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Windows Server (70-412) > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name?

Redundant network cards
Network Load Balancing
Failover cluster
RAID array

A

Network Load Balancing

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2
Q 
From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer?
  Programs and Features 
  Server Manager 
  Add/Remove Programs 
  Computer Management
A

Server Manager

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3
Q 
Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?
  Install-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-Console
  Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB
  Add-WindowsFeature NLB, NLB-RSAT
  Add-WindowsComponents NLB,NLB-Manager
A

Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB

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4
Q

Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to delete an NLB cluster?

Drop-NlbCluster
Delete-NlbCluster
Remove-NlbCluster
Disband-NlbCluster

A

Remove-NlbCluster

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5
Q

When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?

The node IP address the rule should apply to
The TCP or UDP port(s) the rule should apply to
The filtering mode
The protocols that this rule should apply to

A

The node IP address the rule should apply to

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6
Q

Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?

You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.
You will need to configure routers to duplicate packets for delivery to all cluster nodes.
You will need to manually add ARP entries to the routers.
You will need to ensure you have at least one node in the NLB cluster configured to handle traffic for each class C subnet in your network.

A

You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.

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7
Q

Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?

Stop
Suspend
Resume
Drainstop

A

Drainstop

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8
Q

Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?

Power supplies
Mainboards (motherboards)
Network cards
Disks

A

Mainboards (motherboards)

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9
Q

What is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?

They define which ports are allowed to pass through the cluster
They define which ports the cluster will listen for
They define which ports the cluster will not listen for
They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

A

They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

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10
Q

A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?

Two
Three
Four
Five

A

Two

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11
Q

What type of quorum configuration can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one?

Node Majority
Node and Disk Majority
Node and File Share Majority
No Majority (Disk Only)

A

Node Majority

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12
Q

In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012 R2, how are heartbeats transmitted?

Using TCP port 3343 unicast
Using TCP port 3343 broadcast
Using UDP port 3343 unicast
Using UDP port 3343 broadcast

A

Using UDP port 3343 unicast

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13
Q

Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?

iSCSI
Fibre Channel
Fibre Channel over Ethernet
SAS

A

SAS

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14
Q

Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012 R2, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?

Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel
Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)
BitLocker volume encryption
Storage Spaces

A

Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel

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15
Q

Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?

Add-ClusterGroup
New-ClusterGroup
New-ClusterResourceGroup
Add-ResourceGroup

A

Add-ClusterGroup

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16
Q

What mode of Cluster Aware Updating has an administrator triggering the updates manually from the orchestrator?

Self-updating mode
Triggered-updating mode
Remote-updating mode
Orchestrator-triggered mode

A

Remote-updating mode

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17
Q

When configuring shared storage for a cluster, there are several requirements that you must keep in mind. Of the items listed here, which one is not a requirement when configuring the shared storage?

The disks must be only GPT, not MBR
The miniport driver used for the storage must work with the Storport storage driver.
The storage device must support persistent reservations
The file system must be formatted as NTFS

A

The disks must be only GPT, not MBR

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18
Q

Which of the following improvements did CSV bring to Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply.)

Self-encryption
Support for BitLocker volume encryption
Support for SMB 3.0
Allows Windows to scan and repair CSV volumes with no offline time

A

Support for BitLocker volume encryption
Support for SMB 3.0
Allows Windows to scan and repair CSV volumes with no offline time

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19
Q

The High Availability Wizard allows you to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster. Which of the following are options that are available to choose from? (Choose all that apply)

Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)
SQL Server
Exchange Server
WINS Server

A

Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)

Exchange Server

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20
Q

What new management functionality is introduced with SMB 3.0?

The SMB Management Console
The SMB node of the Failover Cluster Console
PowerShell cmdlets for SMB
Windows Remote support for SMB

A

PowerShell cmdlets for SMB

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21
Q

How does the Scale-Out File Server provide for multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time?

SCSI reservations
CSV and CSV cache
VHD file virtualization
VSS flash cloning

A

CSV and CSV cache

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22
Q

How do you change the value of the preferred node in a cluster?

