Midterm 2 Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
What are the divisions of the integumentary system?
A
- skin
- hair
- nails
- sweat glands
- sebaceous (oil) glands
2
Q
Draw, label and describe the structure of skin.
A
- 2 regions are the epidermis and dermis
3
Q
What are the 5 layers of thick skin?
A
Has 5 layers:
- stratum basale
- stratum spinosum
- stratum granulosum
- stratum lucidem
- stratum corneum
4
Q
Draw and describe the basal layer of skin
A
- The deepest layer
- Layer that is firmly attached to dermis
- Consists of a single row of stem cells that actively divide (mitotic), producing two daughter cells each time
•One daughter cell journeys from basal layer to surface, taking 25–45 days to reach surface
–Cell dies as it moves toward surface - Layer also known as stratum germinativum
- 10–25% of layer also composed of melanocytes
5
Q
Draw and describe the prickly layer also known as the ______
A
- stratum spinosum
1. Several layers thick
2. Cells contain weblike system of intermediate prekeratin filaments attached to desmosoms
3. Keratinocytes in this layer appear spikey, so they are called prickle cells
4. Scattered among keratinocytes are abundant melanosomes and dendritic cells
6
Q
What are keratinocytes?
A
A layer of skin that produces keratin
7
Q
What is keratin?
A
- protein that helps the formation of hair, nails and your skins outer layer, the epidermis
8
Q
Which protein promotes the growth of hair, nails and the epidermis?
A
Keratin
9
Q
What is a cell of the epidermis that produces keratin?
A
Keratinocytes
10
Q
What is the stratum granulosum also known as?
A
The granular layer
11
Q
Granular layer is also known as the ____________
A
Stratum granulosum
12
Q
Draw and describe the stratum granulosum
A
- 4-6 cells thick but flattened
- cells above this layer die
13
Q
What layer of the epidermis is 4-6 cells thick w/ flattened cells?
A
Granular layer
14
Q
Draw and describe the stratum lucidum, also known as the ___________
A
- clear layer
1. Only found in thick skin
2. Lies above the stratum granulosum
3. Consists of thin, translucent band of two to three rows of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes
15
Q
Draw and describe the stratum corneum, also known as the __________
A
- horny layer
1. 20-30 rows of flat, anucleate (no nucleus), keratined dead cells
2. Accounts for three-quarters of epidermal thickness
3. Though dead, cells still function to:
•Protect deeper cells from the environment
•Prevent water loss
•Protect from abrasion and penetration
•Act as a barrier against biological, chemical, and physical assaults
16
Q
Define apoptosis?
A
the death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development
17
Q
What word does this define, “the death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development”?
A
Apoptosis
18
Q
Draw and describe the dermis
A
- strong and flexible connective tissue
- cells in dermis include: fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells and white blood cells
- has 2 layers:
1. Papillary layer
2. Reticular layer
19
Q
The papillary and reticular layer are a part of ______
A
the dermis
20
Q
The dermis has __ (#) layers and are named the ________ layer and the ________ layer
A
- 2, papillary, reticular
21
Q
Function of dermal papillae
A
“Interior root” of hair that helps the regeneration of hair
22
Q
What helps in the regeneration of hair growth?
A
The dermal papillae
23
Q
Draw and describe friction ridges
A
- in thick skin (palms and bottom of feet) the friction ridges are the dermal ridges + epidermal ridges collectively; the top layer of the skin
- function:
1. enhance grip
2. sweat pores leave unique print
3. contribute to sense of touch
24
Q
The function of _______ includes enhance grip, sense of touch and it leaves prints
A
Friction ridges
25
These together, _______ and ______ make what is known as friction ridges
Dermal ridges, epidermal ridges
26
Describe the reticular layer
- makes up at least 80% of dermal thickness
- consists of connective tissue
- cutaneous plexus
- extra cellular matrix contains adipose cells
27
Define cutaneous plexus
- supplies blood to the dermis and hypodermis, including the hair follicles, sweat glands, and deep sebaceous glands
28
What is used to supply blood from the reticular layer to the dermis?
