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BI330 > Midterm theory > Flashcards

Midterm theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of microscopes

A

Stereo microscope, Compound and Electron microscope

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2
Q

What are the three basic dimensions of light

A

Intensity Frequency and Polarization

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3
Q

What is numerical aperture

A

Estimate on how much light from the sample is collected from the objective

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4
Q

Magnification is defined by the ____ x _____

A

objective x eyepiece magnification

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5
Q

What are the six contrasting techniques

A

Brightfield, Darkfield, Phase Contrast, Polarization Contrast, Differential Interference Contrast and Fluoresence

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6
Q

In darkfield, only light that is ______ by structures in the sample enters the projective

A

scattered

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7
Q

What is brightfield microscopy

A

light transmitted only useful for specimens that have been dyed, low contrast

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8
Q

What is darkfield microscopy

A

ryas of light directed to the side so light is scattered

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9
Q

What is phase contrast microscopy

A

incident light out of phase with transmitted light, greater contrast image is seen

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10
Q

What is polarization contrast

A

Uses polarized light for illumination, light against black background

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11
Q

What is DIC

A

Differential Interference Contrast- synchronizing phase and polarization to make more contrast

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12
Q

What is used for a precursor for LM histology

A

formaldehyde

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13
Q

what has a faster turnover time; cryosectioning or standard sectioning

A

cryosectioning

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14
Q

What is the difference between TEM and SEM

A

TEM is 2D SEM 3D

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15
Q

Tissues that stain with a basic stain= ___________

A

basophilic

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16
Q

Tissues taht stain with an acidic stain = _________

A

acidophilic

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17
Q

Methyl green stains what colour

A

Green

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18
Q

Pyronin G stains what colour

A

Red

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19
Q

Hematoxylin stains what colour

A

Blue

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20
Q

What does H+E stand for

A

Hematoxylin (basic) and Eosin (acidic)

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21
Q

What does PAS stand for

A

Periodic Acid-Schiff reaction

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22
Q

What is an example of a metachromatic stain

A

Toluidine Blue

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23
Q

What does the stain PT stand for

A

Pararosaniline-Toluidine Blue

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24
Q

What stain is used for blood

A

Wright-Gimsa Stain

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25
Q

How does Wright-Giemsa stain blood

A

Azure blue stains WBC, eosin for RBC, Methylene blue stainsnuclei

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26
Q

What are the three stains to stain lipids

A

Sudan Black, Sudan IV, Congo Red

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27
Q

What are two types of Fluorescent stains

A

Acridine orange and DAPI

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28
Q

what is microscopic autoradiography

A

reveals location of newly synthesized glycoporteins containing fructose

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29
Q

What is in situ hybridization

A

localizes the cells expressing a gene or transcript of interest

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30
Q

What is direct immunocytochemistry

A

uses an antibody made against the tissue protein of interest and tagged directly with alabel like a fluorescent compound. Antibodies bind specifically to the antigen

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31
Q

What is indirect immunocytochemistry

A

Uses a primary antibody made against the protein of interest and tehn a secondary antibody is obtained to specifically bind to the primary antibody, protein is amplified this way

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32
Q

T or F: multiple flurophores can be viewed in the same section

A

T

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33
Q

What are some benefits of confocal microscopy

A

Reduced blurring, increased resolution, clear examination of thick speicimens

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34
Q

What are the major lipid components of the plasma membrane

A

phospholipids and cholesterol

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35
Q

outer layer of the plasma membrane contains ______

A

glycolipids

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36
Q

What is the glycocalyx

A

provides important antigenic and functional properties to the cell surface

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37
Q

What are the three methods of molecule transportation through the cell membrane

A

Simple diffusion, channel and carrier/transporter

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38
Q

Ligands bind at a ____ affinity to specific surface receptors

A

high

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39
Q

Clatharin facillitates ______ of the coated pits

A

invagination

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40
Q

What are the three fates of ligands

A
  • carried to endosomes and then lysosomes for degredation
  • released internally and recycled to hte cell surface
  • maybe move to fuse with another cell surface where ligands released again outside teh cell
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41
Q