Assign each node a priority numeric value
Assign each node a weight numeric value
List the servers in the preferred order
Check the Preferred node checkbox

A

List the servers in the preferred order

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23
Q

How does the selection of the preferred node affect failover of the cluster resources?

Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after a failure
Allows you to control whether or not the Cluster service attempts a restart
Allows you to control whether or not the Cluster service attempts a failover
Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after the preferred node fails

A

Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after a failure

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24
Q

When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, what event ID will be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?

775
1520
250
1250

A

1250

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25
Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets correctly configures VM Monitoring for the DHCPClient service on the VM named VM42? Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem “VM42” “DHCPClient” Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient Set-MonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –Host “VM42” –Service DHCPClient
Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient
26
Which of the following features of the General Use File Server clustering role is the only change from Windows Server 2008 R2 to Windows Server 2012? Support for SMB 3.0 Support for DFS replication Support for data deduplication Support for the File Server Resource Manager
Support for SMB 3.0
27
When creating a new General Use File Server role, which SMB settings are enabled by default, but can be disabled if desired? (Choose all that apply) Enable access-based enumeration Enable continuous availability Allow caching of share Encrypt data access
Enable continuous availability Encrypt data access
28
In regard to Live Migration, which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting the Live Migration? (Choose all that apply) All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer All hosts must support hardware virtualization All hosts must be running on the same model server All VMs must be configured to use OVH format disks on SCSI disks
All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer All hosts must support hardware virtualization
29
When performing a Live Migration, there are several options available to choose from that control how the LM will occur. Which of the following is not one of these options? Move the virtual machine’s data to a single location Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items Move only the virtual machine Move only the snapshot files
Move only the snapshot files
30
Quick Migration occurs within the confines of what? A failover cluster An Active Directory Forest A Virtual Machine Manager farm A network load balanced cluster
A failover cluster
31
When importing a VM in Windows Server 2012 R2, you have three options available to select from that affect how the import is performed. Which of the following is not one of those options? Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID) Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID) Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID) Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)
Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
32
You want to use Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012 SP1 in your network to allow you to perform P2V migrations. What operating system must you install on the server to house SCVMM? Window Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012 R2 Windows Server 2012 R2 only Windows Server 2012 R2 or Windows 8 Windows 8 only
Windows Server 2012 R2 only
33
Before you can work with OVF files on your SCVMM server, what must you first do? Apply SCVMM SP1 Upgrade the SCVMM server to Windows Server 2012 R2 Apply the OVF Import/Export tool Upgrade the SCVMM license to Enterprise
Apply the OVF Import/Export tool
34
When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source operating systems would be disqualified from a P2V migration? Windows XP Professional SP3 32-bit Windows Server 2003 SP1 32-bit Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 64-bit Windows Vista SP1 64-bit
Windows Server 2003 SP1 32-bit
35
Offline P2V migrations are the only available migration method for what types of source servers? (Choose all that apply) Servers with FAT32 volumes Severs with NTFS volumes Servers with any VSS writers installed Servers that are domain controllers
Servers with FAT32 volumes & Servers that are domain controllers
36
Which of the following should be configured so that when you shut down or reboot a Hyper-V host, the VMs are migrated to another Hyper-V host? Live shutdown Dynamic shutdown Drain on shutdown Saved shutdown
Drain on shutdown
37
Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol used to access files over the network that is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients? DFS NFS SMB DNS
NFS
38
What feature or role must you install to extend the Active Directory schema with UNIX attributes? Server for NIS Server for NFS Identity Management for UNIX Password Synchronization
Server for NFS
39