- cutaneous plexus
29
Where are cleavage lines found?
- reticular layer
30
What are cleavage lines also known as?
- tension lines
31
What are tension lines also known as?
- cleavage lines
32
What are cleavage lines?
- lines caused by many collagen fibres that indicate the direction of orientation of underlaying collagen fibres
33
What does this describe, “natural lines of tension in the skin that follow the orientation of the underlying collagen fibers in the dermis. These lines represent the direction in which the skin is most resistant to stretching”?
Cleavage lines
34
Cleavage lines are also known as _________ lines and __________ lines
Langer’s, tension
35
What are tension lines also known as?
Langer’s lines and cleavage lines
36
What is a point you know about cleavage lines?
- lines are not visible on the skin’s surface but can be identified through anatomical studies or by observing how the skin naturally stretches and moves
37
Why are cleavage lines important?
- cleavage lines are significant because they guide surgical incisions and help with wound healing. Incisions made parallel to these lines generally heal better, with less scarring, because the skin's natural tension is aligned with the cut. If an incision is made perpendicular to these lines, it may cause more tension on the edges of the wound, leading to greater scarring or delayed healing
38
What are flexure lines?
- dermal folds at or near joints
39
What are dermal folds found in or around joints?
- flexure lines
40
What is one function of flexure lines?
- they help to minimize friction and wear on the skin in areas that are repeatedly flexed or stretched, contributing to the durability of the skin in high-stress areas
41
What are stretch marks also known as?
- straie
42
What are straie’s?
- stretch marks
43
How does exposure to the sun affect skin colour?
- darkens it
- cause pre-mature aging to skin
- can depress immune system and cause alterations in DNA that may lead to skin cancer
- photosensitivity is increased, which may affect the way certain medicines work
44
What are the pigments that contribute to skin color?
- melanin, carotene and hemoglobin
45
What are sweat glands also known as?
- sudoriferous glands
46
What is another word for sweat glands?
- sudoriferous glands
47
What is the function of sweat glands?
- thermal control
- natural moisturization for skin
48
What are oil glands also known as?
- sebaceous glands
49
What are sebaceous glands also known as?
- oil glands
50
What is the function of oil glands, also known as ________ glands?
- sebaceous
- natural moisturizer, keeping the skin and hair soft, smooth, and flexible
- protects skin; forms a thin layer on the skin's surface, creating a protective barrier
51
What are the main functions of skin?
- protection
- homeostasis
- excretion of wastes
- cutaneous sensation: sensory perceptions from skin and have association with the body’s sense of touch
52
What are the steps in tissue repair?
1. stop the bleeding
2. inflammation sets
3. organization restores blood supply
4. regeneration
53
What are the 2 ways for tissue repair?
1. Regeneration
2. Fibrosis
54
Describe “stop the bleeding” and label which step of tissue repair it is.
- step 1
- clotting to stop the bleeding; blood vessels constrict it minimize blood loss, platelets aggregate at site,
- clot also releases signals that help recruit other cells involved in repair
55
What are platelets?
- blood cells responsible for clotting
56
What is the name of “blood cells responsible for clotting”?
- platelets
57
Describe “inflammation” and label which step it is in repairing tissue.
- step 2
- pro inflammatory molecules are released through the inflammatory response
- neutrophils come to remove dead skin, bacteria and debris through
58
Describe “organization restores blood supply” and label which step it is in repairing tissue
- step 3
- blood clot is replaced w/ granulation tissue
- epithelium tissue begins to regenerate
- fibroblasts produce collagen fibres to bridge the gap until regeneration is complete
59
Describe “regeneration” in tissue repair and which step it is
- step 4
- scab detaches, epithelium thicken and begins to resemble adjacent tissue, results in fully regenerated epithelium that has an underlying scar that may or may not be visible
60
Are all tissue type able to regenerate?
- no, the ability of a tissue to regenerate depends on the type of tissue, the extent of the damage, and the tissue’s inherent regenerative capacity
- nervous system tissue is the only tisssue that cannot regenerate because it cannot go through mitosis to create new cells
61
What are the overlapping functions of the nervous system?
