Midterm QA Flashcards

(184 cards)

1
Q

What percentage of pts with RA will develop spine involvement?

A

60-70%

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2
Q

With sacroiliac degenerative joint disease:

A

Changes predominate in the lower 2/3

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3
Q

Of the four bony cervical contour lines, which would be the most reliable for assessing upper cervical RA?

A

Spinolaminal line

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4
Q

Several of the following lines can be used in the evaluation of (scfe); Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
however, which is the most accurate?

A

Klein’s line

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5
Q

Shenton’s line would not be useful in the evaluation of:

A

Hip DJD

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6
Q

Klein’s line is used as a measurement for:

A

Salter Harris Type I

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7
Q

Which radiograph finding would be most suggestive of psoriatic arthritis in the DIP and PIP joints:

A

Joint space narrowing with erosions and mouse ears

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8
Q

When using Eisenstein’s method for lumbar sagital canal measurement stenosis would be indicated by:

A

less than 15 mm

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9
Q

Putti’s triad consists of:

A

Congenital Hip Dysplasia:

Increased acetabular angle, femoral head hypoplasia and lateral displacement.

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10
Q

“Steele’s rule of thirds” is helpful in the evaluation of:

A

Atlantoaxial translational instability

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11
Q

The pt found to have partial agenesis of the C1 posterior arch should have:

A

A flexion view

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12
Q

Verterbrobasilar insufficiency during rotary adjustments of the cervical spine related to compression or restriction of the vertebral artery may be associated with:

A

Posterior ponticle

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13
Q

Which arthritic disorder would be expected in a pt younger than 40 years of age?

A

Reiter’s syndrome

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14
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis would be least likely in which area?

A

Lumbar spine

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15
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding SLE Systemic lupus erythematous)

A

Almost all pts exhibit the classic “butterfly rash”

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16
Q

Which of the following would be a true statement regarding SLE (Systemic lupus erythematous)

A
  • Involves significant immunological abnormality
  • Shows a clear predilection for female its
  • Frequently involves the urinary, cardiopulmonary, nervous and musculoskeletal systems
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17
Q

A finding of severe lumbar degenerative disc disease would be:

A

Vacuum phenomenon

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18
Q

In erosive osteoarthritis the articular lesions result in a peculiar radiographic appearance called:

A

“Gull wing” sign

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19
Q

Which one of the following does not belong in the group?

A

Apophyseal joint erosion and fusion
Spinous process erosion
Cranial settling
ANSWER: Luschka joing arthrosis

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20
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis and _______ have virtually indentical radiographic findings:

A

Enteropathic arthritis

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21
Q

Which of the following is not in the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

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22
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Morning joint stiffness
Rheumatoid nodules
Positive rheumatoid factor

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23
Q

Costotransverse or costovertebral arthrosis may be associated with:

