Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

VT 260 ER & CC > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

(103 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Typical emergency & critical care ceases presented in vet hospitals?

A
  1. Hit by by care (HBC) Trauma
  2. Traumatic Lacerations
  3. Vomiting
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Seizures
  6. Dyspnea
  7. Poisoning
  8. Urinary Tract Obstruction
  9. Cardiovascular Shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Classification of emergency patients: Non Urgent

A
  • Patient can wait
  • Patient history & physical exam findings presented to DVM when available to see the pet
  • Thorough exam & diagnostics are recommended
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Classification of emergency patients; Urgent

A
  • Patient taken to exam room for physical examination
  • Treatment consent form is signed & CPR directive are discussed
  • Thorough exam by DVM & discussion of treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Classification of emergency patients: Emergent

A
  • Immediate medical stabilization is necessary
  • Treatment consent acquired from owner verbally & form is signed
  • CPR directive is discussed with owner
  • Initial stabilization begins while medical history is collected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Classification of emergency patients: Life Threatening

A
  • Immediate medical stabilization is necessary
  • Treatment consent acquired from owner & form is signed
  • CPR directive discussed with owner
  • Initial stabilization begins while medical history is collected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An emergency &/or critical care patients arrives at the clinic what must the technician do first?

A
  1. Obtain patient history from the owner
  2. Perform an initial assessment by observing the patient
  3. Perform physical examination & obtain vital signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 main points to remember when fielding telephone calls?

A
  1. Limit medical advice to concert steps that the client can take to address the immediate problem prior/while transporting the animal to the veterinary hospital
  2. Difficult to provide accurate medical advice without examining the patient
  3. Always offer an exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 main points to remember when interacting with clients at the vet hospital?

A
  1. Greet Client
  2. Introduce yourself & explain your role
  3. Express concern & empathy about their animal condition
  4. Open-Ended questions & practice reflective listening when collecting medical history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Triage means & purpose?

A

To Sort
Purpose is to determine the priority with which patients need to be treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True/False: Animals requiring immediate stabilization/hospitalization after initial assessment by a technician still require a thorough exam by a DVM

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What forms must an owner sign prior to medical treatment?

A
  1. Treatment consent form
  2. Estimate of charges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Upon admittance of an ER/CC patient what must be created? & what should it include?

A

A medical record & should include:
- client contact information
- signed copy of estimate
- signed copy of treatment consent form
- CPR treatment directive
- Treatment sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What may be completed by a DVM indicating initial diagnostics & treatment to be performed?

A

A treatment order
*A monitoring/treatment flow sheet will also be created/attached to the patients cage for quick reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What objective parameters should be assessed while monitoring ECC patients?

A
  1. MM Color
  2. CRT
  3. HR
  4. RR
  5. Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What subjective parameters should be assessed when monitoring ECC patients?

A
  1. Attitude
  2. Character of Respiration
  3. Heart & Lung Sounds
  4. Pulse Intensity
  5. Comfort Level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What paraments should be used to monitor ECC patients?

A
  1. Periodic Hands on physical assessment
  2. Objective & Subjective parameters
  3. ECG Monitor
  4. Pulse Oximeter
  5. Blood Pressure Monitor
  6. End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What mechanical monitoring equipment is used to monitor ECC patients?

A
  1. ECG Monitor
  2. Pulse Oximeter
  3. Blood Pressure Monitor
  4. End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cardiac arrhythmias may results from?

A
  1. Primary Cardiac Disease
  2. Trauma
  3. Shock
  4. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Electrocardiograph Monitors are used to?

A

Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pulse Oximeter are used to measure?

A

The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pulse Oximeter can be used to diagnose?

A

Hypoxemia in patients with respiratory problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitor is use to measure?

A

The concentration of carbon dioxide in a single exhaled breath (Capnography)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide Monitor is used for?

A

Monitoring ventilation in animals under anesthesia, on a ventilator, or those undergoing CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are common diagnostic tests performed on ECC patients?

