Midterm Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Define: Otalgia

A

Pain localizing to the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Otorrhea

A

Drainage or discharge from the ear
-mostly related to infection or inflammation of middle or external ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Microtia

A

Abnormally small pinna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Macrotia

A

Abnormally large pinna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lop/cup ear

A

deformity of pine where superior edge of helix is folded down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Melotia

A

abnormal positioning of pinna - usually low placed and set forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Preauricular Sinus/Pit

A

tube or pit located on the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Supernumerary Hillocks/Ear Tag

A

growth on the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stenosis

A

narrowing of the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Audiologic findings of STENOSIS

A

possible conductive hearing loss but hearing is not usually affected
-collapsing EC
- excessive cerumen
-otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management of STENOSIS

A

-canaloplasty
-meatoplasty
removal of granulation
BAHA for amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Atresia

A

closed or lack of ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of ATRESIA

A

-conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Atresia is commonly seen with ___________.

A

Microtia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of ATRESIA

A

-surgical creation of ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Occlusion

A

partial or complete blockage of the ear canal by a foreign body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Keratosis Obturans

A

abnormal collection of skin cells and keratinous debris causing blockage of EAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of KERATOSIS OBTURANS

A

-bilateral
-acute CHL
-otalgia
-thick TM
-widened EC
-otorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of KERATOSIS OBTURANS

A

removal of skin cells and debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cholesteatoma of EAC

A

abnormal collection of keratinized skin cells invading the EAC and underlying bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of CHOLESTEATOMA

A

-unilateral
-purulent pus
-osteonecrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment of CHOLESTEATOMA

A

removal of debris and underlying bone
reconstruction of EAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between cholesteatoma and keratosis obturans

A

-KO is usually bilateral, cholesteatoma is usually unilateral
-pus with cholesteatoma
-cholesteatoma usually affects older populations; KO affects younger populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute Otitis Externa (swimmers ear)
What is it?
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