A

Roberts Syndrome

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24
Q

An arthritis which clinically has a predilection for pts

A

Still’s disease

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25
Deforming nonerosive arthropathy appearing after repeated attacks of arthritis in pts with rheumatic fever:
Jaccoud’s arthritis
26
A diagnosis of Forestier’s disease requires flowing hyperostosis at the anterior portion of at least:
Four contiguous vertebrae
27
Hadley’s “S” curve may be used when evaluating:
Both AP and oblique lumbar xrays
28
Which of the following is NOT a spinal radiographic finding associated with oschronosis arthropathy?
Normal disc spacing
29
Which of the following ARE spinal radiographic findingS associated with oschronosis arthropathy?
Vacuum phenomenon Flat lordosis Intervetebral disc chondocalcinosis
30
Spinal osteophytes
Originate at the attachment of the anterior longitudal ligament
31
Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?
DISH
32
Which of the following IS considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?
Ochronosis Acromegaly Hemochromatosis
33
A male patient with a diagnostic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes, and bronze colored skin, with MCP joint osteoarthritis is likely to have a diagnosis of:
Hemochromatosis
34
Poorly defined bone erosions are not expected in this arthritis:
Degenerative arthritis
35
Which condition can be associated with degenerative and inflammatory arthritis?
CPPD arthritis
36
Young adult female would be the typical pt for:
Scleroderma
37
In addition to osseous and articular abnormalities, scleraderma can have serious impact on all EXCEPT:
The lungs The heart The GI tract ANSWER: The Kidneys
38
Diabetes mellitus has a recognized correlation with ____ in up to 32% of pts?
DISH
39
Sjoegren’s syndrome, seen with various connective tissue disorders is associated with:
Generalized drying of mucous membranes
40
The anatomy of a typical synovial joint includes:
A fibrous capsule, synovium and hyaline cartilage
41
Spinal involvement in neurotrophic arthropathy is most often associated with:
Syphilis
42
An important clinical consideration with rheumatoid arthritis is:
Likelihood of atlantoaxial instability
43
Rheumatoid arthritis may result in:
Bony ankylosis of synovial joints
44
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis clinically most commonly occurs in:
Males >40 years of age
45
Para-articular osteopenia can be seen with all of the following arthritis disorders except:
Rheumatoid arthritis ANSWER: Gout Scleroderma SLE Systemic lupus erythematosus
46
Spondylolisthesis is correctly defined there is:
Anterolisthesis only
47
The type of sponylolisthesis commonly found at L4 is:
Degenerative
48
Which of the following is not characteristic of SLE? Systemic lupus erythematosus
The spine is a common area of involvement
49
George’s line and Ullman’s line are both used in the evaluation of:
Lumbar spine spondlolisthesis
50
Which of the following is useful in the evaluation of spondylolisthesis?
Ullman’s line
51
Which of the following lines can be used as indication of facet subluxation?
Hadley’s S line
52
Shenton’s or Menards line would NOT be helpful in the detection of
Hip Fractures Slipped Capital femoral epiphysis ANSWER: Hip DJD Hip Dislocation
53
Which measurement in a pediatric patient is positive with Putti’s triad?
Iliofemoral line
54
Lordic end plate changes associated with the DDD consisting of decreased signal intensity involved T1 and T2 which would correspond with end plate subchondral sclerosis are classified as type
Three
55
Using Eisenstein’s method, lumbar saggital perio-stenosis would be indicated by
Less than 15mm
56
In the cervical spine, the most accurate method of determining saggital canal stenosis is the canal-body ratio or Pavlov’s ratio which is positive with the ratio less than
0.82
57
“Steele’s rule of thirds” is helpful in the evaluation of:
Atlantoaxial translational instability
58
Peribasilar invagination could have a variety of associated vertebral defects, however which of the following would not be an expected finding
Hemi-vertebrae
59
Klippel-feil syndrome may be associated with
Sprengle’s deformity
60
Which arthropathy would be expected in a patient younger than 40 years of age?
Reiters Syndrome
61
Articular symptomotology is a common presenting complaint in what % of pts with SLE Systemic lupus erythematosus
90%
62
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding SLE? Systemic lupus erythematosus
A. It involves significant neurologic abnormalities B. Clinical increase in female pts ANSWER: C. Almost all pts exhibit the classic butterfly rash D. It typically involves the urinary, cardiopulmonary, musculoskeletal systems
63
Which of the following would NOT be a plain film identifier of a cause of lumbar spinal stenosis?
ANSWER: A. Ligamentum Flavum Buckeling B. Vertebral Body Osteophytes C. Retrolisthesis D. Facet arthrosis
64
This inflammatory arthritis can involve DIP, PIP, and 1st MCC articulations in the hand?
Erosive osteoarthritis
65
Which one of the following is NOT associated with rheumatoid spinal arthritis?
ANSWER: Epiphyseal joint erosion and fusion Spinous process erosion Cranial settling Os odontodium