A
  1. Hematocrit (PCV) & Total Plasma Protein
  2. Blood Chemistry Analyzers / Electrolyte Panels
  3. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
  4. Urine volume & Specific Gravity
  5. Urine Output
  6. Blood Gas Analysis
  7. Lactate Concentration
  8. Coagulation Test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Hematocrit (PCV) & Total Plasma Protein are used to help diagnose?
1. Dehydration 2. Anemia
26
What diagnostic tests are performed to diagnose dehydration?
PCV, TP, & Urine Specific Gravity
27
What diagnostic tests are performed to diagnose anemia?
Hematocrit (PCV) & Total Plasma Protein
28
High values of TP & PCV indicate?
Dehydration
29
Low Values of PCV & TP indicate?
Over Fluid Hydration
30
Blood chemistry analyzers / Electrolyte panels measure?
Multiple electrolytes & provide vital information to guide immediate therapy
31
Blood chemistry analyzers / Electrolyte panels abnormalities are often observed in animals experiencing?
1. Vomiting/Diarrhea 2. Diabetes Mellitus 3. Urinary Tract Disease 4. Eclampsia
32
CBC is a useful diagnostic test when treating CBC by?
Helping to identify & manage animals with anemia, thrombocytopenia, infectious or inflammatory conditions
33
Urine Specific Gravity is used to measure?
Dehydration
34
What specific gravity indicated dehydration?
Greater than 1.060
35
Normal values for urine specific gravity?
Dogs: 1.025 - 1.055 Cats: 1.035
36
Low levels of urine specific gravity indicate ?
That the kidney are not able to concentrate the urine therefore something is wrong
37
Urine volume provides information on? & is used to assess?
Renal profusion & function Used to assess hydration status during fluid administration
38
Fluid volumes in the body or those coming out of the body can be estimated using what weight scale?
1mL fluid = 1g of weight 1L fluid = 1kg of weight
39
Urine output indicates?
Decreased urine outputs indicate kidney failure which results in the lack of urine output which can lead to fluid overload
40
Blood Gas Analysis is ran with?
An ISTAT machine
41
Blood gas analysis is used to?
- Reveal acid-vase & oxygenation abnormalities in animals - Helpful in identifying & determining severity of respiratory problems & metabolic abnormalities
42
Blood gas analysis reveal what potential respiratory problems?
Pneumonia & CHF
43
Blood gas analysis is helpful in identifying what metabolic abnormalities?
- Urineary tract obstruction - Diabetic keto acidosis
44
Lactate concentration diagnostic test is used to measure?
Lactic acid levels within the body. - Lactic acid is produced when the body is not getting enough oxygen
45
increase lactic acid concentrations indicate?
Inadequate blood flow/oxygen delivery to the tissues
46
Increased lactate concentration is seen in patients with?
- Shock - GDV - Crushing Traumatic Injuries
47
Lactate concentration is a good useful in ECC patients?
It’s a good prognostic indicator * Increased lactate concentration have poor prognosis
48
Coagulation tests are used to?
Evaluate coagulation abnormalities which can develope in patients w/: - anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity - thrombocytopenia - sepsis
49
What are the different coagulation tests?
- Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time - Prothrombin Time - Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time - Activated Clotting Time - Platelet Count - Sodium Citrate / Light Blue Tube
50
What are possible causes of cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA)?
- Trauma: Hemorrhage &/or Hypovolemic - Hypoxia - Infection - Anesthetic Drug Administration - Vagal Stimulation - Hypothermia or Hyperthermia - Metabolic disorders
51
What is the purpose of CPR?
To provide the patient with adequate ventilation & circulation until spontaneous cardiopulmonary function is restored
52
What is the CPR recovery percentage?
1-3%
53
CPR has a higher success rate if?
Due to an anesthesia overdose, vagal nerve stimulation, &/or during routine surgical procedures
54
CPR must be started within?
3 minutes of the cardiac arrest
55
CPR Preparation should include?