Which of the following protocols is not supported by BranchCache? HTTP/HTTPS SMB BITS NFS
NFS
40
Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with what number of clients? Fewer than 25 Fewer than 50 Fewer than 75 Fewer than 100
Fewer than 50
41
When configuring the BranchCache hash publication options in Group Policy, you have three options available. Which of the options listed here is not available to configure? Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled Allow hash publication only for shared folders on which BranchCache is enabled Allow hash publication for all shared folders Disallow hash publication on all shared folders
Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled
42
Before you can audit access to files, what must you first do? (Choose all that apply) Specify files to be audited Specify times to be audited Enable object access auditing Enable file server auditing
Specify files to be audited & Enable object access auditing
43
What feature, first available in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008, enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder on the computer’s file system? Total Object Access Auditing Server Object Access Auditing System Object Access Auditing Global Object Access Auditing
Global Object Access Auditing
44
How is Identity Management for UNIX installed? Using Server Manager Using Programs and Features Using dism.exe Using sc.exe
Using dism.exe
45
To create an NFS shared folder on a cluster, you need to install which of the following items on each cluster node? The File Services role The Server for NFS role service The Failover Clustering feature All of the above
All of the above
46
Which of the following statements are true concerning Kerberos armoring? (Choose all that apply) Allows Kerberos to create service tickets to devices Fully encrypts Kerberos messages Increases Kerberos processing time Uses Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST)
Fully encrypts Kerberos messages & Increases Kerberos processing time
47
What must you specify to create a claim type? A specific attribute in Active Directory A specific user in Active Directory A specific group in Active Directory A specific domain in Active Directory
A specific attribute in Active Directory
48
What is created so that files are automatically scanned and classified based on their content? Scanning rules Classification filters Classification rules Scanning filters
Classification rules
49
What should you configure if you want to limit access to files with certain classifications within a folder to a specific security group’s members? A Central Access Policy A Discretionary Access Control List Role-Based Access Control Access-Based Enumeration
A Central Access Policy
50
Before you attempt to implement file classification, which of the following tasks should you not first determine? The method you will use to identify documents for classification The classifications you wish to apply The schedule of the classification to occur The schedule of disk defragmentation
The schedule of disk defragmentation
51
What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry? Discretionary Access Control Lists System Audit Preferences Global Object Access Auditing Universal Group Auditing Control
Global Object Access Auditing
52
Which of the listed PowerShell cmdlets would be correctly used to modify a Central Access Policy in Active Directory? Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy Update-ADCentralAccessPolicy Modify-ADCentralAccessPolicy Change-ADCentralAccessPolicy
Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy
53
After you have deployed a proposed Dynamic Access Control policy in staging mode, how do you check to see what is happening? Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818 Look in the Application logs for Event ID 8418 Look in the DacStage.log file Look in the DacResults.xml file
Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818
54
Which of these represents the largest benefit realized from classifying files and folders? Administrators can manage files and folders by specific attributes Tasks for files and folders can be automated Backups can be streamlined Sensitive data can be protected
Tasks for files and folders can be automated
55
How are NAS devices typically accessed over the network? (Choose all that apply) Using Fibre Channel Using SMB Using iSCSI Using NFS
Using SMB & Using NFS
56
What is the underlying network protocol used by iSCSI storage network? SCSI SMB IP BGP
IP
57
What role can you install in Windows Server 2012 R2 to provide iSCSI storage to other clients? iSCSI Server Role iSCSI Target Server role iSCSI Target role iSCSI Initiator role
iSCSI Target Server role
58
What is the name of the high-availability technology that enables multiple TCP/IP connections from the initiator to the target for the same iSCSI session? iSCSI Multipath Multiple Connection Session Network adapter bonding Multipath I/O
Multiple Connection Session
59
What protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network? iDNS iWINS iSCNS iSNS
iSNS
60
What is the name given to the new Windows Server 2012 R2 capability that allows an administrator to completely remove binaries from the disk for an unneeded role or feature? Server Core Windows Slim Provisioning Windows Feature Management Features on Demand
Features on Demand
61