66
Ankylosing spondylitis and what have virtually identical radiographic findings?
Enteropathic arthritis
67
Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?
Morning joint stiffness lasting greater than an hour ANSWER: Atlantoaxial subluxation Rheumatoid nodules Positive rheumatoid factor
68
Costo-transverse or costoveretbral arthrosis may be associated with what?
Roberts Syndrome
69
Hemispheric Spondylosclerosis occurs most commonly at what vertebra level and must be differentiated by what?
B. L4-5, blastic mets or infection
70
The sacroiliac vacuum phenomenon is what?
Has no clinical significance
71
Of the following, which one would NOT be considered in a differential for DISH?
Ankylosing spondylitis Spondylosis Psoriatic spinal arthritis ANSWER: Rheumatoid arthritis
72
Hadley’s S Curve may be used when evaluating what?
AP and oblique lumbar xray
73
In ochronosis arthropathy, the most common skeletal area of involvement is where
Spine
74
Spinal Osteophytes are
may be 2 types: traction or claw
75
Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?
Ochronosis Acromegaly Hemochromotosis ANSWER: DISH
76
A 50 year old male pt with the diagnostic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes, and bronze colored skin is likely to have a diagnosis of WHAT in osteoarthritis at the WHAT joint?
Hemochromotosis, MCP
77
Clearly defined bone erosions are NOT expected in this arthritis?
Degenerative arthritis ANSWER: Inflammatory arthritis Infectious arthritis Anabolic arthritis
78
Which condition can be associated with inflammatory and degenerative arthritis?
CPPD arthritis
79
Young adult female would be the typical pt for:
Scleroderma
80
OPLL pts frequently complain of this symptomotology?
Difficulty walking or lower extremity weakness
81
Diabetes Mellitis and dysphagia can be associated with what?
DISH
82
Sjorgen’s syndrome and Felty’s syndrome are most commonly associated with what?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
83
C-R-E-S-T is a term used in identifying major associations of what?
Progressive systemic sclerosis
84
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rheumatoid spinal arthritis?
ANSWER: Marginal bone formation Cranial settling Disc space narrowing Apophyseal joint erosion
85
Spinal involvement in nuerotropic arthropathy could be associated with:
Syphilis and syringomyelia
86
Which of the following would NOT be expected to cause alantoaxial instability
Ankylosing spondilytis Rhuematoid arthritis Psoriatic arthritis ANSWER: Scleroderma
87
Rheumatoid arthritis can result in:
Fibrous ankylosis of fibrocartilaginous joints
88
Forestier’s Disease (>>>) or Senile ankylosing hyperostosis clinically most commonly occurs in who?
Males greater than 50
89
Periarticular osteopenia can be seen with all of the following arthritic disorders EXCEPT
Rheumatoid arthritis Gout Scleraderma ANSWER: SLE
90
The best view for demonstrating ideology with isthmic or degenerative sponylolisthesis is
Lateral View
91
The rare type of spondylolisthesis found at L5 is
Displastic
92
The most common cause for bilateral acetabulum protrusion
Rheumatoid arthritis
93
In a pediatric patient Klein’s line should
Intersect the fovea capitis, relating to the superior margin of femoral head
94
Conservative treatment of the pt with spondylolisthesis has a poor prognosis if
Flexion-Extension on lateral lumbar films indicate instability at the level of the lesion
95
Concentric erosion of the femoral neck producing an apple cord deformity may be associated with what?
Synoviochondrometaplasia
96
The bywaters-dixon Non marginal syndesmophytes may be described as what?
a floating syndesmophyte that bridges the disk space but does not unite the vertebral bodies
97
Carrot stick fractures caused by ankylosing spondylitis may cause serious neurologic complications and most commonly seen at :
C5-C7
98
Which of the following is NOT a complication of spinal degenerative arthritis?
Degnerative enterolithesis Discogenic retrolithesis Spinal stenosis ANSWER: Sacroiliac joint fusion
99
In the Witse classification for spondylolisthesis, which occurs in both the cervical and lumbar spine commonly?
Degenerative
100
Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding or an association with peripheral annular degenerative disc disease?
Peripheral marginal vacuum Osteocytosis ANSWER: Normal Disc spacing Accompanying joint arthrosis
101
With rheumatoid involvement at the S-I joints, which one of the following is NOT and expected radiographic finding?
Unilateral involvement Segmental non uniform Superficial erosions ANSWER: Diffuse sacroiliac joint fusion
102
Periarticular bone density would be expected to be normal with this arthritis
Lupus
103
An important clinical consideration associated with psoratic arthritis pts is
severe osteopenia High likelihood of developing bilateral acetabulum protrusions Likelihood of cauda equinous syndrome Likelihood of alantoaxial translational instability.
104
Soft tissue calcification and __________ are classic findings of progressive systemic sclerosis. (1073)
Acroosteolysis
105
Which of the following is NOT a type of juvenile chronic Still’s disease?(1028)