- A team of 3-5 people is ideal - Large enough space to accommodate entire CPR team where CPR takes place - Oxygen Source - Good Lighting - Solid Surface on which to place the patient
56
What is the first thing todo prior to performing CPR?
Confirm cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA) through a list of clinical signs: - Unconsciousness - Absence of respiration - Absence of a heartbeat &/or pulse - Fixed/Dilated Pupils - Pale or Bluish Mucous Membranes
57
What are the ABC of CPR?
A: Establish Airway B: Breath for the patient / Ventilation C: Chest Compressions / Circulation D: Diagnose the cause E: Emergency Drug administration &/or defibrillation
58
How to confirm cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA) prior to beginning CPR?
- Unconsciousness - Absence of respiration - Absence of a heartbeat &/or pulse - Fixed/Dilated Pupils - Pale or Bluish mucous membranes
59
What are the three phases of CPR?
Phase 1: Basic Life Support Phase 2: Advances Life Support Phase 3: Prolonged Life Support
60
What are the 3 steps within phase 1 of CPR?
1. (A) Establish Airway - Endotracheal tube &/or Tracheostomy tube 2: (B) Breath for the patient - Endotracheal tube: Ventilate for the patient every 6 seconds - Attach to a pure oxygen source - Mouth to south breathing if ET tube is not an option 3. (C) Chest Compressions / Restore effective circulation - Perform external chest compressions at a rate of 100 - 120 beats per minute - Thorax must be compressed by 1/3 - 1/2 of its normal diameter with each compression
61
How can effectiveness of phase 1 of CPR/Basic Life Support can be assessed by observing?
- Mucous membrane color - Palpating peripheral pulse - Direct arterial pressure - End-Tidal Carbon Dioxide monitor *Should be greater than 15 mmHg with effective chest compressions
62
How to perform CPR on medium to large breed dogs?
- Position in lateral recumbency - Compress at the widest part of the thorax
63
How to perform CPR for keel chested dogs? Or dogs less than 10kgs/22lbs?
- Position in lateral recumbency - Compress at the 4th to 5th intercostal space at the costochondral junction
64
How to perform CPR for barrel chested dogs?
- Position on their back or ventral recumbency - Compress at the caudal 3rd rib portion over the sternum
65
How to perform CPR on smalls dogs & cats?
One hand compressions: - Lateral recumbency - Compress at the central aspect of the sternum between the lower 3rd & middle 3rd rib
66
How to perform two hand chest compression CPR? & why?
- Two hand compression techniques for large cats & small dogs whose chest is hard to compress - Lateral recumbency - Compress central aspect of sternum between lower 3rd & middle 3rd rib
67
What is phase 2 of CPR?
Advanced life support?
68
What are the 2 steps within phase 2 of CPR?
1. Diagnose the cause of ineffective cardiovascular (CV) function by the cue of EG monitor 2. Administer emergency drugs or defibrillation performed to establish cardiovascular function
69
Aystole heart rhythm
- No electrical activity - Treat w/ epinephrine/Vasopressin & Atropine - 22% common
70
Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) cardiac arrhythmias
- Wide, Bizarre QRS Complexes - Treat w/ epinephrine/vasopressin & Atropine
71
Ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrhythmias
- Rapid chaotic electrical activity with no identifiable waves or patterns - Treat with defibrillation - If defibrillation is not an option you can give Lidocaine IV but than defibrillation is not an option
72
Rapid chaotic electrical activity with no identifiable waves or pattern is treated with?
Defibrillation
73
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
- Rapid, wide & bizarre QRS complexes - Treat with defibrillation
74
Common emergency drugs used?
- Epinephrine / Vasopressin - Atropine - 2% Lidocaine / Amiodarone - Sodium Bicarbonate
75
Epinephrine / Vasopressin is used in ECC patients for?
- To help stimulate the heart muscle to contract - Vasoconstriction = Increase blood pressure - Helps w/ shock patients
76
Atropine is given to ECC patients to help?
- Increase heart rate - Blocks the parasympathetic nervous system
77
2% Lidocaine / Amiodarone is used in ECC patients for?
