Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OS I (Osteopathic Skills I) Midterm > Midterm Quick Facts > Flashcards

Midterm Quick Facts Flashcards

(55 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the 5 osteopathic models?

A
  1. Biomechanical (bones, muscles, tendons, ligs, fascia)
  2. Neurologic (brain/spinal cord)
  3. Respiratory/Circulatory (cardio, lymph, HEENT, genuri)
  4. Metabolic/Energy/Immune (lymph organs, endocrine)
  5. Behavioral (Biopsychosocial)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stretch do you perform for pain in base of neck?

A

Levator Scapulae Stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stretch do you perform for 1st/2nd rib SD?

A

Scalene Stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What stretch do you perform for Shoulder Extension SD?

A

Prayer Stretch Latissimus Dorsi

  • put elbows together, increase lumbar lordosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What stretches can you perform for Shoulder Internal Rotation SD?

A
  1. Subscapularis (Gravity) Stretch
    • ER against gravity (inhale/exhale 3-5 cycles)
  2. Pec. Major/Minor Stretch
    • hold 10-60s
  3. Scapular Retraining
    • retrain rhomboids (chin tuck inc. stretch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What stretch do you perform for Hip Flexion SD?

A

Iliopsoas/Rectus Femoris Stretch

- dorsal foot on table, dip and thrust hips forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What stretch do you perform for Hip Adduction SD?

A

Lower Extremity Adductor Stretch

- arch back against wall, put feet together and abduct knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What stretch do you perform for Gluteus Medius/Ab/Adductor Strengthening?

A

Clamshell Exercise

- lat. recumbant, repeat 10-15x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What stretch do you perform for pain/tenderness in buttock and posterior leg?

A

Piriformis Stretch

- supine, pull knee across extended leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What stretch do you perform for Lumbar Sidebend SD or lower back pain?

A

Quadratus Lumborum Stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Trendelenburg Sign?

A
  • weak abductors cause contralateral hip to drop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stretch Guidelines

A
  • perform after workout
  • hold 10-30s or 30-60s for older adults
  • perform 2-3x/3x per week
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Exercise Guidelines

A
  • repeat exercise 8-12x per set
  • 1-3 sets/3x per week
  • focus on technique

GOAL: perform exercise continuously for 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is somatic dysfunction?

A
  • impaired/altered function of related components of the somatic bodywork (skeletal, arthrodial, myofascial) and their related components (vascular, lymphatic, neural elements)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Physiological Barrier, Elastic Range, Anatomic Barrier

A

Physiological - end of active ROM

Elastic Range - between AROM and PROM

Anatomic - end of passive ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a restrictive barrier?

A

functional limit that abnormally diminishes normal physiological range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OMT Contraindications (3)

A
  1. NO somatic dysfunction
  2. NO patient consent
  3. inappropriate clinical setting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 osteopathic tenants?

A
  1. The body is a unit
  2. The body possesses self-regulatory mechanisms
  3. Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated
  4. Rational treatment is based on principles 1-3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

End Feel of Range of Motion:

  1. Elastic
  2. Abrupt
  3. Hard
  4. Empty
  5. Crisp
A
  1. rubber band
  2. osteoarthritis or hinge joint
  3. Somatic Dysfunction
  4. voluntary guarding (pt. doesn’t allow motion bc pain)
  5. involuntary guarding due to pinched nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the major criteria of the Brighton Score used to assess Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?

A
  1. Beighton Score of >/= 4

2. Arthralgia for 3+ months in 4 joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 4 options for positive diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?

A
  1. 2 major criteria
  2. 1 major and 2 minor criteria
  3. 4 minor criteria
  4. 2 minor criteria and a 1st relative who has the disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Newton’s Third Law?

A

when 2 bodies interact, the force exerted by one is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction of the forces exerted by the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Hooke’s Law?