Classic systemic Monarticular Polyarticular ANSWER: Peripheral articular
106
Which of the following lines can be used for indication of facet subluxation?
Hadley’s “S” line Ferguson’s Line Ullman’s line Eisenstein’s line
107
Shenton’s/Menard’s line would NOT be useful in the detection of:
Hip fracture Slipped capital femoral epiphysis ANSWER: Hip DJD Hip dislocation
108
This line also referred to as the Garland-Thomas line is useful in the detection of spondylolisthesis.(225)
Ullman’s line
109
Which measurement in the pediatric patient, is positive with Putti’s triad?
Iliofemoral line
110
Modic provides a classification system for marrow end plate changes related to the degeneration disc. Decreased end plate signal intensity on T1 and increased signal intensity on T2 weighted images are classified as Type ______ end plate changes and are related to fibrous tissue marrow replacement in the vertebral endplate. (536)
I
111
Using Eisenstein’s method, lumbar sagittal canal stenosis would be indicated by: (227)
112
In the cervical spine, the most accurate method for determining sagittal canal stenosis is the canal-body ratio or Pavlov’s ratio which is positive with a ratio of less than: (209)
.82
113
Bertolotti’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: (313)
Hemivertebra ANSWER: Sciatica Transitional vertebra Scoliosis
114
Primary basilar invagination may have a variety of associated vertebral defects; however, which one of the following would NOT be an expected finding?
ANSWER: C3 hemivertebra
115
Klipper-Feil syndrome may be associated with ________ in 20-30% of patients:
Sprengel’s deformity
116
A short webbed neck (pterygium colli), low hairline and reduced range of cervical motion clinically indicates:
Klippel-Feil syndrome
117
Approximately 90% of patients with SLE will present with:
Articular symptomatology
118
Decreased endplate signal intensity on T1 and T2 – weighted images are classified as Modic Type _____ end plate changes and are related to subchondral sclerosis in the vertebral endplate. (536)
III
119
The ligamentum flava may be associated with which spinal complication?
Spinal stenosis
120
This inflammatory arthritis can involve DIP, PIP and first MCC articulations in the hand.
Erosive OA
121
Cranial settling is an important feature of which arthritis involving the spine?
Rheumatoid
122
Referencing the “general guide to relative frequency of arthritis” from Y&R, which arthritis would be expected to be seen yearly in general practice? (952)
Infectious arthritis
123
Which of the following is NOT in the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?
Morning joint stiffness lasting more than 1 hour ANSWER: Boutonniere deformity Rheumatoid nodules Positive rheumatoid factor
124
Robert’s syndrome is associated with:
Lower thoracic costotransverse arthrosis
125
Hemispheric spondylosclerosis occurs most commonly at the ______ vertebral level and must be differentiated from ________: (976)
L4-5, blastic neoplasm or infection
126
Which of the following has NOT been associated with posterior ponticle? (269)
Vertebrobasilar insufficiency Barre – Lieou syndrome Chronic upper cervical syndrome ANSWER: Felty’s syndrome
127
Gold standaed imaging for the various pathological lesions of intervertebral disc disorders is (996)
MRI
128
Hadley’s “S” curve may be used when evaluating:
Both AP and oblique lumbar x-rays
129
The most common factor that results in degenerative disc disease is (536)
Acute or chronic repetitive trauma
130
The vacuum sign of Knuttsen is associated with: (971)
Central nuclear and peripheral annular DDD
131
The most significant of the spinal ligaments in relation to degenerative joint disease is: (537)
Ligamentum flava
132
Putti’s triad is a group of radiographic features associated with:
Congenital hip dysplasia
133
Degenerative arthritis typically does NOT produce:
ANSWER: Bone erosions Subchondral sclerosis Asymmetrical joint space narrowing Geode formation
134
Which condition can be associated with degenerative and inflammatory arthritis?
CPPD arthritis
135
Young adult female would be the typical patient for:
Scleroderma
136
OPLL patients frequently complain of this symptomatology: (998)
Difficulty walking with lower extremity motor weakness
137
A complication of facet joint degeneration which can NOT be demonstrated on plain film radiography and is best evaluated with MRI: (539)
Foraminal stenosis Degenerative anterolisthesis Apophyseal joint vacuum phenomenon ANSWER: Synovial cyst
138
Syndromes that may be associated with rheumatoid arthritis include:
Sjogren’s, Felty’s
139
C.R.E.S.T. is a term identifying the major associated with __________
Progresive systemic sclerosis
140
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rheumatoid spinal arthritis?
ANSWER: Marginal bone formation Cranial settling Disc space narrowing with end plate Apophyseal joint erosion
141
Lumbar spine involvement in neurotrophic arthropathy should be associated with?
Syphilis, diabetic neuropathy
142
Which one of following would NOT be expected to cause alantoaxial instability
Ankylosing spondilytis Rheumatoid arthritis Psoriatic arthritis ANSWER: Scleroderma
143
Rheumatoid arthritis may result in?
Bony ankylosis of synovial joints
144
