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BIOL 1090 > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the reasons for cell division?

A
  1. Growth
  2. Replacement
  3. Healing
  4. Reproduction
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2
Q

What is the difference between mitotic cells and germ cells?

A

Mitotic cells are usually stem cells (neural stem cells, mammary stem cells, follicle hair cells etc.)

Germ cells are sex driven (sperm and egg)

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3
Q

What is the difference between Prokaryotic Cells and Eukaryotic cells.

A

Prokaryotic Cells (Bacteria/Ancient Cells):
Genome small and circular, DNA in cytoplasm, divide through binary fission

Eukaryotic cells (Humans/Zebrafish):
Genome large and liniar, DNA in nucleus, Mitosis/Meiosis

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4
Q

What is interphase comprised of?

A

G1 (growth and cellular metabolism)
S phase (synthesis/DNA Replication)
G2 (preparation for mitosis)

Cells that are not actively cycling may exit from G1 to G0

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5
Q

How many human chromosomes are their?

A

23 pairs: 46 Total Chromosomes
22 Autosomes
1 Sex Chromosome

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6
Q

How do sister chromatids occur?

A

Each parent provides a single chromosome. The DNA then replicates during S phase creating sister chromatids.

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7
Q

What occurs during prophase?

A

Cells condense, each chromosome is comprised of two sister chromatids connected at the centromere.

Centromeres then migrate to opposite ends of the cells and the mitotic spindle begins to form.

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8
Q

What occurs during prometaphase?

A

The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to the chromosomes

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9
Q

What occurs during metaphase?

A

The mitotic spindle aligns the chromosomes in the centre.

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10
Q

What occurs during Anaphase?

A

The centromeres holding the sister chromatids split, and each chromatid now considered to be a full fledged , travel to opposite sides.

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11
Q

What occurs during telophase?

A

The cells condense and a nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromsomes. In animal cells a contractile ring forms and completes the process of mitotic cell division.

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12
Q

What occurs during mitosis in regards the amount and type of DNA?

A

The amount of DNA doubles but the type of DNA does not double.

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13
Q

What is a ploidy level?

A

The number of complete sets of chromosomes

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14
Q

What is a haploid?

A

A cell with one complete set of chromsomes (this would be 23 chromosomes). An example of a haploid would be a sperm cell or an egg.

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15
Q

What is a diploid?

A

A cell with 23 pairs of chromosomes. One from the mother and one from the father. (Skin Cell)

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16
Q

How many times can meiosis occur in a cells life?

A

It can only occur once, it is a terminal event.

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17
Q

Do all cells go through interphase?

A

Yes all cells complete G1, S, and G2. It is only after interphase that a cell chooses to undergo either meiosis or mitosis.

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18
Q

Things to remember about meiosis

A
  1. The first division randomly separates homologus chromosomes (this does not happen in mitosis)
  2. The second division results in the splitting of sister chromatids, similar to mitosis
  3. The end is 4 genetically unique daughter cells, unlike mitosis
  4. Each genetically unique daughter cell is a haploid.
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19
Q

What are the differences between mitosis and meiosis?

A

Mitosis:
- Occurs in the bodies stem cells
- Results in two diploid daughter cells
- Each daughter cell is genetically identical
- Can continue in perpetuity

Meiosis:
- Occurs in germ (sex) cells
- Results in four haploid daughter cells
- Each daughter contains half the number of chromosomes as the parent
- Each daughter cell is genetically unique.

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20
Q

In Meiosis I: What occurs during prophase I?

A

Chromosomes condense and centrosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

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21
Q

In Meiosis I: What occurs during metaphase I?

A

The meiotic spindle aligns homologous chromosome pairs in the centre of the cell

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22
Q

In Meiosis I: What occurs during Anaphase I?

A

The homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite ends of the cell. However, the two sister chromatids that make up each chromosome do not separate

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23
Q

In Meiosis I: What occurs during Telophase I?

A

Chromosomes begin to decondense and the nuclear envelope may start to reform during telophase. Followed by cytokenisis to seperate them.

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24
Q

What occurs during Meiosis II?

A

Meiosis II follows a very similar process to mitosis.

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25
Where do the spindle fibers attach for both meiosis and mitosis?
Mitosis: the spindle fibers attach to the kinetochores that oppose each other. Meiosis: The kinetochores orient side by side (pulling parents away from each other)
26
Differences between Meiosis and Mitosis?
27
Why is the regulation of the cell cycle important?
1. Cell division cannot occur all the time because uncontrolled division is dangerous and can lead to cancer. 2. Progression through the cell cycle is controlled by proteins that appear and disappear in a cyclical fashion, and by enzymes that become active and inactive 3. The proteins that appear and disappear cyclically are called cyclins. 4. The enzymes that activated/inactivated are called CDK's (cyclkin-dependent kinases)
28
What is a kinase and cyclin?
Kinase is an enzyme that is thought of as similar to the car (regulated by modification or co-regulators). They are always present at the cell cycle and needs to be turned on by the Cyclin (driver) that activates the complex (regulated by presence or absence). After a cyclin performs its function, a new one is needed.
29
What is the target of kinase and cyclin?
Protein that performs a function.
30
What are the different forms of cyclin-CDK complexes?
1. M cyclin-CDK helps prepare the cell for mitosis 2. S cyclin -CDK helps initiate DNA synthesis 3. G1/S cyclin -CDK complex prepares cell for DNA replication.
31
What are three significant cell cycle checkpoints?
1. DNA damage checkpoint: checks for damages DNA before the cell enters S phase. (prior to DNA synthesis) 2. DNA replication checkpoint: Checks for the presence of unreplicated DNA at the end of G2 before the cell enters mitosis 3. Spindle assembly checkpoint: Checks for all chromosomes being attached to the spindle before the cell progresses with mitosis.
32
What are CDK inhibitors?
They are co-regulators that prevent the CDK from interacting with the protein.
33
What are the three significant cell forms of cancer?
1. Oncogene: Cancer-causing gene when inappropriately turned on 2. Proto-oncogene: Normal genes important in cell division that have the potential to become cancerous if muted. (Cyclin and CDK) 3. Tumor Suppressors: Genes that encode proteins whose normal activities inhibit cell dibision.
34
What is P53?
A common tumor suppressor
35
How does multiple mutation occur in cancer?
A normal cell has to have an inactiviation for a tumor suppressor. For a benign cancer - activation of an oncogene needs to occur. For a malignant cancer - inactivation of second tumor suppressor gene needs to occur.
36
What were Mendel's pea's?
Mendel worked with highly in-bred peas to remove heterozygotes to study the effect of one trait at a time.
37
What is a gene?
An inherited factor (encoded in the DNA) that helps determine a characteristic. (Gene for seed colour)
38
What is an allele?
One of two or more alternative forms of a gene. (Rabbits hair colour: White allele, grey allele)
39
What is a locus?
Specific place on a chromosome occupied by an allele
40
What is a genotype?
A set of alleles possessed by an individual organism
41
What is the differency between a heterozygote and a homozygote
Heterozygoe is an indiviudal possessing two difference alleles at a locus while a homozygote possess only a single allele at a locus
42
What is a phenotype?
The manifestation of a characteristic
43
What is a genotype?
The allelic combination
44
What does "pure bred" or "true bred" mean?
That the allele is homozygous.
45
What is mendels first law?
Segregation: Each individual organism possesses two alleles encoding a trait. This occurs during Anaphase I
46
What is Mendel's second law?
Independent Assortment: Alleles at different loci separate independently.
47
When finding the probability of something occuring, what does "and" mean in regrads to rules?
"and" is a multiplicative word meaning you should multiple.
48
What is the additive rule of probability?
If the events A and B are independent and do not overlap, the probability that at least one of them occurs is the sum of their individual probabilities. SO the probability of Round (RR or Rr) added - 3/4
49
What is the additive rule if the events are independent?
The probability that at least one of them occurs is the sume of their individual probabilities: P(A) + P(B)
50
What is a carrier?
Someone who is heteroygous and carries the allele but does not posses the trait. (recessive)
51
What are autosomes?
The 22 pairs of chromosomes with the exception of the sex chromosome (male or female)
52
What are the signifiant points regrading autosomal recessive traits?
1. Usually appear equally in males and females 2. Tend to skip generations (affected offspring usually born to unaffected parents) 3. When both parents are heterozygous, 1/4th of the offspring will be affected 4. More likely to see in the progeny of related parents (first cousins having babies) - Consaguinity
53
What are the significant points regrading autosomal dominant traits?
1. Usually appear equally in males and females 2. Both sexes transmit the trait to their offspring 3. Does not skip a generation 4. Affected offspring must have an affected parent unless they have a new mutation. 5. When one parent is affected and the other is not, there is a 50% chance of the child being affected. 6. Unaffected people will not pass on the trait
54
When it comes to sex chromosomes, do we care about dominant or recessive genes?
Recessive
55
What is a common finding of recessive sex chromsomes?
We find that feWmales are carriers and males are usually the ones affected.
56
What are common findings for x-linked recessive traits?
1. Usually more males then femeales affected 2. Affected sons are usually born to unaffected mothers; thus, the trait skips a generation 3. Approximatley half of a carrier (heterozygous) mother's sons are affected 4. Never passed from father to sone 5. All daughters to affected fathers are carriers.
57
Why are x-linked expressive alleles always shown in men?
Because men only have one x chromsome.
58
What is the most common allele known as?
The wild type, it id usually designated with a superscript (ex: A^+ or c^+
59
What is a mutant?
An allele that is not the wild type. Any allele that is found over 1% in the population is considered to be a polymorphism or a variant.
