Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Criteria for a profession

A

Provides a vital human service.
Possess a special body of knowledge that is continuously enlarged through research.
Practitioners are expected to be accountable and responsible.
Post-secondary education
Practitioners control their own practice
Professional decisions and conduct is guided by a code of ethics
Professional organizations that control the educational and practice requirements of its members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what 2 professional organizations set standards of practice and educational requirements for medical radiation technologists?

A

Canadian Association of Medical Radiation Technologists (CAMRT)
College of Medical Radiation and Imaging Technologists of Ontario (CMRITO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is CAMRT?

A

National professional association and certifying body for radiological, nuclear medicine and MRI technologists and radiation therapists. (National Exam)
Competencies and Entry to Practice requirements.
Best practice guidelines: Statements developed to assist practitioners and patient decisions in specific healthcare circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the CMRITO mission statement?

A

The mission of the CMIRTO is to regulate the profession of medical radiation and imaging technology to serve and protect public interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the CMRITO do?

A

Sets standards of practice by setting entry to practice requirement in Ontario
Registration to practice (annual licensing)
Professional Conduct (complaints & discipline process)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the CAMRT best practice guidelines?

A

is the means for providing the best possible outcome for patients based on judgments that consider patient needs, clinical experience, and the best available evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How should you introduce yourself to the patient?

A

NOD
Name
Occupation
Duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is an introduction to the patient important?

A

Patient trust is integral to successful care, and to patient satisfaction. Identifying oneself to the patient can help patients feel safer in the care of the MRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How should patients be identified?

A

all patients are positively identified with two patient identifiers (full name and date of birth) prior to initiating a medical imaging or therapeutic procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the importance of patient identification?

A

Verify patient identifiers against all requests to ensure the procedures/treatments are provided to the correct patients.
Accreditation Canada cites client verification with two patient identifiers as a required organizational practice (ROP).
The World Health Organization encourages the use of at least two identifiers to verify a patient’s identity upon admission or transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Is obtained or confirmed prior to initiating the procedure/treatment
The patient has the right to be informed regarding the procedure/treatment and its risks in a way that he/she can understand, and to have his/her questions answered in a similar manner.
Obtained in patients own language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who can consent?

A

If the patient is capable based, then only the patient can consent to a procedure/treatment.
If the patient is incapable of giving consent, it is obtained from a substitute decision maker, according to provincial legislation.
The patient’s physician or another member of the healthcare team can NOT give consent on the patient’s behalf.
Consent is not required in an emergency situation ONLY if the delay to find an interpreter or substitute decision maker will prolong suffering or will put the patient at risk of sustaining serious harm.
In these cases, a physician may give the order to proceed with the procedure/treatment without consent.
The facts and circumstances surrounding the decision to proceed without informed consent are carefully documented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the rules regarding withdrawing consent?

A

The patient has the right to withdraw consent at any time before or during the procedure/treatment.
If consent is withdrawn, the procedure/treatment must be stopped.
Withdrawn consent is documented.
All relevant information is provided to the patient so that the decision to withdraw consent is informed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the opportunities in radiological technology?

A

Radiography
Cardiovascular/interventional technologist
Interventional technologist
Mammography
Computed tomography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Use of markers and annotations?

A

Radiographic images are permanently labelled at the time of exposure to indicate patient orientation and uniquely identify the MRT performing the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why are permanent markers important?

A

Reducing the chance of error (e.g., wrong side identified)
Reliable transmission to PACS
Confidence in future consultation/ investigation
Digital markers (annotations) are not a suitable substitute for image marking at time of exposure.
Markers may be important if the examination is to be used in a court case.
Images that include personal identification markers allow the possibility of MRT testimony and may lend credibility to his or her expertise.
Digital right and left markers may not be admissible in legal proceedings, since they are not permanent markers:
Images may be marked anywhere
Images may be flipped
Image layout can be altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is intentional tort?

A

Is a purposeful deed committed with the intention of producing the consequences of the deed.
Immobilizing a patient without his or her consent (false imprisonment).
Falsely stating a patient has a socially unacceptable disease (defamation of character).
Causing extreme emotional distress, resulting in illness through outrageous or shocking conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is unintentional tort?

A

May be committed when a radiographer is negligent in the performance of patient care and the patient is injured as a result.
Improper labeling of radiographic images.
Omitting to apply gonadal shielding on a pregnant woman.
Handing the radiologist a syringe for a procedure with the incorrect medication.
Leaving a patient unattended with bed rails down and the patient falling off the stretcher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Claustrophobia

A

fear of enclosed or narrow spaces
affects 4% of population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to manage claustrophobia and anxiety?

A

Education about the procedure, how long it will last and how it will feel can help alleviate anxious feelings for the patient.
A dry run (walk through) of the procedure can also help
Communication throughout the procedure or treatment can be an effective method to reassure and distract an anxious patient.
Newer open bore machines have been shown to decrease the incidence of claustrophobia among patients.
Sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are commonly encountered complications during sedation?

A

Hypotension
Desaturation
Excessive/prolonged sedation
Nausea and/or vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is disease?

A

absence of health, any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of any part, organ, or system, caused by microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is infection?

A

establishment and growth a micro-organism on or in a host, resulting in injury to the host, caused by pathogenic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 functions of pathogens?

A
  1. multiply
  2. cause tissue damage
  3. secrete organic exotoxins (bacteria) as part of their growth and metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are exotoxins?
proteins that cause damage or dysfunction, by damaging host cell membranes or by entering target calls and directly altering function
26
What are exotoxin side effects?
fever, nausea and vomitting
27
What is an exotoxin example?
Vibrio Cholerae- results in release of exotoxins that bind to gut epithelial cells. Massive release of electrolytes and fluid is induced that manifests as severe diarrhea.
28
What are the 4 types of pathogens?
1. bacteria 2. viruses 3. fungi 4. parasitic protozoa
29
What is bacteria?
Microscopic, single-celled organisms. Prokaryotes - lack nuclei and membrane-bound organelles. May reside in host as a group or cluster called a colony. May be classified according to their morphology (size & shape), biochemistry or genetic constitution.
30
What are bacteria morphologies?
spherical(coccus), rod shaped(bacilli), spiral(spirillium)
31
Common bacterial infections
strep throat, bacterial pneumonia, food poisoning and salmonellosis TREATED BY ANTIBIOTICS
32
What are viruses?
Microscopic, single celled. Cannot live outside a living cell - lack components for their own survival; inability to synthesize specific required proteins Carry their own DNA or RNA but never both. DNA and RNA are surrounded by protein coat known as capsid. Classified by the chemical nature of their nucleic acid, size and symmetry. Virion (viral particle) attaches to host cell, inserts its own genetic information, and then redirects host cell to produce new viruses. Not affected by antibiotics.
33
What are sporadic viruses?
Some viruses can travel within the nervous system. They reappear sporadically and emerge at the nerve ending, causing various symptoms. They then leave the site and travel up the nerve again. This pattern can be repeated several times resulting in a latent or dormant infection. Herpes simplex virus 1(HSV1) resulting in cold sores Herpes simplex virus 2(HSV2) resulting in genital herpes (treated with suppressive or acute therapy)
34
What are common viruses?
Rhinovirus (Common cold) Human Papillomavirus (Warts; Genital Warts, Cervical & Anal Cancer) Epstein-Barr virus (Mononucleosis) SARS-CoV-2 (COVID 19)
35
What are fungi?
Macroscopic or microscopic. Eukaryotic (has nucleus and membrane-bound organelles). Much larger than bacteria Medically important fungi are dimorphic. Two forms: yeast aka candida (single celled) or molds depending on growth conditions. Classified according to type and method of sexual reproduction
36
What is conidia?
asexual spores
37
What are fungi classifications?
1. superficial- causes discolouration of the skin 2. Cutaneous- involves the keratinized tissue of the hair, nails and skin 3. Subcutaneous- enters the human host as a result fo trauma to the skin, rarely disseminate 4. Systematic- enters the circulatory and lymphatic systems and can be fatal
38
What are parasitic protozoa?
Unicellular organisms that are neither plant nor animal. Larger than bacteria Eukaryotic Can ingest food particles, and some are equipped with digestive systems. Live on or in other organisms at expense of host.
39
What is the motility of parasitic protozoa?
Ameboid- slow cellular flowing locomotion Flagellum- protein tail facilitates motility Cilia- numerous short hair like projections/tails facilitate motility sporozoans- non motile, do not form spores
40
What are the 6 steps of infectious disease?
-Encounter -Entry -Spread -Multiplication -Damage -Outcome (all require breach upon host)
41
Encounter
Infectious organism coms into contact with the host; varies according to host and microorganism. During our life span, the body encounters new organisms; some are quickly eliminated while others are efficient colonizers. Colonizers either become part of the microbes that are normally found in the body or cause disease.
42
Entry
Access to the organism through a portal of entry (digestive, urinary, respiratory systems directly connected to the external environment)