What is the role of the RER

A

site for synthesis of most emembrane bound proteins

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42
Q

What is the role of SER

A

lipid biosynthesis, detoxification of potentially harmful compounds, steriod synthesis and dequestration of Ca2+ ions

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43
Q

What is the role of ribosomes

A

synthesize cytosolic and cytoskeletal proteins and proteins ofr import into hte nucleus, mitochondria and peroxisomes

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44
Q

Misfolded proteins are congugated to ____ and targeted for proteosomal degredation

A

ubiquitin

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45
Q

Characteristics of Erythroblast

A

cells that amke foew or no proteins for secretion, gery little RER

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46
Q

what is eosinophillic leukocyte

A

cells that syntehsize, segregate and sore various proteins in specific secretory granules. Have RER, Golgi and granules

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47
Q

What is a plasma cell

A

cells with extensive RER and well developed Golgi, show few secretory granules because cell undergo exocytosis immediately after golgi is complete

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48
Q

what is a pancreatic acinar cell

A

epithelial cells specialized for secretion and have distinct polarity, RER abundant

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49
Q

T or F: SER contains ribosomes

A

F

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50
Q

What are some characteristics of the Golgi

A

complex system of vesicles and cisternae in which proteins made in the RER undergo further modification and sorting into specific vesicles destined for different roles in the cell

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51
Q

iWhat is the role of secretory granules

A

form as the contents of the golgi, vacuoles become more condensed

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52
Q

What are some funcitons of lysosomes

A

Synthesis in the RER, packaging in the golgi,
Phagocytic vacuoles fuse with primary lysosomes to become secondary vesicles
-function as sites of intracellular digestion

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53
Q

What is the best stain to view lysosomes

A

Toluidine Blue

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54
Q

What is autophagy

A

process in which the cell uses lysosomes to dispose of excess or nonfunctioning organelles and membranes

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55
Q

What is a peroxisome

A

small spherical organelle involved in fatty acid metabolism and xenobiotic metabolysm, Utilize O2 to remove hydrogen from fatty acids but do not produce ATP

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56
Q

What are actin microfilaments

A

form a dynamic network important for cell shape changes

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57
Q

what are microtubules

A

stabilize cell shape, form the tracks for kinesin based transport of vesicles and organelles

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58
Q

What are intermediate filaments

A

provide mechanical stenght and stability

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59
Q

What is the centrosome

A

microtubule organizing cneter for hte mitotic spindle

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60
Q

Each centriole consists of __ microtubular triplets

A

9

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61
Q

Silver staining is effective for the organelle ____

A

Golgi

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62
Q

The ultrastructure of a nucleus contains the __________, _________ and the ________

A

heterochromatin, euchromatin and nucleolous

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63
Q

Barr bodies determine what?

A

Sex

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64
Q

Role of nuclear pore complexes

A

regulate the bidirectional transfer of macromolecular complexes between the nucleus and cytoplasm

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65
Q

What is the nuclear lamina

A

meshwork assembled from lamins

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66
Q

what does FISH stand for

A

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization

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67
Q

What are proto-oncogenes

A

involved in cell proliferation and differentiation

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68
Q

Oncogenes result in:

A

uncontrolled cell division, tumor and hematologic cancers

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69
Q

What is apoptosis

A

programmed cell death, cell suicide (me)

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70
Q

What is tissue

A

any distinct material in which animals are amde, consisting of specailized cells and their products

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71
Q

What is epithelial tissue

A

a cell layer with a tree surface, lining a cavity or some body surface

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72
Q

what are the functional properties of epithelial tissue

A

secretion, selective absorption, protection, cellular transport and sensing

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73
Q

T or F: basement membranes are semi-permeable

A

T

74
Q

What is the basal lamina

A

anchors the epitherlial cell by intergrins, ccontains Laminin and type 4 collagen