60
What is a misense mutation?
When you place one amino acid for another amino acid
61
What is a nonsense mutatin?
When the amino acid sequence is trunkated and stoped.
62
What is a frameshift mutation?
A change in the aminoacid sequence.
63
What is a recessive mutations impact on protein function?
Recessive mutations almost always involve a mutation in a gene that results in loss of some protein function.
64
What are the two different forms of mutation?
1. Null Allele: Complete Loss of function 2. Hypomorphic allele: Partial loss of function.
65
What are the different types of dominance?
1. Complete dominance: Red or white flower 2. Incomplete dominance: Pink Flower 3. Co-Dominance: Red and white spotty flower
66
What is penetrance?
The percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that express the expected phenotype
67
What is expressivity?
The degree to which a character is expressed. Phenotype is present, just vaies in between individuals
68
Are alleles influenced by environmental effects?
Yes, temperature sensitive alleles impact the the phenotype of an organism.
69
What are the three components of DNA?
1. Phosphate 2. Sugar (Ribose of RNA and Deoxyribose for DNA) 3. Base
70
What are the four bases in DNA?
A, G, C, T (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine)
71
What are the four bases in RNA?
A, G, C, U's (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil)
72
What is the difference between Purine and Pryrimidine?
Purines consist of A's and G's Pryimidines consist of C's, T's, and U's
73
What is the difference between nucleotides and nucleosides?
Nucleotides = Phosphate attached Nucleosides = no phosphate attached
74
How do you differentiate the 5" end from the 3" end?
The 5" end will always have a phosphate attached to it while the 3" will have a hydroxl group.
75
What are some of the common differences between DNA and RNA?
76
How long is one complete turn of DNA
3.4nm (one base block is 0.34 nm and is 10 bases)
77
What are the different structures of tRNA rRNA
1. Stem 2. Hairpin 3. Complex Secondary Structure
78
What is the difference between somatic mutations and germ-line mutations?
Somatic mutations occur in nonreproductive cells Germ-line mutations occur in cells that give rise to gametes.
79
What are the the three types of gene mutations?
1. Base substitutions 2. Insertions and deletions 3. Expanding nucleotide repeats
80
What are the different forms of a substitution mutation?
Transitions: Example: going from a Purine to a Purine (A -> G or G -> A) Transversion: Example: Going from a Purine to a Pyrimidine (A -> C, A -> T, G -> C, G -> T)
81
What occurs during the mutation of a base substitution?
Base Substitution: Alters a single codon
82
What occurs during the mutation of a base deletion?
Insertions and deletions are quite bad because they change the amino system downstream
83
What are the different phenotypic effects of mutations?
1. Forward Mutation: Wild type -> Mutant type 2. Reverse Mutation: Mutant type -> wild type 3. Missense Mutation: Amino acid -> different amino acid 4. Nonsense mutation: sense codon -> nonsense codon 5. Silent Mutation: Codon -> synonymous codon 6. Neutral Mutation: no change in function
84
What is the process from going to DNA to protein?
First you have to go from DNA to RNA through the process of transcription Then you go from RNA to protein through the process of translation
85
In which direction is RNA transcrbied?
From the 5" to 3" end. So it will go "5 - 3" 5" - 3"
86
What is the promoter of a gene transcription unit?
It is the handle for the RNA polymerase
87
What is the terminator sequence?
A sequence of nucleotides that signals where the transcription is to end. It is incorporated into the DNA.
88
How can you tell what is upstream versus down stream in regards to the DNA transcription site?
Upstream or downstream is relative to the point of reference. For example, the coding sequence is downstream of the promoter but upstream of the termination site.
89
What is RNA complimentary to?
The template strand.
90
What is the LacZ gene?
It is a gene that allows the bacteria to use lactose as a carbon source.
91
What is an operator?
Something that has other elements combining to it that allows or prohibits the polymerase from moving down the RNA molecule.
92
What are the main points regarding regulation?
1. The promoter/operator combo regulates transcription. Sometimes it needs to be turned on and sometimes off if there is n
93
What is the difference between negative regulatory proteins and positive regulatory proteins?
Negative regulatory proteins inhibit transcription Positive regulatory proteins activate transcription
94
What is an inducible operon?
When a transcription of the operon is normally off and something happens that turns it on
95
What is a repressible operon?
Ones that are normally on, and something happens that it needs to be turned off
96
What is a negative inducible operon?
Think of this as a double negative. The negative inducible operon inhibits the inhibitor. In the normal state you have active repression. In the activated state you have an inactive repressor.
97
What is the Lac Operon?
A negative inducible: The regulator is an inhibitor and the allocates is the ligand that inactivates the inhibitor.
98
What is the difference between eukayotes and prokaryotes in regrades to mRNA??
Eukaryotes are monocistronic mRNA meaning that they code for a single gene. Prokaryotes are polycistronic mRNA
99
What are the different properties of genetic code?
1. There are no spaces between codons 2. The genetic code is non-overlapping 3. The genetic code is degenerate 4. Genetic code is universal
100
What are the three sections of a ribosome?
1. (E): Exit site 2. (P): Peptidyl site 3. (A): Aminoacylt
101
What are the three steps in translation?
1. Initiation: The inx6itiaor AUG codon is recognized, and Met is always established as the first amino acid in the new polypeptide chain. 2. Elongation: Succesive amino acids are added one by one to the growing chain 3. Termination: A stop codon is recognized by releasing factor that mimics a tRNA resulting in the completed polpypetide chain being released from the ribosome.
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BIOL 1090 (6 decks)

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