On the lateral lumbar x-ray __________ line should lie above the superior most tip of the adjacent superior articular process of the facet joint (221)
Macnab’s
145
The best view for demonstrating etiology with isthmic or degenerative spondylolisthesis is?
Lateral view
146
The type of spondylolisthesis commonly found in the cervical spine is:
degenerative
147
The most common cause for bilateral acetabular protrusion:
Rheumatoid
148
In a pediatric patient Klein’s line should
Intersect the superior margin of the femoral head
149
Conservative treatment of the pt with spondylolisthesis has a poor prognosis if
Motion lumbar films indicate instability
150
An arthropathy associated with joint ______ and eventually producing secondary OA: (1009)
Synovial chondrometaplasia
151
Seronegative arthritis in children: (1028)
Still’s disease
152
In rheumatoid patients, the presence of rheumatoid nodules high ____ of rheumatoid factor and extra articular manifestations are usually indicative of: (1012)
Poor prognosis
153
Which of the following is NOT a complication of spinal degenerative arthritis:
Degenerative anterolisthesis Discogenic retrolisthesis Spinal stenosis ANSWER: Sacroiliac joint fusion
154
In the Wiltse classification for spondylolisthesis, which type occurs in both the cervical and lumbar spine commonly:
Isthmic
155
Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding or association of peripheral annular degenerative disc disease:
Peripheral marginal vacuum Osteophytosis Normal disc spacing ANSWER: Accompanying luschka joint arthrosis
156
Primary hyperparathyroidism, gout and hemochromatosis have a strong association with CPPD and could produce this common radiographic finding:
Chondrocalcinosis
157
An early and frequent rheumatoid finding with Glenohumeral joint disease: (1024)
Rotator tendon cuff rupture
158
Mouse ears and gull wings radiographic findings are seen with: (1054)
Psoriatic and EOA respectively
159
The letter joints that may have erosive type changes along articular surfaces in association with DJD include all of the following EXCEPT:
Acromioclavicular (AC) Temporomandibular (TMJ) Symphysis pubis (SP) ANSWER: Sternoclavicular (SC)
160
Normal para-articular bone density is expected with all of the following arthritic disorders EXCEPT:
Gout ANSWER: Rheumatoid types Degenerative joint disease Foot and ankle
161
Dysphagia is frequently seen in
PSS Progressive Systemic Sclerosis 917
162
Which of the following are radiographic findings or associations of peripheral annular degeneration disease
Pick all that apply
163
Seronegative chronic arthritis in children
Still's Disease | 873
164
The interohalangeal joint of the great toe (1st digit) showing marginal destruction (rat bites), soft tissue swelling and joint destruction, which may be bilateral is characteristic of
RA | 864
165
Which of the following are the most common causes for neutrophil (charcot's) joints
Diabetes mellitus Syphilis Syringomyelia 843
166
Tripartite patella musth be differentiated from
fracture
167
the most common and lease common disc level respectively for vervain IVOC
C5, C2
168
The earliest pathophysiological findings of IVOC in the cervical spine
Endplate degeneration?
169
A patient with secondary Sjogren's syndrome may also be suffering with
SLE PSS RA
170
An increased ADI greater than 3mm particularly in flexion happen sin the _______ of patients. Spinal compression deformities occur secondary to _____
171
When evaluating the cercial spine for alighnemntn complications secondary to spinal DJD, which contour line is seldom used
Posterior spinous (least reliable ``` most: spinallaminar others retropheryngeal retrotracheal anterior body posterior body (George's Line) ```
172
Based on the number of joints involved, which arthritis does not fit in this group
infectious arthritis
173
Referencing the general rule to relative frequency from Y&R, which arthritis would be expected to be seen monthly in a general average practice
RA
174
This is a basic fundamental rule to remember about the 2 majority types of arthritis: ____ are to OA, what ____ are to inflammatory arthritis (pick 2)
osteophytes | Erosions
175
Which of the following joints is an example of a secondary osteoarthritis location
elbow
176
Mikuliez's Angle will determine the presence of
Coxa Valga Normal 125 Valga 150
177
Degenerative arthritis typically does not produce
Ulnar deviation
178
"mouse ears" and "gull Wings" are seen with
psoriatic and EOA respectively
179
Which of the followup is not associated with gout
normal bone density?
180
common complication when steroid therapy is used for SLE
femoral head AVN
181
The great toes (not MTP) isa frequent site fro early and advanced
Psoriatic A
182
Common spinal levels for framing stenosis related to Uncovertebral arthritis
C5-6, C6-7
183
The role of radiology in the diagnosis of articular disease is undisputed. Arthritis cons the american economy ___ billion and affects on in every __ people
14, 7
184
Although the "D" word of neupathic are usually apple to the hypertrophic type they also works ro atrophic type. Which of the following is NOT one one ht e6 "D" Words
Answer: Disgusting 1. disorganization 2. debris 3. density 4. dislocation 5. destruction 6. distended (soft tissue)