43
Types of entry
Ingression: attachment of organism to cell surface and excretion of toxins. E.g., Cholera, Pneumonia Penetration: Pathogens invading past the epithelial barrier Flagella used by bacteria that causes syphilis Vectors such as mosquitoes or fleas Cuts or wounds
44
Spread
The propagation of the infectious organism Requires overcoming body's immune defences Dissemination (degree of spreading) is a function of the logistics of both the host and the microbe.
45
Multiplication
At the point of entry they are not prevalent enough to cause symptoms or clinical manifestiation In order for a colony to be established and systems to show, multiplactions can vary Exponential growth
46
Growth
Damage can be direct- to cells such as exotoxins that can damage host cells indirect- alter things within the host such as metabolism 1 microbe can induce a host response iWt does this by trying to eliminate the pathogen but in the process it destroys a lot of healthy cells Can show up as inflammation
47
What are the 4 steps in the chain of infection?
1. host 2. infectious microorganism 3. mode of transportation 4. reservoir
48
What is exogenous transmission - direct contact?
*Ex. Handholding, coughing, sexual contact etc. *Droplet: Contact with infectious secretions that come from the conjunctiva, nose or mouth of the host as the person cough, sneezes or talks. *Large particulate droplets can travel 3-5 feet. *Ex. Common cold, Influenza, Pneumonia, Meningitis (have to be transmitted by droplet) *Airborne: Residue from evaporated droplets of diseased microorganisms is suspended in air for long periods on aerosol droplets or dust. This residue is infectious if inhaled by a host. *Ex. Tuberculosis
49
What is exogenous transmission - indirect transmission?
*Transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching a fomite (inanimate object that have been contaminated) by an infected person or, * Through a vector (ex. insect or animal carrier)
50
What is endogenous transmission?
result of encounters with organisms already present in or on the body, the normal flora
51
Reservoir
Site where an infectious organism can remain alive, multiply and from which transmission can occur. E.g., People, animals, inanimate objects (contaminated linen, food) A person who serves as a reservoir but does not display any clinical symptoms is called a carrier, i.e., they carry they infectious agent and are able to transmit disease
52
Nosocomial
hospital acquired infection
53
latrogenic
acquired as result of an intervention performed by a practitioner
54
what are the sources of health care associated infections?
medical personnel patient flora contaminated health care environment invasive procedures blood borne pathogens
55
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Penicillin resistant Colonizes on skin and in nose Persons hospitalized for prolonged periods are most susceptible Transmitted by direct (hands) or indirect contact (fomite) Likely to develop when antibiotics are used too often or incorrectly Can occur in wounds, burns, IV sites. Patients are put on isolation precautions to prevent spread Vancomycin-resistant S. Aureus (VRSA)
56
Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)
Penicillin resistant Colonizes on skin and in nose Persons hospitalized for prolonged periods are most susceptible Transmitted by direct (hands) or indirect contact (fomite) Likely to develop when antibiotics are used too often or incorrectly Can occur in wounds, burns, IV sites. Patients are put on isolation precautions to prevent spread Vancomycin-resistant S. Aureus (VRSA)
57
Clostridium difficile (C. diff)
Caused by antibiotics that disrupts normal bacteria of the GI tract. Symptoms range from diarrhea to life threatening inflammation of the colon (pseudomembranous colitis). Most commonly affects older adults. C. Diff. spores are passed in feces and spread to surfaces and objects when people who are infected don't wash their hands thoroughly. Spores can persist for weeks or months. Patients are put on isolation precautions to prevent spread.
58
Common infectious diseases
HIV & AIDS AIDS related infections: Pneumocystis carinni (type of Pneumonia), Candida, Herpes Simplex, Kaposi sarcoma (malignant tumor of the endothelium), AIDS dementia, TB etc. Hepatitis Tuberculosis
59
When to wear gloves?
You have a cut on your hands Patient has catheters, chest tubes or drainage bags Patient has open or infected wounds You are inserting an IV or patient has an IV Patient is vomiting, incontinent, bleeding or undergoing chemotherapy
60
When to wear face protection
Masks and respirators: protect mouth/airway Respirators: protect respiratory tract from airborne infectious agents Goggles: protect eyes Should fit snuggly over and around eyes Personal glasses are not a substitute for goggles Face shields: protects face, nose, mouth and eyes Should cover forehead and extend below chin and wrap around face Use during patient care activities likely to generate splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions or excretions.
61
Use of antiseptics
A chemical substance that will inhibit the growth, but not necessarily kill pathogenic microorganisms Alcohol: antiseptic that is a disinfectant applied on skin Betadine: iodine-based antiseptic that is used on skin
62
Standard precautions - tier 1
To be used at all times when any healthcare worker is caring for a patient. Decisions about PPE (personal protective equipment) use determined by type of clinical interaction with patient. Should be used when performing procedures that may require contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, mucous membranes and non-intact skin.
63
Standard Precautions - tier 2
Designed to place a barrier to the spread of highly infectious diseases. There are 3 modes of disease transmission: airborne, droplet & contact.
64
Contact Precautions
Gloves for contact with a patient or environment of care. Gown if contamination of clothing likely Segregated space if possible Ex. C-Diff, MRSA, VRSA, VRE etc.
65
Droplet Precautions
Infections may occur when an infectious individual coughs, sneezes or speaks in the vicinity of a susceptible host Involves contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth of a host with large droplets that contain infectious microorganisms Door may be left open as droplets do not travel far (3-5 feet) PPE: surgical mask, eye protection, gown & gloves. Patient should wear a surgical mask when leaving the room
66
Airborne Precautions
Occurs when microbes are spread through evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air. Can remain suspended in the air for long periods and may be inhaled by persons in the room or air space N95 "fit tested" respirator to be worn by healthcare workers. Filters inspired air. Patient should wear surgical mask which filters expired air. Negative pressure isolation room required
67
Reverse Isolation
Patients at greater risk of acquiring infection Aseptic techniques and PPE required to prevent cross-infection *Immunosuppressed *Chemotherapy *Neonates *Transplant patients *Burn patients
68
5 Moments for Hand Hygiene
Moment 1 - Before touching a patient Moment 2 - Before a clean or aseptic procedure Moment 3 - After a body fluid exposure risk Moment 4 - After touching a patient Moment 5 - After touching patient surroundings
69
What are the types of hand hygiene?
1. Alcohol-based hand rub (ABHR) (this is the preferred method unless the hands are visibly soiled). 2. Hand washing with soap and water (best when hands are visibly soiled; the mechanical action of washing, rinsing and drying aids in the removal of microorganisms
70
Barriers to proper hand hygiene
Long, artificial nails or nails with chipped polish (difficult to clean, and may harbour microorganisms). Rings, hand jewelry, bracelets and wrist watches (hides bacteria and may compromise glove integrity).
71
CAMRT airborne precautions
Using N95 masks for MRTs, where fit-testing has been completed Using surgical masks for patients, MRTs without N95 fit-testing, and others coming into contact with the infectious agent Instructing patients to observe respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette Limiting the movement and transport of patients Keeping doors to rooms closed
72
CAMRT Droplet precautions
Using a surgical mask (patient, MRT and others coming into contact with the patient) Using gloves and gowns Instructing patients to observe respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette Using eye protection when within 1-2 meters of patient Limiting the movement and transport of patients
73
CAMRT contact precautions
Strict hand hygiene for all those who come into contact with the patient. Using personal protective equipment such as gloves and gowns. Carefully disposing of gloves and other items that come into contact with the patient. Proper cleaning of equipment, according to facility policy.
74
What is a microorganism?
any organism of microscopic or submicroscopic size
75
What is a pathogen?
an organism that causes disease
76
What is a prokaryote?
A unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and membrane bound organelles
77
What is an endospore?
a thick-walled protective spore that forms inside a bacterial cell and resists harsh conditions
78
What is a capsid?
protein coat surrounding a virus
79
What is a vision?
a fully formed virus that is able to establish an infection in a host cell
80
What is asepsis?
free of infection Use of techniques that exclude microorganisms. The goal of aseptic technique is to protect the patient from harmful infection by eliminating and preventing the spread of microorganisms.
81
What is medical asepsis?
Any practice that reduce the number and spread of micro-organisms. Cleaning removes germs, dirt, and other impurities from surfaces, but doesn't necessarily kill them. Lowers the number of microorganisms on surfaces or objects—either by killing them or removing them—to a safe level, according to public health standards or requirements. May be performed by disinfection.
82
What is disinfection?