75
Q

What is the reticular lamina

A

Type III collagen, contains reticular fibers

76
Q

What are tight junction

A

adhesion of cells, barrier and ion transporter between cells

77
Q

What are gap junctions

A

signal communication between cells, can be electrical

78
Q

what are some characteristics of microvilli

A

surface specialization, typically at apical membrane. Increase surface area and form bursh border, function is for absorption

79
Q

what are some characteristics of stereocilia

A

Long microvilli, core of actin filaments. increases absorption capacity and surface area

80
Q

What are some characteristics of cilia

A

motile, 9+2 microtubule configuration, for movement and mixing

81
Q

capillaries contain what type of epithelium

A

simple squamous

82
Q

cuboidal epithelium are rich in ________

A

mitochondria

83
Q

Simple columnar contain _____ on surface for absorption

A

stereocilia

84
Q

T or F: stratified epithelium is vascularized

A

F

85
Q

What is a characteristic of transitional epithelium

A

can withstand hypertonic effects of urine

86
Q

What are goblet cells

A

unicellular glands that secrete mucous into the lumen`

87
Q

What is a gland?

A

organ composed of epithelium that synthesizes and seretes specific products

88
Q

what does the pancreas secrete

A

protein

89
Q

what do adrenal glads secrete

A

lipids

90
Q

What do sweat glands secrete

A

ions and water

91
Q

what are the two types of glands

A

exocrine and endocrine

92
Q

what do exocrine glands secrete

A

hormones

93
Q

what do endocrine glands secret

A

substances to organs

94
Q

Endocrine glands are _____ in origin

A

epithelial

95
Q

Endocrine glands secrete into the blood stream either directly or through ____ ____

A

interstitial space

96
Q

What are pancreatic islets

A

clumped masses of pale-staining endocrine cells embedded in the exocrine acinar tissue of the pancreas

97
Q

What is a meocrine secretion

A

releases product via exocytosis at the apical end of the cells

98
Q

What is holocrine secretion

A

produced by the disintegration of secretory cells as they fill with product

99
Q

what is apocrine secretion

A

involves loss of membrane enclosed apical cytoplasm containing one or more lipid droplets

100
Q

Characteristics of mucous cells

A

typically larger the serous cells with flattened basal nuclei, cells of salivary glands

101
Q

what is a difference between serous cells and mucous cells

A

mucous cells dont stain as dark

102
Q

What are the functions of connective tissue

A

transport, mechanical support, blood cell synthesis, energy storage

103
Q

Connective tissue is composed of ______

A

fibroblasts

104
Q

what is mesenchyme

A

population of undifferentiated cells

105
Q

what are fibroblast

A

large active nuclei and eosinophillic cyotplasm that tapers off in both directions along axis of the nucleus often spindle shaped

106
Q

What is the difference between inactive and active fibroblasts

A

active fibroblasts have large eurochromatic nuclei and basophilic cytoplasm, while inactive are smaller with more heterochromatic nuclei

107
Q

describe a macrophage

A

have a prominent nucleus and nucleolous and numerous secondary lysosomes

108
Q

what are mast cells

A

rol in inflammation, contain histadine, infiltrate and take residency in CT

109
Q

Mast cell secretion is triggered by what

A

triggered by reexposure to certain antigens and allergens

110
Q

what are plasma cells

A

antibody secreting, large, ovoid and basophillic, large golgi

111
Q

What are the three fibre types

A

Collagen, reticular fibers and elastic fibers

112
Q

what are some characteristics of collagen

A

30% of protein in body, forms sheets and networks, resistent to tearing, extremely strong, key element in CT

113
Q

What are some characteristics of reticular fibers

A

delicate CT, form networks

114
Q

What are some characteristics of type I collagen

A

most abundant, form extremely strong fibrils, budle together to forn collagen fibers

115
Q

What are some characteristics of reticular fibers

A

contain type III collagen, supports stroma, lattice network

116
Q

what are some characteristics of elastic fibers

A

H+E staining not useful, have multiple random coil domains that strenghten or stretch under force and then relax
-cyclic structure, desmosine

