSM system and categories, therefore difficult to use, one thing it is good for is validity of personality disorders

366
Q

Details about the MMPI test

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory test - uses validity scales (faking good / bad can be detected using f scale), if the f scale score is low then they are faking, whether they are thinking good or bad, if it is high there is some mental disorder present

367
Q

Types of projective tests

A

Rorschach inkblot test (shown ambiguous stimuli and then projects unique interpretation onto them that reflects their underlying unconscious processes and conflicts (of ego and id)

Thematic appreciation test (TAT) - consists of 31 black and white pictorial cards and the patient is asked to make up a story about the image

368
Q

Is the rorschach good to use?

A

It was poor validity and normative data, good reliability using Exner’s system (gives examples of what each response can mean)

369
Q

Benefits of using projective tests

A

Helpful with children, asking them to draw something (like draw your family) can be valuable in showing their feelings towards that situation because they often don’t want to talk negatively about their parents. Also helps get clients talking initially

370
Q

Psychological assessment use for job applications in Canada

A

Leadership roles (psychopathology, personal strengths), law enforcement (MMPI-2 looks for judgement of behavioural problems that may impair decision making) and military (applicant’s aptitude for specific role, cognitive ability and personality)

371
Q

Neurophysiological testing

A

Used to detect impairment in cognitive functioning, measures memory, attention, concentration, motor skills, perception and learning

372
Q

Types of Neurophysiological testing

A

Halstead-Reitan Neurophysiological battery, Wisconsin card sorting test (WCST) and bender visual motor gestalt talk (cognitive test)

373
Q

Wisconsin card sorting test

A

WCST - discriminates a frontal lesion from a non-frontal lesion, shifts attention from one aspect of something to another aspect. This instrument measures set shifting or the ability to display flexibility in thinking as the goal of the task changes (may be sorting cards by colour first and then without knowing it will switch and they will told their answers are wrong and they have to figure out the pattern switch)

374
Q

Intelligence tests

A

Used to measure intelligence quotient (IQ) - cognitive functioning that compares a person’s performance to their age-matched peers, normative data

375
Q

Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

A

Verbal and non-verbal shows those at both ends of IQ continuum (good at identifying gifted individuals)

376
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)

A

Verbal comprehension index (VCI), perceptional reasoning index (PRI), working memory index (WMI) - short term memory and processing speed index (PSI) - how fast you process this information

377
Q

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC-IV)

A

7-16 years, minimal ago because of certain developmental requirements need to be met

378
Q

Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPS-III)

A

2 1/2 to 7 years

379
Q

Functional analysis of behavioural assessments

A

Identifies causal links between behaviour, it’s antecedent and it’s consequences (what happened before the episode - maybe stress causes you to eat?), something is causing this behaviour, something that make the behaviour worth while - behaviour is reinforced in some way (positive or negative)

380
Q

Types of behavioural assessments

A

Self-monitoring - a patient records and observes own behaviour

Behavioural observation - measurement of behaviour by a trained observer

Behavioural avoidance tests - to assess avoidance behaviour

381
Q

The goal of behavioural assessment

A

Is to understand behaviour within the context of learning. It is learned behaviour, it is not something you did when you were young, but something that has been reinforced over time and become a habit

382
Q

Behavioural tests for specific symptoms

A

Beck depression scale, beck anxiety scale, the brief psychiatric rating scale (measures broad range of psychological symptoms)

383
Q

Psychophysiological assessment

A

Assessment strategies that measure the brain and nervous system activity

384
Q

Types of psychophysiological assessments

A

EEG, electrodermal activity, biofeedback

385
Q

EEG

A

Electroencephalography - measures and records brainwaves

386
Q

Electrodermal activity

A

Changes in electrical conductance due to changes in sweat gland activity

387
Q

Biofeedback

A

Trains patients to recognize and modify physiological signals (headache, relaxation sessions, teaching how to release muscles within the body)

388
Q

DMS-5

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

389
Q

Comorbidity of diseases

A

The presence of more than one disorder (ex. depression and anxiety). 50% of people have comorbidity

390
Q

Lifetime comorbidity

A

Refers to the occurrence of at least two disorders at some point in the person’s life, even though the disorders need not to occur at the same time

391
Q

Relationship of disorders in comorbidity

A

Comorbidity may exist because the two might be caused by some common genetic or environmental factor, or one disorder might be a consequence of another disorder

392
Q

Cultural-bound syndrome

A

Sets of symptoms that occur together uniquely in certain ethnic or racial groups

393
Q

When is a diagnostic system harmful?

A

Stereotypes and labels (stigmas), premature or inaccurate assumptions by clinicians can cause misdiagnosis, self-fulfilling prophecies. Normal variations of behaviour are over-medicated. Not all persons with the exact same diagnosis experience the exact same symptoms

394
Q

International Classification of Diseases (ICD)

A

Uses code-based classification system for physical diseases and a broad array of psychological symptoms and syndromes

395
Q

Categorical systems of diseases

A

DSM and ICD are both primarily based on categorical systems that classify sets of symptoms into disorders

396
Q

Dimensional systems of classifying disorders

A

Suggests that people with disorders are not qualitatively distinct from people without disorders, dimensional more complex. Disorders are simply extreme variations of normal behaviour

397
Q

What are the two features that support the value of dimensional approaches?

A

High frequency of comorbidity and within category variability

Maladjusted Mind 2030 (1 decks)

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