To treat heart rhythm/atrial fibrillation problems where the heart is often beating a rapid rate that commonly causes poor blood flow
78
Sodium Bicarbonate is used in ECC patients to?
used when CPR has been going on for at least 20 minutes which negatively affects the bodies PH levels and sodium bicarbonate counteracts the acidosis within the body
79
Drugs given IV can expect what time delay?
1-2 minutes delay for onset of drug effect
80
Peripheral catheters used to give drugs should be flushed with how much saline?
10-30 mL of Saline
81
Giving drugs intratracheal should be?
- Drug dose should be doubled & mixed w/ 5-10 mL of saline to increase the volume since your trying to get into the lower airway mucosa - Flush the drug through an Endotracheal tube using a red rubber catheter - Give 3-4 breaths in a row afterwards
82
What drugs are commonly given intratracheal?
- Epinephrine / Vasopressin - Atropine - Lidocaine
83
Intraosseous drug administration?
- Injecting into the bone marrow into a long bone using a catheter - Easier to do in a neonate than in mature animals - Not very common
84
What are the steps of phase 3 of CPR (Prolonged Life Support)?
- Post cardiac arrest period - There is a high risk that the animal will reearrest - Close monitoring is necessary to make sure cardiovascular, respiratory, and central nervous system function is adequate
85
What breeds are predisposed to arrhythmias?
- Doberman - Boxer - Main Coon - Persians
86
Normal Sinus Rhythm
Normal Heart Rate/Rhythm
87
Sinus Arrhythmia
Heart rate speeds up & slows down
88
Second Degree Atrioventricular Block
Lack of P wave with every WRS crave due to a blockage of the depolarization signal in the AV node
89
Ventricular Premature Contractions (VPC’s)
Ventricular depolarization signal is generated in the ventricle which doesn’t come from the sinus node
90
Ventricular Tachycardia
A series of VPC’s caused by abnormal rapid depolarization of the ventricles
91
Shock
Is a life threatening condition characterized by inadequate blood flow to body tissue which can be the end results of many disease processes
92
What are the four different shock mechanisms?
1. Hypovolemic Shock 2. Cardiogenic Shock 3. distributive Shock 4.Obstructive Shock
93
Hypovolemic shock
- due to decreased intravascular volume/fluid - Caused by hemorrhage, GI loss, Burns, Skin loss
94
Cardiogenic Shock
Due to cardiac pump failure
95
Distributive shock
Maldistribution of intravascular volume/fluid resulting in decreased blood pressure/ loss of blood volume - Septic shock, Anaphylactic shock, & Neurogenic shock
96
Obstructive shock
Due to mechanical obstruction of blood flow in the cardiovascular system
97
Clinical signs of shock?
- Obtunded (Decreased level of mentation) - Pale, Cold, Dry Mucous Membranes - Prolonged CRT - Tachycardia - Decreased pulse strength - Decrease heart sounds - Cold skin & extremities - Weakness
98
Shock treatment?
- Treat underlying cause - Provide supplemental oxygen - IV fluids - Sympathomimetic drugs (Dopamine / Dobutamine)
99
Distributive shock treatment
Epinephrine & steroids
100
Hypovolemic Shock
- Hypertonic saline administered in small doses - Crystalloid fluids - 7.5% NaCl
101
Monitoring patient in shock?
- Physical parameters: Respiration & Cardiovascular Function - Physiologic Parameters: Oxygen saturation & Blood pressure - Laboratory Parameters: PCV, TP, Electrolytes, Blood Gases, Lactate
102
Emergency treatment area should be equipped with:
- Oxygen deliver devices - IV Fluid administration supplies - Suction Apparatus - Monitoring equipment - Defibrillator - Ventilator
103
Crash Cart should include?
- Airway Access Supplies - laryngoscope, ET tube, Lube, Roll Guaze - Venous Access Supplies - Butterfly cath, IV cath, Syryines, Needles, Tape, IV drop set, Tourniquet - Emergency Drugs - Atropine, Epinephine/Vasopressin, 2% Lidocaine w/out EPI, Sodium Bicarbonate, Calcium Chloride/Gluconate, Doxapam, Mannitol - Miscellaneous Supplies - Guaze, Stethoscope, Surgery pack, Suture material, Scalpel blades, sterile gloves

VT 260 ER & CC (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions