Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Joint and Several Liability

A

II can collect the entire sum from one defendant or could collect part from one and part from another

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2
Q

Several Liability

A

II can only collect the amount from ∆

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3
Q

True or False: ∆ can seek contribution for the amount of damages relative to the proportion of fault from the other ∆s.

A

True

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4
Q

Are punitive damages apportioned?

A

no

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5
Q

Vicarious liability

A

actor is liable for the tortious conduct of others

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6
Q

respondeat superior

A

an employer will be liable for the torts of an employee that are committed within the scope of employment

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7
Q

Will an employee who violates the rules of the employer be treated as having acted within the scope of employment?

A

yes

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8
Q

frolic

A

a complete departure from the scope of employment; employer is not liable

employer will be liable if found to have given the employee a special task (McDonalds case)

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9
Q

detour

A

a minor deviation from the scope of employment; employer liable

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10
Q

doctrine of coming and going

A

employer is not liable for employee getting in an accident in their commute to and from work

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11
Q

When are drivers of automobiles liable for torts committed by their passengers?

A

imposed when death or injury to a person or property occurs as a result of the third-party’s negligence while in the use of operation of the vehicle, with permission from the owner

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12
Q

direct liability

A

when an employer fails to adequately train, supervise or review an employee and that employee commits a tortious act; employer will be liable for resulting harm

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13
Q

national standard (med mal)

A

what a reasonable person with the same training/level of expertise in a certain specialty would do when compared to those that have the same training nationally

ex. all x are licensed to do y

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14
Q

modified locality rule (med Mal)

A

the degree of care, skill, and proficiency which is commonly exercised by ordinarily careful, skillful, and prudent physicians at the time of the operation and in similar localities

small town vs. small town

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15
Q

strict locality rule

A

in order to sufficiently demonstrate malpractice, the plaintiff must produce testimony that the defendant did not adhere to the standard of care practiced by physicians of his specialty in his own locality

from the specific town

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16
Q

common knowledge exception

A

if a jury is able to determine whether or not a standard of care was violated, there is no need for expert testimony; not required if jury can substitute their own knowledge for a doctor/expert in any field

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17
Q

informed consent

A

courts have arguably determined that just giving forms and ample time to review and ask questions is this concept

18
Q

If there are no _____/proof of ______, there is no cause of action

A

damages; damages

19
Q

mere trespasser

A

the landowner owes the duty not to wantonly injure them

20
Q

trespasser

A

enter upon the land of another with the intention to commit a crime; landowner owes only the duty to not intentionally injure them

21
Q

doctrine of attractive nuisance

A

subject to liability to injured child if

  • where the accident occurred is reasonably where a child would be;
  • knows or has reason to know it could seriously harm a child;
  • child does not discover or understand the risk of harm;
  • responsibility of maintaining the condition and burden of eliminating the danger are slight as compared with the risk to the children involved; and
  • the possessor fails to exercise reasonable care to eliminate the danger or otherwise protect the children
22
Q

licensee

A

social guest; invited in any other way or for any purpose; highest standard of care

23
Q

invitee

A

person invited to enter or remain on the land as a member of the public for a purpose for which the land is held open to the public; exercise of ordinary care with respect to the risks the landowner knows or should know about with reasonable inspection

24
Q

constructive notice

A

Defendant is treated as if he or she had actual knowledge of a hazardous condition if there is proof supporting the conclusion that the condition was present for a significant period of time prior to the plaintiff’s injury

25
Q

mode of operation

A

Treats a defendant as having actual knowledge of a hazardous condition if the defendant has chosen to operate an enterprise in a way that it makes it likely that dangerous conditions will occur often

26
Q

duty to rescue or protect

A

regular people have no duty to do anything; except in Vermont

27
Q

firefighters rule

A

cannot recover based on negligent conduct that requires their presence

28
Q

rescue doctrine

A

if you come to the aid of someone that was in an accident caused by someone else, you can link onto the lawsuit and recover against that entity

29
Q

protecting third parties from criminal attacks or disease

A

There is an obligation to not disclose anything about a patient’s treatment plan, but if there is an immediate risk to the safety of others that may result in the death of another, a therapist has a duty to disclose this to the potential victim

30
Q

crime-fraud exception

A

duty to report does not apply when the statement was made to further commit a crime

31
Q

impact rule

A

II has to establish that they have suffered some impact because of the defendant’s conduct

32
Q

zone of danger rule

A

Allows a cause of action for emotional distress for an individual who is in the immediate area of physical danger from the defendant’s negligence and who suffers emotional distress as a consequence of the defendant’s conduct

Physical manifestation of emotional distress

33
Q

elements of negligently inflicted emotional distress

A

i. Negligent conduct by defendant
ii. Some impact on the plaintiff b/c of the defendant’s negligent conduct
iii. Emotional distress suffered by the plaintiff
iv. Physical manifestations of the plaintiff’s emotional distress

34
Q

bystander recovery rule

A

allows recovery if the individual was outside the zone of danger if…

they were at the scene, sees the injury directly, and had a close relationship with the seriously-injured person

35
Q

what is a close relationship relative to NIED?

A

familial relationship, immediate family member; can bring evidence to show close relationship with someone who is not a blood relative

36
Q

economic loss rule

A

recovery is limited to those who suffer personal injury or property harm

new rule: plaintiff who suffers economic harm related to defendant’s negligent conduct but free from personal injury or property injury has no cause of action for economic harm (majority decision)

37
Q

zone of danger and economic harm

A

B/c indeterminate group of plaintiffs may have economic harm traceable to an accident, there is no satisfactory geographical limit

38
Q

wrongful pregnancy

A

i. Errors committed during a patient’s sterilization procedure and the plaintiff suffers no injury other than the birth of an unwanted child
ii. “failed sterilization”  treated as a harm

39
Q

wrongful birth

A

i. Where a child is born with birth defects and parents seek damages
ii. Mother would have sought abortion had she had known
1. Treated as standard medical malpractice claims
2. Damages calculated to cover the child’s childhood (until the age of majority)

40
Q

wrongful life

A

Medical malpractice principles support the recovery of a mother for unusual expenses, related to the support of a child born with birth defects where defendant’s negligence prevented the mother from terminating the pregnancy

  1. Damages calculated to cover for the child’s entire expected lifetime
  2. Medical, custodial, and therapeutic costs are calculated and are allowed to be recovered
41
Q

primary assumption of the risk

A

occurs when the defendant does not have a duty to care for the plaintiff b/c the plaintiff is fully aware of the risks

a. Protects defendants from liability in some circumstances where risks either cannot be eliminated or would be too costly to eliminate and where those risks are typically obvious to the people who encounter them