1. sensory input
2. integration
3. motor output
62
What does aggregate mean?
- to form or come together
63
What word is used to describe the formation of something? I.e., blood clots
- aggregate
64
Define “sensory input”
- information gathered by sensory receptors in the body in response to external or internal stimuli
65
What is “information gathered by sensory receptors about internal and external changes” known as?
- sensory input
66
Define integration.
- the process by which the central nervous system (CNS) processes and interprets the sensory input to determine an appropriate response
67
What is the word that describes “processing and interpretation of sensory input”?
- integration
68
Define “motor output”.
- the response generated by the CNS and sent to effectors (muscles or glands) to carry out an action or adjust a physiological process
69
What word(s) defines, “activation of effector organs (muscles and glands) to cause a response”?
- motor output
70
What are the 2 divisions of the nervous system?
1. Central nervous system (CNS)
2. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
71
What are parts of the CNS? Also known as the __________
- brain and spinal cord
- central nervous system
72
What are the parts of the PNS? Also known as the _________
- cranial nerves, spinal nerves and ganglia
- peripheral nervous system
73
The brain and spinal cord are a part of the __________
- CNS
74
The cranial nerves, spinal nerves and ganglia are part of the __________
- PNS
75
What are the 2 functional divisions of the PNS?
1. sensory division
2. motor divisions
76
The _________ division is a part of the PNS. What are the 2 divisions of it?
- sensory
- somatic and visceral sensory fibers
77
What is the function of somatic sensory fibers?
- to convey impulses from skin, skeletal muscles, and joints to CNS
78
What part of the body, “involve detecting and transmitting several types of sensory information such as; touch, pain, temperature, etc.?”
- somatic sensory fibers
79
What is the function of visceral sensory fibers?
- to convey impulses from visceral organs to CNS
80
What in the body best describes “specialized nerve fibers that carry sensory information from the internal organs (viscera), such as the heart, lungs, digestive organs, and blood vessels, to the central nervous system”?
- visceral sensory fibers
81
The _________ is a part of the ____________ and is made up of the somatic nervous system and the __________ nervous system
- motor division, PNS, autonomic
82
What are the 2 parts of the motor divisions?
- somatic and autonomic nervous system
83
What is the function of the somatic nervous system?
- the nerve fibers conduct impulses from CNS to skeletal muscle
84
What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?
- involuntary nervous system
- Two functional subdivisions:
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic
85
Distinguish between the different types of neuroglia cells.
- neuroglia (glial cells): small cells that surround and wrap delicate neurons
- neurons (nerve cells): excitable cells that transmit electrical signals
86
Draw a neuron and label important structures.
* on Microsoft document
87
What is a nuclei?
- nucleus where DNA is stored, only found in eukayriotic cells
88
What is ganglia?
- clusters or collections of neuron cell bodies located outside the central nervous system
- ganglia are part of the (PNS), and they play a critical role in transmitting and processing sensory and motor information between the CNS and various parts of the body.
89
What is tract?
- bundle of nerve fibers (axons) that carry specific types of information to and from different regions of the CNS
90
What are nerves?
- bundles of nerve fibers (axons) that transmit electrical signals
91
What is the difference between an axon and a dendrite?
- axons are the long, output pathways of a neuron that transmit electrical signals to other neurons or tissues
- dendrites are the short, branching extensions that receive incoming signals from other neurons
92
What is the function of schwann cells?
- myelination is the process by which Schwann cells wrap their membranes around the axon of a neuron to form a fatty insulating layer called the myelin sheath; The myelin sheath helps speed up the transmission of electrical impulses (action potentials) along the axon
- regeneration of nerve fibers in the PNS; when a nerve is injured, Schwann cells clear debris, create a pathway for the growing axon, and release growth factors that promote axon regeneration
93
What is the function of oligodendrocytes?
- a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system
94
Explain the difference between gray matter and white matter.