After you have removed the binaries for a feature from your Windows Server 2012 R2 computer, what status will be displayed for that feature if you run the dism /online /get-features command? Disabled with Files Removed Uninstalled with Binaries Removed Removed with Files Removed Disabled with Payload Removed
Disabled with Payload Removed
62
How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network? (Choose all that apply) Using Fibre Channel Using SMB Using iSCSI Using NFS
Using Fibre Channel & Using iSCSI
63
Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of _________ per second or more. 100 megabits 1000 megabits 1 gigabit 10 gigabits
10 gigabits
64
What command-line tool is installed when you install the Windows Server Backup feature? wbadmin. exe backup. exe wsbackup. exe wsbadmin. exe
wbadmin.exe
65
The maximum amount of time you have to bring a system back online before it has a significant impact on your organization is known as what? Recovery Point Objective Recovery Impact Objective Recovery Time Objective Recovery Backup Objective
Recovery Time Objective
66
Which of the following would not be a good usage of manual backups? Backing up a volume that is not included in the regularly scheduled backup routine Making a special backup outside of the current backup schedule Making normal backups without a schedule Making a backup to store in a different location than the scheduled backups
Making normal backups without a schedule
67
What is contained within the Backup folder created by Windows Server Backup? (Choose all that apply) Virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes Metadata cache information Log files that contain a record of errors that occur XML files that provide backup history details
Virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes & XML files that provide backup history details
68
When you select the “Faster backup performance” option for your backups, what is the net result of this configuration? (Choose all that apply) Full backups are performed Incremental backups are performed Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume Each volume is backed up separately
Incremental backups are performed | & Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume
69
By default, where will backups of DHCP be sent when you configure backups to occur? %systemroot%\Windows\Dhcp\Backup %systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup %systemroot%\Windows\System32\Backup\Dhcp %systemroot%\Windows\Backup\Dhcp
%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup
70
What is the minimum forest functional level your Active Directory forest must meet to enable the Active Directory Recycle Bin? Windows Server 2008 Windows Server 2008 R2 Windows Server 2012 R2 Windows Server 2003 R2
Windows Server 2008 R2
71
What Windows feature captures and stores copies of folders and files at specific points in time, allowing users or administrators to recover accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different versions of the same file? Version Management Copies Shadow Copy Version Control Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes Version Control Shadow Copy Provider
Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes
72
Which of the following statements is true concerning incremental backups in Windows Server Backup? You can restore from a single backup You must restore a full backup first followed by all applicable incremental backups You must restore the last full backup and the last differential backup You can restore from only the most current full backup
You can restore from a single backup
73
What type of backup allows you to recover the server to another server with the same or different hardware? Bare metal recovery Full server System state System reserved
Bare metal recovery
74
Regarding Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes, how many copies per volume can be retained before the oldest shadow copy is permanently deleted? 16 copies 32 copies 48 copies 64 copies
64 copies
75
Which of the following can only be recovered using WinRE and the Windows installation media? System volumes Data volumes Network shares Local volumes
System volumes
76
Which of the following backup configurations does not include the system state data? Full backups Bare metal recovery backups System state backups Incremental backups
Incremental backups
77
What is the functional difference between a non-authoritative restoration of Active Directory versus an authoritative restoration? The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle. The objects that are restored in the authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle. The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration must still be recovered from the Active Directory Recycle Bin following the restoration. The objects that are restored in the authoritative restoration must still be recovered from the Active Directory Recycle Bin following the restoration
The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle.
78
When using the shutdown /r command, what happens when you add /o to the command? The server will reboot and load normally The server will shutdown The server will reboot and open the Advanced Boot options menu The server will reboot and perform a disk integrity check
The server will reboot and open the Advanced Boot options menu
79
