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Flashcards in Midterm Deck (57):
1


Ketamine

 

Effects/Adverse effects/class


Dissociative Anesthetic with mild analgesia

Schedule 3 controlled drug

 

Beneficial Effects

Short term anesthetic procedure

Rapid Onset of action

 

Adverse Effects

Increase H.R.

Increase B.P.

Produce regurgitation

Mydriasis

Convulsive seizures

No reversal agent

 

 

 

2


Propofol

Not controlled

Non barbituate

Anesthetic Induction

 

Advantages

Ultra Fast acting onset

wild margin of safety

smooth recovery & rapid recovery

treatment of status epilepticus

Safe on liver & kidney disease

Antiemetic

Appetite stimulant

 

Adverse Effects

Apnea

Hypoxia

Respiratory depression

no analgesia

 

 

 

3

Benzodiazepines

 

 

 

 

Valium (Diazepam) and Midazolam

Tranquillizer

Anti-convulsant

Controlled Substance - schedule IV

 

Beneficial Effects

Anticonvulsant

Skeletal muscle relaxation

 

Adverse Effects

Not effective analgesic

Not effective sedative

possible vomitting

 

 

 

4


Dexdomitor

Alpha2-Agonist

Produces sedative & analgesia

Not controlled

Reversal:  Antisedan

 

Beneficial Effects

Muscle relaxation

fewer adverse effects than xylazine

 

Adverse Effects

bradycardia

hyperthermia

Hypotension

 

 

5

Butophanol

Synthetic Opioids

Agonist - Antagonist

Sedative with analgesia

Controlled substance - Schedule IV

 

Benefical effects

Mild-moderate viseral pain

ceiling effect

 

Adverse effecits

decrease respiratory rate

dcrease tidal volume

 

6


Acepromazine

Phenothiazines

Pre-anesthetic sedative w/o analgesic

not controlled substance

 

Beneficial Effects

Antiemetic

Calming

Prevents Arrhytrmias

decreases allergic effect

 

Adverse Effects

Decrease seizure threshold

hyperthermia

vasodilation

 

 

7


Atelectasis

Collapsed lung

 

Prevention:  manual ventilation. Bagging

 

 

8

An animal that is in a Sx plane of anesthesia should not respond in any way to any procedure that is being done to it?

 

T/F


False

9


 Why do we check the pulse strength during Sx

It is a rough indictator of B.P.

Measures the difference between systolic and diastolic B.P. & vessel diameter

 

10

 2 ways to check for proper ET placement?

Palpate trachea

condensation on tube

movement of resevoir bag

11


2 signs we wait for before extubation?

Chewing

Swallowing

12


Acceptable places for observing MM color besides gums?

Vulva

Prepuce

Eye

13


2 factors contributing to poor thermoregulation

Open body cavity

no shiver reflex

vasodilation

 

14


Abnormal pulse-oximeter value?

 

What two things does a pulse oximeter measure

Measures O2 Saturation & heart rate

  • Normal: 95%+
  • Abnormal:  Less than 95%
  • Hypoxemic:  90-95%
  • Therapy required: 90%
  • Medical emergency: 85% for more than 30 secs.

Types:

Transmission probes (clothes pin) on tongue, pinna, lip

Reflective probes on hollow organ - esophagus or rectum

 

15


Normal exhaled CO2 level on capnometer?

    Measures CO2 in air that is inhaled and exhaled
    End Tidal CO2 monitor (ETCO2)
    Reflects Arterical CO2 levels

Mainstream: sensor placed b/t endotracheal tube and breathing circcuit

Sidestream:  sensor located in computer monitor where air is pulled by a tube that is attached b/t endotracheal tube and breathing circuit

Inspiration:  CO2 is 0mm Hg

Expiration:  CO2 is 35-45mm Hg

16


Name 2 functions of an anesthesia machine?

Give O2

Deliver anesthesia (Sevoflurane or Isoflurane)

 

 

17


How do we determine the volume of oxygen (L) left in the tank?

PSI x 0.3 = liter

18


Pressure reducing valve reduces oxygen to what pressure before entering anesthetic machine?