Study These Flashcards
A

the strain placed on an elastic body is proportional to the stress placed upon it

24
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

Study These Flashcards
A

bone will develop according to the stresses placed on it

25
What is Sherrington's Law?
when an agonist receives an impulse to contract, its agonists receive impulses to relax
26
Hysteresis
energy loss from difference between loading and unloading characteristics
27
What are the 4 fascial layers?
1. Pannicular Fascia - outermost 2. Axial/Appendicular - surrounds muscles, bones, tendons 3. Meningeal - surround nervous system 4. Visceral - surrounds body cavity
28
What are the 2 ABSOLUTE contraindications for Myofascial Release and INR?
1. absence of SD | 2. lack of patient consent
29
What are 3 indications for MFR/INR?
1. somatic dysfunction 2. when muscle energy is contraindicated 3. when counterstrain may be difficult secondary to patient inability to relax
30
What are the levels of the 4 transition zones? 1. Tentorium Cerebelli 2. Thoracic Inlet 3. Thoracolumbar Diaphragm 4. Pelvic Diaphragm
1. OA, C1, C2 2. C7, T1 3. T12, L1 4. L5, Sacrum
31
What are the 5 indications for Articulatory Techniques?
1. arthritic patients 2. elderly/frail 3. critically ill, post-op patients 4. infants or very young patients 5. patient unable to cooperate with instructions
32
What are 5 factors that negatively influence Successful Muscle Energy?
1. contract too hard 2. contract in wrong direction or counterforce in wrong direction 3. sustain contraction for too short a time 4. not providing accurate instructions 5. do not relax appropriately
33
Eccentric Contraction vs Concentric Contraction
Eccentric - lengthen muscle Concentric - shorten muscle
34
Isotonic, Isokinetic, Isolytic, Isometric Contractions
Isotonic - Ecc/Con against constant weight Isokinetic - concentric contraction w/ joint motion at constant rate/speed Isolytic - eccentric contraction where concentric muscle contraction is overpowered by stronger counterforce Isometric - muscle maintained at constant length (NEITHER ECCENTRIC NOR CONCENTRIC)
35
Marcelino Oliva and William G. Anderson
MO: 1st minority AOA Pres (1988-1989) WGA: 1st african american AOA president (1994-95)
36
Who is Barbara Ross-Lee?
- 1st female dean of a medical college (Ohio University) | - 1st DO to win Robert Wood Johnson Health Policy Fellowship
37
Who is Mamie Johnston?
- first graduate from KCCOS (1917)
38
Who is Louisa Burns?
- worked in histology and postulated CT model of somatic dysfunction
39
Who is Jeanette Bolles?
- 1st woman to receive the DO degree
40
What year were DOs accepted into the military and who was the first?
1966 - Harry J Walter
41
What year did KCCOS change its name?
1980
42
What year did the California Incident happen and what was the cause? What year did the AOA win its court battle against California?
1961 - prohibit DO licenses, DOs become MDs with 12 weekend, $65 class - licenses were NOT recognized outside the state 1974: Cal Supreme Court reinstated DO licensing
43
What was the first free-standing, state funded DO college?
Oklahoma State University (1972)
44
What year were osteopathic residencies first approved?
1947
45
1917-1918 Influenza Pandemic
- osteopathic care had a 0.25% mortality rate compared to MD 10% mortality rate - nationally publicized data
46
What year was the KC COS established and by what two men?
1916 - A.A. Kaiser and George Conley
47
What was the first state to legally license DOs, what year was it, what state followed, and what year did Missouri do the same?
1. Vermont (1896) 2. North Dakota followed 3. 1897
48
What year was A.T. Stills born and what year did he die?
Born: Aug. 6th, 1828 Died: 1917
49
What year did A.T. Stills use a rope to treat his headache?
1839
50
When did A.T. Stills fling the banner of osteopathic medicine to the breeze? What other events happened in that year?
10 am on June 22, 1874 Other events: 1st DO treatment in Missouri, Stills kicked out of methodist church, presented thoughts to Brown University
51
When was the term "osteopathy" coined?
1885
52
What year was the American School of Osteopathy opened and what was the demographic of its first class?
Opened 1892 17 men, 5 women (5 students were A.T. Stills children)
53
Lister, Semmelweiss, Snow, Budd
Lister - "Father of Antiseptic Surgery" (red. surgery mort) Semmelweiss - dec. mortality rate w/handwashing Snow - traced cholera outbreak in london Budd - prove cholera came from contaminated Bristol water
54
When was the AAAO established, when did it switch its name to the AOA, and when did it start inspecting schools?
- established 1897 - changes name in 1901 - started inspecting schools in 1903
55
When was the Philosophy of Osteopathy published?
1899

OS I (Osteopathic Skills I) Midterm (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions