Midterm 2

Question 1

What stores the hormones secreted by the hypothalamus?

Answer 1

Neurohypophysis

Question 2

What can bind to receptors and act like hormones?

Answer 2

Antibodies

Question 3

What causes low ADH secretion?

Answer 3

HPA tumor, infection or receptor resistance

Question 4

What causes high ADH secretion?

Answer 4

Tumors, head trauma, Sheehan Syndrome

Question 5

Autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism?

Answer 5

Hasimoto’s

Question 6

Autoimmune cause of hyperthyroidism?

Answer 6

Grave’s Disease

Question 7

What is the most common cause of thyroid cancer?

Answer 7

Ionizing radiation esp. in childhood

Question 8

What causes hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 8

Primary: adenomas or hyperplasia
Secondary: chronic hypocalcemia, low dietary calcium, malabsorption syndromes

Question 9

What is diabetes Insipidus?

Answer 9

Central: A reduction in ADH
Nephrogenic: Nephrons do not recognize ADH

Question 10

What is diabetes mellitus and explain the different types?

Answer 10

Type 1, type 2, gestational

Question 11

Explain the mechanisms of DKA

Answer 11

Severe manifestation of insulin deficiency that evolves quickly. Increased production in ketones with ketone smell in breath and urine.

Question 12

Explain the mechanisms for HHNKS

Answer 12

Large amounts of glucose is excreted in urine causing dehydration, increased blood concentration leading to blood becoming thick/sluggish. This can lead to coma, death and seizures. Evolves slowly

Question 13

Explain the effects of microvascular disease

Answer 13

Neuropathy, nephropathy, retinopathy

Question 14

Explain the effects of macrovascular disease

Answer 14

Attachment of advanced glycation end products to their receptor which promotes oxidative stress, inflammation, hyperlipidemia

Question 15

Why does hyperglycemia lead to increase infections? Explain

Answer 15

Loss of senses, glycosylated Hb leads to hypoxia and increases risk of infection, increased glucose for pathogens, reduced blood flow (reduced phagocytosis)

Question 16

What is a open fracture?

Answer 16

Break through intact skin, bone marrow is exposed to external environment

Question 17

What is a pathologic fracture?

Answer 17

occurs in bone which is weakened by a disease

Question 18

What is a comminuted fracture?

Answer 18

Fracture with 2 or more pieces of bone

Question 19

What is a impacted fracture?

Answer 19

Pressure/weight that causes breaks

Question 20

What is a greenstick fracture?

Answer 20

Break in only the cortex of the bone

Question 21

What is an avulsion fracture?

Answer 21

Fragment of bone connected to a ligament or tendon breaks off the main bone

Question 22

Dislocation

Answer 22

total loss of contact between articular cartilage

Question 23

Subluxation

Answer 23

Partial loss of contact between articular cartilage and surface of bone

Question 24

Strain

Answer 24

Injury or tear in a tendon/muscle

Question 25

Sprain

Answer 25

Injury or tear in a ligament

Question 26

Most common fractures in osteoporosis?

Answer 26

Compression fractures

Question 27

Most common location of fractures in osteoporosis?

Answer 27

Thoracic vertebrae

Question 28

Osteoporosis is more obvious in ____

Answer 28

trabeculae bone

Question 29

Explain the mechanisms of OPG, RANKL, RANK

Answer 29

Osteoblasts produce OPG and RANKL Osteoclasts have RANK receptors OPG is increased by the presence of estrogen

Question 30

Explain DMD

Answer 30

Loss of dystrophin which leads to slow motor development, progressive weakness, muscle wasting. X-linked recessive disease

Question 31

Explain DDH

Answer 31

Congenital abnormality of the femoral head, acetabulum or both. Risk factors include: female, oligohydramnios. Barlow vs Ortolani test. Treatment includes Pavlik harness

Question 32

Where does OA occur more frequently?

Answer 32

hips, knees, lower lumbar +cervical vertebrae, CMC, TMT joints

Question 33

In RA activation of CD4 helper cells leads to what?

Answer 33

stimulation of macrophages, fibroblasts, RANKL and osteoclasts which leads to pannus formation and joint destruction

Question 34

What is the chronic form of gout called?

Answer 34

Tophaceous gout

Question 35

Which bacteria causes osteomyelitis?

Answer 35

Staph. aureus

Question 36

What are the secondary causes of bone cancer?

Answer 36

Prostrate cancer, breast cancer, kidney cancer, lung cancer, thyroid cancer

Question 37

Osteosarcoma is located where?

Answer 37

Metaphysis region of long bone

Question 38

Chondrosarcoma presents itself where?

Answer 38

Joint space and can expand to surrounding tissue

Question 39

Where does Ewing Sarcoma presents itself?

Answer 39

Diaphysis of long or flat bones

Question 40

Cardiogenic shock

Answer 40

caused my MI, LHF, VFIB

Question 41

Hypovolemic shock

Answer 41

insufficient intravascular fluid volume due to hemorrhage, burns or diarrhea

Question 42

Neurogenic shock

Answer 42

alterations of the CNS from SC injury

Question 43

Anaphylactic Shock

Answer 43

type of hypersensitivity reaction(type 1) caused by bees, peanuts latex etc.

Question 44

Compensation for cardiogenic shock

Answer 44

RAAS, ADH, catecholamine release

Question 45

Massive vasodilation is seen in which type of shock?

Answer 45

neurogenic

Question 46

Bleeding from venipuncture sites due to simultaneous clotting and hemorrhage is known as what?

Answer 46

DIC

Question 47

What is an ectopic source of a hormone?

Answer 47

Nonendocrine source independent of biological controls

Question 48

What is the primary cause of kidney failure?

Answer 48

Diabetes mellitus

Question 49

What is allergic contact dermatitis?

Answer 49

Type 4 T-cell/ delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Due to metals, poison ivy, latex

Question 50

What is irritant contact dermatitis?

Answer 50

Non-immunological, non-specific irritants such as acids, detergents and water

Question 51

Where does seborrheic dermatitis develop?

Answer 51

sebaceous glands of scalp, eyebrows, eyelids,

Question 52

What is koebner phenomenon?

Answer 52

plaque and papule formation at the site of trauma

Question 53

Where are the bumps most likely to form in herpes-zoster?

Answer 53

dermatomes along the thoracic and lumbar back region

Question 54

Which ringworm infection is resistant to topical anti-fungals?

Answer 54

Tinea capititis

Question 55

Where is candidiasis most likely to form?

Answer 55

Mucous membranes and skin folds

Question 56

Seborrheic keratosis is___

Answer 56

benign proliferation of basal cells. No increased cancer risk but worsens with UV exposure

Question 57

Actinic keratosis ______

Answer 57

proliferation of keratinocytes due to prolonged UV exposure. Premalignant condition

Question 58

Keratoacanthoma

Answer 58

Growth of squamous cells arising from hair follicles. Pre-malignant condition

Question 59

Risk of cancer with nevi is ___-

Answer 59

possible

Question 60

Which pre-malignant conditions will lead to squamous cell carcinoma?

Answer 60

Actinic keratosis and keratoacanthoma