40 PSI

 

19


What does pressure manometer do?

Measures gas pressure within breathing circuit

 

Normal value 20cm H20

 

20


During bagging pressure should not exceed how much?

do not exceed 20cm of H20

21

Function of vaporizer?  

Know traits of a precision vaporizer (McKelvey)

Function: Turns liquid to gas

Trait: Controls the amount of anesthesia delivered

 

22


How do we determine proper reservoir bag size?

 

How full should reservoir bag be at all times?

 

How do you properly check for leaks ?  Bag an animal?  Extubate?

60ml~90ml / Kg

 

2/3 full

 

Close pop off valve, squeeze resevoir bag to 20cm H2O and see if manometer decreases or not

23


02 Flowmeter


Flowrate:  50mL / kg / min

 

24


What’s difference between asepsis and surgical asepsis?

Asepsis is complete absence of microorganisms (impossible to achieve in Sx)

 

Sx asepsis is the body of techniques designed to maintain an object or area in a condition as free of microorganisms as possible.

25


Why do we use steam under pressure when sterilizing instruments rather than boiling water or free-flowing steam?

 

 

sporecidal/ kills endospores

26

What’s temp we need to achieve in the autoclave? Pressure?

121C or 250F for 20 minutes

 

Pressure:  15 psi

27


What is the sterile area of scrubbed personnel?

Frong, above waist to shoulders

28


What’s the contact time of chlorhexidine?

10-15 minutes

29


What’s the contact time of povidone iodine?

5-10 minutes

30


What’s cold sterilization and how well does it work?

contains Glutaldehyde

31

How should a surgical area be properly sanitized and disinfected and how often?

it should be sanitized between each patient

32


Types of disinfectants and antiseptics?

Alcohol

Phenol

Chloride

 

 

33


• What’s a hemostat used for?

to clamp off vessels, tissues

34


What’s the difference between Kelly & Crile hemostats?

Kelly has serration only half way of the jaw

Crile has serration all the way of the jaw

35

• Which is more traumatic, Ferguson angiotribe or Rochester-Carmalt?

 


• Which is more traumatic, Doyen intestinal or Halsted mosquito?

Ferguson angiotribe

 

 

Halsted Mosquito hemostat forcep

36


What is the most important difference between Senn & Weitlaner retractors?

 

 

Senn is hand-held

Weitlaner is self-retaining

37


What’s the difference between Snook & Covault ovariectomy hooks?

snook is spade shape

 

Covault has a ball like tip

38

Where will the veterinarian make her/his first incision?

Spay: caudal to the umbilicus

 

Neuter:  Prepucial incision

 

39


What does the ovarian pedicle consist of?


vein

artery

fat

40

Name the 3 layers in the closure?

body wall

sub Q

skin

41


• What is the main reason we do a 3-layer closure?

decrease dead space and fluid formation

 

42


Name 2 types of absorbable sutures?

Monacril - under 21 days

PDS - 180 days

Cromica gut

Vicryle - 42 days

43


Name 2 types of nonabsorbable sutures?

Nylon

polyester

silk

wire

44

Dehiscence

when wound suture breaks open

45

What’s first-intention wound healing?

healing via stitches.

46


What’s second-intention wound healing

when would we choose this?
 

Natural healing

when skin cannot be pulled together

47


What are 4 stages of wound healing?

Inflammatory (Clot)

Debridement (Clean up)

Repair Stage

Maturation phase

48


Needle point


    Tapered


Cutting needle


Inverted cutting

49

• What is it called when suture is attached to needle during manufacture?

Prepackaged suture material

50

Role of Surgical Assistant

Clipping

scrubbing

postioning the patient

draping

setting/handling instruments

 

51


Lister bandage scissors

 

Knoles bandage scissors

 

52

wire suture cutting scissors

Littauer suture removal scissors

53


Cobalt spay hook

 

Snook spay hook

54

Senn retracter

 

Weitlaner retracter

55


Rochester-Ochsner Forceps

 

Rochester-Carmalt Forceps

56

Doyan Intestinal Forceps

57