bacterial infection of the EAC
-sudden onset, pain and extreme sensitivity, Edema/erythema, heat sensation, drainage, shedding of skin cells, CHL due to swelling
-antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Chronic Otitis Externa What is it? Symptoms? Treatment?
chronic bacterial infection of the external ear/EAC -bloody discharge, chronic hypertrophy of OE, progressive stenosis, usually bilateral -remove granulation, no surgery if unilateral, amplification
26
Malignant Otitis Externa What is it? Symptoms? Treatment?
infection of the OE and temporal bone and skull base -similar to otitis externa in beginning, otorrhea, HL, Otalgia, Facial weakness -Systemic/IV antibiotics, surgical cleansing
27
Cauliflower Ear
swelling caused by blunt force trauma to the pinna -possible CHL, headaches/blurred vision, pain, swelling, etc
28
Furunculosis
infected hair follicle in the ear canal
29
Otomycosis
fungal infection of the ear canal
30
What is a neoplasm?
new and abnormal growth or tumor on the pinna and ear canal
31
Exostosis
-BENIGN bony growth in ear canal
32
Osteoma
new bone growth in ear canal, identified by pearl-like appearance
33
What are some differences between Exostosis and Osteoma?
- osteoma is usually unilateral, exostosis is usually bilateral -osteoma usually occurs in children, exostosis more common in adults
34
What is osteomyelitis and what disorder does it occur with?
infection of the bone; seen with malignant OE
35
Exotosis usually occurs on the ______.
Annulus of the TM
36
What section of the TM are tubes usually placed?
Anterior, inferior portion of TM
37
What are the usually symptoms of absence of ossicles?
-mild to moderat conductive HL -type Ad tymp
38
Which ossicles are usually missing in absence of ossicles?
lenticular process of the incus
39
Congenital Ossicular Fixation
ossification of ligaments in the soft tissue that holds the ossicles
40
What is Congenital anomaly of TM
part or all of TM covered by bony plate
41
Persistent Stapedial Artery
pulsatile mass in ME; vascular issue with artery through the stapes
42
symptoms of persistent stapedial artery
-tinnitus -dizziness -CHL occasionally
43
TM perforation
hols in the TM caused by infection with effusion or trauma from blast or penetration
44
What is the treatment for TM perforation?
myringoplasty
45
If a TM perf is untreated, there can be a risk of ___________.
Cholesteatoma
46
What type of immittance would be expected with TM perf?
-flat tymp with high ECV Type B
47
What is a central perforation? Marginal perforation?
Central perforation - smaller hole in TM, most of TM still present/surrounding perf marginal perforation - most of perf framed by annulus (large hole)
48
Tympanosclerosis
calcification of connective tissues on TM or head of ossicles
49
Audiologic findings of tympanosclerosis
CHL Type As tymps due to increased stiffness
50
Myringosclerosis
calcification of only the TM caused by long-term OM, repeated PE tubes, and spontaneous healing of perf
51
Otogenic vs. Non-otogenic
otogenic pain originates in the ear non-otogenic originates outside of the ear, usually TMJ
52
If the EAC is partially occluded with cerumen, what would the hearing loss be expected to look like? Fully occluded?
partial occlusion = high frequency conductive HL complete occlusion = flat 40-50 dB HL conductive HL
53
What is the audiogram expected to look like for a patient with collapsing Canal?
50-55dB HL conductive hearing loss above 2kHz that varies with movement of headphones
54
What are some ways to help reduce affects of collapsed canal?
-insert earphones -tymp tip in hear -rolled gauze behind ear
55
Irregularly small middle ear space is common in __________.
children with Down syndrome
56
Otic Barotrauma
discomfort or damage caused by rapid changes of pressure
57
What are the two classifications of TEMPORAL BONE FRACTURE? How do each affect hearing?
- Otic capsule sparing fracture (inner ear intact): mild to moderate flat CHL -Otic capsule disrupting/violating fracture (cochlea and vestibule fractured): SNHL and vertigo
58
Describe audiologic findings of traumatic discontinuity of ossicular chain
-CHL or mixed HL with larger ABG in high frequencies -Ad tymp - hyper mobility, no reflexes, type B tymp is TM rupture
59
Myringitis
Inflammation of the TM
60
Define 3 different types of myringitis
Acute Myringitis - short-lived caused by otitis externa from canal against TM or OM in ME Bullous Myringitis - blisters between outer and middle layers of TM -fluid filled, could be blood Granulomatous/granular Myringitis - outer layer of TM and skin of ear canal replaced by abnormal tissue
61
What is a myringotomy? When is it used?
Surgical incision (cut) in the TM to relieve pressure from fluid
62
Eustachian tube Dysfunction (ETD)
ET fails to open or is blocked causing air in ME to be absorbed and create negative pressure
63
What tymps are expected with ETD?
Type C, negative pressure in the ear
64
What is OTITIS MEDIA?
Inflammation of the middle ear
65
Otitis media is usually preceded by ________ and can be accompanied by ___________.
ETD; effusion
66
Describe hearing loss with OM.
flat 10-40 dB conductive hL with slight peak at 2kHz may be LF CHL in beginning
67
What is an example of recurrent OM treatment?
Myringotomy with PE tubes
68
Which part of the ossicular chain is usually affected by otosclerosis ?
Stapes and oval window
69
Two stages of otosclerosis
Otospongiosis - active growth of bone Otosclerosis - final stage, hardening of new bone growth
70
Schwartz sign
reddish glow visible through TM around cochlear promontory due to increased vascularity during otospongiosis
71
Paracusis of Willis
Better understanding in noise than normal hearing
72
What is the most common ME tumor?
Paraganglioma Tumor or Glomus Tumor
73
Most cases of congenital deafness involve ____________________.
Membranous labyrinth of the IE; involving IHCs
74
What are the three classifications of membranous labyrinth malformations?
1. Complete membranous labyrinth dysplasia (Bing-Siebenmann Dysplasia) 2. Cochlear Basal Turn Dysplasia (Alexander Dysplasia) 3. Cochleaosaccular Dysplasia (Scheibe Dysplasia)
75
Name and describe the most common membraneous labyrinth malformation?
Cochleosaccular dysplasia (Scheibe dysplasia) Organ of Corti partially or completely missing scala media collapse saccule collars
76
What is the most severe IE deformity? Describe.
Complete labyrinth aplasia (Michel Aplasia) no development of IE; IE structures and CN VIII absent
77
Cochlear aplasia
complete absence of cochlea resulting in total deafness; vestibule and SCC present but usually deformed
78
cochlear hypoplasia
underdevelopment of the cochlea; single turn or less, small cochlear bud protruding from vestibule
79
Type I Incomplete Partition
Cystic cochleovestibular malformation cystic/empty cochlea without partition
80
Type II Incomplete Partition
Mondini Dysplasia cochlea has 1.5 turns and the middle and apical coils form cystic cavity
81
What does TORCH stand for and why is it significant to IE disorders?
Toxoplasmosis, Other (Syphilis and HIV), Rubella, CMV, Herpes Simplex Virus refers to acquired infections that can be contracted by a pregnant person and passed to the baby before or after birth
82
What is presbycusis?
SNHL due to normal aging process
83
Another name for complete membranous labyrinth dysplasia
Bing-Siebenmann Dysplasia
84
another name for Cochlear basal turn dysplasia
Alexander dysplasia
85
another name for cochleosaccular dysplasia
Scheibe dysplasia
86
another name for complete labyrinth aplasia
Michel Aplasia