- gray matter is where information processing takes place, and it consists mostly of neuron cell bodies and dendrites
- white matter is made up of myelinated axons and is primarily responsible for transmitting signals quickly between different parts of the nervous system
95
How are neurons classified?
96
Very briefly explain the resting membrane potential and how it is generated.
- the resting membrane potential is the difference in charge across the cell membrane when the cell is at rest (not sending a signal). It makes the inside of the cell slightly negative compared to the outside
- the cell ends up with a small negative charge inside compared to the outside, which is what we call the resting membrane potential
97
What is a graded potential?
- a small change in the electrical charge across a cell's membrane that can vary in size. It happens when a stimulus (like a touch or chemical signal) causes ions to move in or out of the cell, making the inside either more positive or negative
98
What is action potential?
- a quick, large electrical signal that travels along the axon of a neuron. It's how neurons send messages over long distances
99
Very briefly explain how an action potential is generated.
1. Resting State: The neuron is at rest, with the inside of the cell being negative compared to the outside.
2. Depolarization: A stimulus causes sodium channels to open, allowing sodium ions (Na⁺) to rush into the cell. This makes the inside of the cell more positive.
3. Threshold: If the depolarization reaches a certain level (called the threshold), it triggers a full action potential.
4. Repolarization: After the peak of depolarization, potassium channels open, and potassium ions (K⁺) flow out of the cell, returning the inside of the cell to a negative charge.
5. Restoration: The cell's resting state is restored through the action of the sodium-potassium pump, which moves sodium out and potassium back in
100
If all action potentials are exactly the same, how does the brain tell the difference between a week and a strong stimulus?
- the frequency of action potentials and the number of neurons firing give the brain information about whether a stimulus is weak or strong. All action potentials are the same size, but more frequent firing and more active neurons indicate a stronger stimulus
101
What is the rate (speed) of an action potential dependent upon?
- axon diameter and myelination
Larger axon diameter = faster conduction.
Myelination = faster conduction.
102
How do group A, B and C fibers differ?
- group A fibers are for fast and urgent signals (e.g., motor control).
- group B fibers transmit moderate-speed autonomic signals.
- group C fibers carry slow signals, such as pain and temperature sensations.
103
What is a synapse? How are synapses classified?
- synapses are essential for communication between neurons, and their classification as chemical or electrical and as excitatory or inhibitory helps to describe their function in the nervous system
104
What is the function of a neurotransmitter?
- to transmit signals across synapses, allowing neurons to communicate with each other and with other cells (like muscles and glands). They regulate a wide range of physiological processes, from movement and heart rate to mood and cognition
105
Briefly describe the process of the transfer of information across a chemical synapse.
- the transfer of information across a chemical synapse involves the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron in response to an action potential. These neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, causing either an excitatory or inhibitory effect, which can then trigger further signaling or response
106
What is a postsynaptic potential?
- the change in the electrical potential (charge) across the postsynaptic membrane (the membrane of the neuron or cell receiving the signal) that occurs in response to the binding of a neurotransmitter released from a presynaptic neuron
107
What does EPSP stand for?
- Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential
108
What does IPSP stand for?
- Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential
109
What does IPSP stand for? What is its definition?
- Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential
- hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential, meaning it makes the inside of the postsynaptic neuron more negative
110
What does EPSP stand for? How would you define it?
- Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential
- a depolarizing postsynaptic potential, meaning it makes the inside of the postsynaptic neuron more positive (less negative)
111
# 35
112
List the major functions of blood and briefly describe each.
- transportation: blood transports oxygen from the lungs to tissues and organs and carries carbon dioxide (a waste product of metabolism) from tissues to the lungs for exhalation
- nutrients: Blood carries essential nutrients (such as glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids) from the digestive system to cells throughout the body
- body temperature: Blood helps regulate body temperature by redistributing heat. The blood vessels can dilate or constrict to release or conserve heat as needed
113
Describe the composition of blood. Plasma and formed elements.
- plasma (55%): liquid portion of blood, consisting mainly of water, proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, hormones, and waste products
- cellular components of blood: red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets
114
Describe the structure and function of erythrocytes.