``` Which of the following represents the correct command to use to set the boot timeout value that controls the length of time the computer waits to load the default operating system? Bootrec /startdelay Bcdedit /loadwait Bootrec /loadpause Bcdedit /timeout ```
Bcdedit /timeout
80
Which of the following represents what an operating system GUID would look like in the BCD store? Windows 8 849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3 ab759-2b7dz-11e32-9a4da-10bf48 \Windows\system32\winload.exe
849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3
81
Which of the following system state items will only be found on a domain controller? Boot files IIS metabase Registry SYSVOL
SYSVOL
82
Which of the following WinRE Command Prompt tools would be most appropriately used to cause the computer to boot to a different partition at the next startup? Bootrec Bcdedit Diskpart Format
Bcdedit
83
What must you use to apply encryption to replication traffic for Hyper-V replica? IPSec X.25 X.509 SSH
X.509
84
When configuring the subject common name (CN) on an X.509 digital certificate to be used for Hyper-V replication, what value should be used for the subject CN if a standalone server hosts the VM? The FQDN of the Hyper-V Replica Broker The NetBIOS name of the Hyper-V Replica Broker The FQDN of the Hyper-V host The NetBIOS name of the Hyper-V host
The FQDN of the Hyper-V host
85
In order for a digital certificate to be considered valid, what conditions must it generally meet? (Choose all that apply) The certificate must posses required EKU attributes. The certificate must terminate at a valid root certificate. The certificate must not be expired or revoked. The certificate must be 2048 bits or longer for key length.
The certificate must terminate at a valid root certificate. & The certificate must not be expired or revoked.
86
When configuring a multi-site cluster using Windows Server 2012 R2, how can you configure data replication to occur? (Choose all that apply) Block level hardware-based replication Software-based file replication Application-based replication Windows MPIO-based replication
``` Block level hardware-based replication & Software-based file replication & Application-based replication ```
87
What network services will you require in the remote site used to host a multi-site cluster? (Choose all that apply) AD Domain Services DHCP QoS DNS
AD Domain Services & DNS
88
In a Windows Server 2012 R2 failover cluster, after how many missed heartbeats in a row will a node become failed? 3 5 7 9
5
89
Which of the following is used to create a second replica from another replica? Hyper-V Paired Replication Hyper-V Secondary Replication Hyper-V Global Replication Hyper-V Extended Replication
Hyper-V Extended Replication
90
Which Global Update Manager mode is the default for all workloads besides Hyper-V? All write and local read Majority read and write Majority write and local read Minority local read
All write and local read
91
What is the primary security implication of choosing the Kerberos authentication option over the certificate-based authentication option when configuring Hyper-V replication? Kerberos provides mutual authentication of the client and server The data will not be encrypted while in transit on the network The data will be compressed while in transit on the network Kerberos requires that the KDC be functional and reachable
The data will not be encrypted while in transit on the network
92
What database engine is used for the DHCP database in Windows Server 2012 R2? SQLite Jet ESE SQL Express
Jet
93
By default, after how much time has elapsed in an active DHCP lease will a Windows client computer attempt to renew the lease? 4 days 50% of the lease time 75% of the lease time 8 days
50% of the lease time
94
Which of the following criteria listed can be used to create conditions in a DHCP policy? (Choose all that apply) User Class Vendor Class MAC address Client identifier
User Class Vendor Class MAC address Client identifier
95
Which of the following represents the correct default subnet mask used with Class A networks? 255. 0.0.0 255. 255.0.0 255. 255.255.0 255. 255.255.255
255.0.0.0
96
IPv4 addresses use an address space that is _____ bits long, as compared to IPv6 addresses, which use an address space that is _____ bits long. 16, 32 32, 64 64, 128 32, 128
32, 128
97
When configuring Split Scopes for DHCP, what is the traditional percentage split of the scope range? 50% to the primary server, 50% to the secondary server 60% to the primary server, 40% to the secondary server 70% to the primary server, 30% to the secondary server 80% to the primary server, 20% to the secondary server
80% to the primary server, 20% to the secondary server
98
On what port does DHCP failover listen for failover traffic? UDP port 67 UDP port 68 TCP port 647 TCP port 648
TCP port 647
99
What term describes the network transmissions method where packets are sent from one to a specific group of other hosts? Multicast Unicast Anycast Broadcast
Multicast
100
Which of the following represents the best usage of a superscope in DHCP? To add IP addresses to the available lease pool To add more IP addresses in a new subnet To ease administrative overhead for management of DHCP To allow routers to recognize new subnets
To add more IP addresses in a new subnet

Windows Server (70-412) (2 decks)

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