117
Q

what are the three classes of the ECM ground substance

A

Glycoaminoglycans (GAG), Proteoglycans and Multiadhesive glycoproteins

118
Q

what are glycoprotins

A

globular proteins with branced oligiosaccharide side chains, more polypeptides that polysaccharides

119
Q

what are proteoglycans

A

contain core protein with one or more side chains of sulfated GAGs as well as branched oligosachharides, more carbohydrates than glycoproteins

120
Q

Laminin and Fibronectin roles

A

important role in cell migration and maintaining cell structure, ban be localized by IHC

121
Q

What are the proper connective tissue types

A

Loose, Dense regular, dense irregular, reticular, cartilage and bone

122
Q

What is dense regular connective tissue

A

long, parallel bundles of collagen fibers fill spaces between elongated nuclei of fibrocytes

123
Q

what is loose connective tissue

A

contains faintly stained ground substance with fine fubers of collagen and frequently forms a thin layer near epithelia

124
Q

What is dense irregular tissue

A

forms thicker layer and is invariably much richer in larger bundles of collagen, forms protective many organs

125
Q

what is mucoid tissue

A

very loose ECM containing mainly ground substances, represents embryonic mesochyme and rarely found in human organs

126
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

loose connective tissue, composed of apidocytes

127
Q

what is the function of adipose

A

stores energy in the form of fat, cushions and insulates the body

128
Q

What is white adipose

A

umilocular, seen in connective itssue assocaited with small blood vessels, commonly seen in many human organs, energy storage

129
Q

How are lipids stored and mobilized

A

triglycerides transported by blood by chylomicrons and VLDLs, borken down by lipase, releasing fatty acids and glycerol. diffuse from the capillary into apidocyte, cAMP activates lipase to free fatty acids and glycerol

130
Q

how are white and brown fat cells formed

A

mesenchymal cells differentiate intially as preadipocytes and further as apidocytes as they accumulate fat and give rise to mature fat cells

131
Q

what is brown adipose tissue

A

multilocular, slightly smaller than white fat, contain many small lipid droplets and central spherical nuclei, thermogenesis

132
Q

What is cartilage?

A

smooth and elsatic collagen and elastic fibers

133
Q

what is the function of cartilage

A

to connect and fuse bones together, protects bones and joints

134
Q

what are the three types of cartilage in adults

A

hyaline, fibrocartilage and elastic

135
Q

describe the structure of collagen

A

link proteins non-covalently binding proteoglycans in order to bind collagen fibers. 75% of wet weight in cartilage is in water

136
Q

what is hyaline cartilage

A

translucent bluish-white type of cartilage present in the joints, respiratory tract and immature skeleton

137
Q

what is elastic cartilage

A

provide greater flexibility, collagen type II, contains elastin, in outer ear, epiglottis.

138
Q

What is Fibrocartilage

A

varies in different organs, esentailly a mixture or hyaline and dense connective tissue

139
Q

What is Chondrogenesis

A

the major stages by which embryonic cartilage is formed

140
Q

what are teh steps in chondrogenesis

A

Mesenchyme- precursor for all types
Chondroblasts-mitosis produces rounded cells
extensive ECM- chondroblasrts separate
Isogenous cell aggregates-manipulation of chondroblasts

141
Q

The more mature the cartilage, the more separated the __________, and the more prominent ______

A

chondrocytes, golgi

142
Q

what is the function of bone

A

support, produce (RBC+WBC), structure, storage, endocrine regulation

143
Q

what are the cell types of bone

A

osteoblasts,clasts,cytes and osteogenic cells

144
Q

What are osteoblasts

A

secrete the matrix that then hardens by calcification, trapping differentiated cells and osteocytes in individual lacunae

145
Q

what are osteocytes

A

maintain the calcified matrix and recieve nutrients from microvasculatune in the central canals via canaliculi

146
Q

what are osteoclasts

A

monocyte-derived cells in bone required for bone remodelling

147
Q

what does the periosteum consist of

A

dense connective tissue, with a primarily fibrous layer covering a more cellular layer

148
Q

What is teh endosteum

A

covers all trabeculae around marrow cavities

149
Q

How does mineralization in the bone matrix occur

A

osteoblasts secrete type I collagen, ECM binds Ca with high affinity, PO4 ions hydrolyzed from other macromolecules, therefore crystals grow

150
Q

what is lamellar bone

A

contains parallel alignment of collagen sheets, contains osteons

151
Q

what is an osteon

A

constitutes most of the compact bone, surround central canal

152
Q

Steps to remodelling compact bone

A

osteoclasts act as a cutting cone tunneling bone matrix
osteoblasts enter newly forned tunnel and lines its walls
osteblasts secretes osteoid producing layers of new matrix

153
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

osteoblasts differentiate from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid, forms woven bone that will be replaced with lamellar bone

154
Q

what are the four steps of intramembranous ossification

A

1-ossification center form ins fiborus connective tissue membrane
2- bone matrix is secreted within membrane
3-woven bone and periosteum form
4-bone collar of compact bone forms and red marrow appears.

155
Q

what are the six steps of endrochondral ossification

A

1-fetal hyaline cartilage model develops
2-cartilage calcifies
3-primary ossification center forms in diaphysis
4-secondary ossification centers from in epiphyses
5-bone replaces cartilage
6-epiphyseal plates ossify and form epiphyseal plates

156
Q

what is the epiphyseal growth plate

A

the large and growing primary ossification center in long bone diaphyses and the secondary ossification centers are separated in each developing plate

157
Q

what are the five specialized zones in bone

A

zone of resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertonic cartilage, calcified cartilage and ossification

158
Q

what are the main features of bone fracture repair

A

1-blood vessels torn clot and produce a hematoma
2-removed by macrophages and replaced by collages fibroblasts
3-invaded by regrowing blood vessels and osteoblasts
4-remodeled by compact and cancellous bone

159
Q

what is diarthroses

A

synovial joint-joints that allow free movement of attached bones (e.g. knuckles)

160
Q

what is articular cartilage

A

smooth, white tissue that covers the ends of bones when they come together to form joints

161
Q

what is the difference between intramembranous bone and endochrondral

A

intramembranous-flat bone

endochonral-long bone

162
Q

osteoclasts ______ bone (break down or rebuild)

A

break down

163
Q

osteoblasts ______ bone (break down or rebuild)

A

rebuild

164
Q

What is the role of periosteum and endosteum

A

surround bone, nourishment and growth

165
Q

what is woven bone

A

immature bone, developing or growing bone

166
Q

what is lemellar bone

A

remodeled from woven bone

167
Q

what is compact bone

A

cortical bone with densely packed osteons

168
Q

what is cancellous bone

A

spongy bone

169
Q

what does the bone matrix consist of

A

calcium hydroxyapatite, type I collagen, proteoglycan and osteonectin

170
Q

what does whole blood contain

A

36-53% erythrocytes (hematocrit), small buffy coat with leukocytes and patelets, the rest containing plasma

171
Q

How is a blood smear prepare

A

Geisma and Wright stains used, mixture of eosin and metylene blue, azures stain lysosomes of leukocytes by metachromasia

172
Q

human erythrocytes have a _______shape

A

bioconcave

173
Q

what are neutrophils

A

multilobulated muclei, shape can change quickly, kill bacteria phagosomally

174
Q

what are eosinophils

A

same size as neurophils, biolobed nuclei, more abundant cytoplasmic granules, inflammation

175
Q

what are basophils

A

same size as eosinophils and neutrophils, have large basophilic specific granules, rare

176
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

agranulocytes and lack specific granules, characteristic of granulocytes, immune cells

177
Q

what are monocytes

A

large agranulocytes, precursors to macrophages

178
Q

where are platelets derived from

A

megakaryocytes of bone marrow

179
Q

what is the function of platelets

A

to rapidly release the content of their granules in contact with collagen and reduce blood loss from the vasculatrure

180
Q

minor trauma to macrovasculator is a regular occurance and results in a _____ _____

A

fibrin clot

BI330 (2 decks)

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