- carries carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs for exhalation
- carry oxygen from the lungs to tissues and organs
- structure: biconcave disc for large surface area and flexibility
115
What’s another name for RBC’s?
- red blood cells are also known as erythrocytes
116
What is another name for erythrocytes?
- red blood cells
117
What is hematopoiesis? Where does it occur?
- the process of blood cell formation (RBC’s, WBC’s, and platelet) taking place primarily in the bone marrow
118
How is erythropoiesis controlled?
- primarily regulated by erythropoietin
119
What is erythropoiesis?
- the production of RBC’s
120
What is erythropoietin?
- glycoprotein hormone that plays a critical role in the regulation of red blood cell (RBC) production (erythropoiesis)
121
Are there dietary requirements that relate to new red blood cell production?
- support optimal erythropoiesis and avoid deficiencies that can lead to anemia, a well-balanced diet containing adequate amounts of iron, vitamin B12, folate, vitamin C, protein, and other micronutrients is essential. A lack of any of these key nutrients can impair red blood cell production and function, leading to different types of anemia or suboptimal oxygen delivery to tissues. For people with dietary restrictions (such as vegans or vegetarians), it's important to pay particular attention to iron, vitamin B12, and folate intake to ensure adequate RBC production
122
What is blood doping?
- refers to the illegal or unethical practice of artificially increasing the number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bloodstream to enhance athletic performance
123
How is blood doping done?
- the athlete's own red blood cells are re-added to the bloodstream. This can be done by withdrawing one half to one litre of blood three to five weeks before a race. The withdrawn blood will be centrifuged, after which the red blood cells are collected and stored in a refrigerator.
124
What is the lifespan of RBC’s?
- approx. 120 days, 3-4 months
125
What happens to old RBC’s?
- old or damaged RBCs are typically removed from circulation through a process known as phagocytosis by specialized cells called macrophages. This process mainly occurs in the spleen, although some RBCs are also broken down in the liver and bone marrow
126
Define phagocytosis
- the process by which certain cells, called phagocytes, engulf and digest foreign particles, pathogens, dead cells, or other debris
127
What is anemia?
- body lacks enough healthy red blood cells (RBCs) or hemoglobin to carry adequate oxygen to the tissues and organs
128
Cause of anemia?
- low iron in the blood
129
Briefly describe the processes / steps that occur when a blood vessel is damaged and blood loss occurs.
1. Vascular spasm (vasoconstriction) to reduce blood flow.
2. Platelet plug formation to temporarily seal the vessel opening.
3. Coagulation (clot formation) to create a stable fibrin clot that prevents further bleeding.
This series of events ensures that blood loss is controlled while the vessel undergoes repair.
130
Draw and label a heart. Include all valves, septum, major vessels and show blood flow.
131
Describe the 3 layers of the wall of the heart.
132
Describe the 3 layers of the wall of the heart.
1. Epicardium: Outer layer, protective and contains blood vessels.
2. Myocardium: Middle layer, thick and muscular, responsible for heart contraction.
3. Endocardium: Inner layer, smooth surface lining the heart chambers and valves.
133
What are chordae tendinae?
- thin, fibrous cords of connective tissue that play a critical role in the functioning of the heart valves
134
What are papillary muscles?
- small, cone-shaped muscles located in the ventricles of the heart that are vital for proper functioning of the hearts AV valves
135
Draw a cardiac muscle cell and describe the specialized structures.
136
What is cardiac output?
- the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
137
What are heart sounds?
- the closing of heart valves
138
What is an electrocardiograph?
- a device that records the electrical activity of the heart
139
What is an electrocardiogram?
- a test that provides a graphic recording of the electrical activity of the heart
140
What is an electrocardiography?
- a test that provides a graphic recording of the electrical activity of the heart
141
Draw a typical normal cardiac cycle as it would appear on an electrocardiogram. Label and describe all the major components.
142
What are dermal papillae?
- specialized cells that work for hair formation, growth, and cycling