The destruction of pathogenic microbes, toxins, vectors and other pathogens by use of chemical agents. Disinfecting kills majority (99%) of microorganisms on surfaces or objects. A topically applied disinfectant is known as an antiseptic.
83
Chemical disinfectants and antiseptics
Chlorine (bleach) (Bactericidal & Sporicidal) Iodine (Bactericidal, Fungicidal, Virucidal) - antiseptic used in Betadine & Surgidine - may also be used as disinfectant Alcohols (70 - 90%) (Bactericidal, Tuberculocidal, Fungicidal, Virucidal) Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA): 70% aqueous solution (rubbing alcohol) Hydrogen Peroxide - 3% for wound cleaning - 6% effective disinfectant against some bacteria, fungi and viruses
84
What is surgical asepsis?
complete removal of microorganisms and their spores from the surface of an object Involves cleaning an area/object followed by a sterilization process if possible
85
What is sterilization?
Destruction of microbes by steam under pressure or other means, both chemical and physical
86
When is surgical and medical asepsis required?
Major and minor surgical procedures Administration of parenteral medication Catheterization of the urinary bladder Dressing changes Venipuncture
87
What are the types of physical sterilization?
1. Heat (steam under pressure) 2. UV C light
88
Heat - steam under pressure
Moist heat is more effective and rapid at killing than dry heat. Accomplished in a device known as an Autoclave. Items must be able to withstand high heat, steam and pressure. Effective killing is accomplished at 250֯ F at a pressure of 15- 30 lb/inch2 for 15 minutes. Dry heat: 320֯ F for 120 minutes.
89
UVC light
Ultraviolet light at specific wavelengths can produce maximal killing of microbes. UV light is used in germicidal lamps for control of airborne contaminants. Cannot penetrate glass, paper, body fluids and thin layers of cells.
90
Chemical sterilization
Used when item is sensitive to heat or irradiation (electronics/plastics). Ethylene oxide - Gas Toxic/harmful to humans
91
Autoclave
A strong, pressurized, steam heated container/chamber. Used to sterilize instruments and infectious/medical waste. Uses a combination of temperatures and pressures to sterilize.
92
Autoclave procedure
Items can be wrapped in packs or wrappers. Time varies depending on whether the item is wrapped or not. "Flash" sterilization is fast and involves an unwrapped item.
93
Sterile pack and tray checklist
Remember to check: - Expiry date - Integrity of autoclave tape: Steam indicating ink - Punctures - Wetness
94
Introducing solutions into the sterile field
Cleanse the lip of the container by pouring or squirting a small amount into a waste container or sink Pour into sterile container from sale side of lip. Check label at least twice (when gathering & before pouring) When a sterile solution is to be poured into a container on a sterile field, the container is placed at the edge of the sterile field.
95
Moving items within the sterile field
sterile forceps are used to manipulate items within the sterile field
96
Surgical scrub steps
Before entering the surgical suite, the radiographer must: 1.Don scrubs 2.Cover hair with a cap 3.Cover shoes 4.Place a mask over mouth and nose 5.Remove jewelry Purpose is to remove and reduce concentration of micro-organisms. The sterile scrub consists of scrubbing with an antimicrobial agent
97
sterile gowns are considered sterile
at the front from the shoulder to the waist (or level of the sterile field). sterile gowns are considered sterile from the cuff to 2 inches above the elbow.
98
antiseptic skin prep
2% Chlorhexidine Gluconate 70% Isopropyl alcohol Betadine/Surgidine
99
Draping for sterile procedure
Following the skin prep, sterile drapes may be applied. These are used to provide a barrier to infection and also to create a sterile field on which to place sterile instruments. Usually, single use, single-thickness, impermeable drapes are used. Sometimes cloth drapes may be used. A fenestrated drape is often used. If used, the drape should be applied in a such a way that the opening leaves only the operative, prepped area exposed.
100
Basic principles of sterile techniques
. only sterile items are used in sterile field 2. if in doubt about sterility of a object, consider it unsterile 3. an unsterile object should be removed, covered or replaced 4. a sterile field must be continually monitored to be considered sterile 5. create sterile fields as close to the time of use as possible 6. sterile persons should avoid unsterile aras 7. anything below the level of the table or waist, as well as undersurface of drape is considered unsterile, anything that falls below this is considered contaminated8. gowns are considered sterile on the sleeves and the front from waist up 9. persons in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other back to back 10. unsterile people can not reach above or over sterile field 11.sterile materials must be kept dry. packages that become wet must be resterilizes or discarded 12. if a solution soaks thorough sterile field to non sterile field, the wet area must be rewrapped 13. sterile gloves must be kept in sight and above waist