MIDTERMS Flashcards

(137 cards)

1
Q

it is a term that describes CR angles or relationships between both parts often are related to imaginary planes that pass through the body in the anatomic position

A

body planes

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2
Q

is any longitudinal plane that divides the body into right and left portion

A

sagittal plane

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3
Q

is the plane which divides the body into equal right and left halves

A

medial plane

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4
Q

is any longitudinal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior

it is vertical plane at right angle to median plane

A

coronal plane

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5
Q

also known as frontal plane

A

coronal plane

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6
Q

also known as midsagittal

A

median plane

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7
Q

it divides the body into approximately equal anterior and posterior portion

A

mid coronal plane

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8
Q

is any transverse plane that passes through the body at right angles to a longitudinal plane dividing the body into superior and inferior portion

it is perpendicular to both frontal and median plane

A

horizontal plane

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9
Q

is any plane that can pass through a body part at any angle between three planes

A

oblique plane

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10
Q

is any plane that transects the pelvis at the top of iliac crests

A

inter iliac plane

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11
Q

a plane that is formed by the biting surfaces of the upper and lower teeth with the jaws closed

A

occlusal plane

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12
Q

it is the reference position that defines specific surfaces and planes of the body

it describes the body in erect feet together straight ahead, arms slightly abducted with palms facing forward

A

anatomic position

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13
Q

medial vs _______

A

lateral

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14
Q

superior vs _______

A

inferior

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15
Q

anterior vs _______

A

posterior

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16
Q

proximal vs _______

A

distal

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17
Q

superficial vs _______

A

deep

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18
Q

unilateral vs _______

A

bilateral

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19
Q

ipsilateral vs _______

A

contralateral

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20
Q

at four quadrants, which are created by an intersection horizontal plane also called the ______________ plane and a median plane

A

transumbilical plane

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21
Q

the _______ is the landmark you will use to visualize these quadrants while doing assessments

this is the point at which the two plane cross

A

navel or belly button

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22
Q

give the organs in LUQ

A

liver
pancreas
stomach
spleen
left kidney
left adrenal gland

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23
Q

give the organs in RUQ

A

liver
stomach
right kidney
right adrenal gland
gallbladder
duodenum
pancreas

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24
Q

give the organs in LLQ

A

left ureter
reproductive organs

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25
give the organs in RLQ
appendix right ureter reproductive organs
26
all four quadrant contain portions of _____ and ______ _______
small and large intestines
27
nine abdominal regions divide the body into even smaller sections by using two __________ planes that run down the middle of the ________ and two horizontal planes
nine abdominal regions divide the body into even smaller sections by using two PARASAGGITAL planes that run down the middle of the CLAVICLE and two horizontal planes
28
the superior transverse plane is called the ___________ plane and it is located just below the ribs
subcostal plane
29
the _____________ plane is the inferior transverse plane and it intersects the tubercles of pelvis, running just inferior to navel
intertubercular plane
30
give the organs in right hypochondriac region
liver right kidney gallbladder large and small intestine
31
give the organs in epigastric region
liver stomach spleen duodenum pancreas adrenal glands
32
give the organs in left hypochondriac region
liver's tip stomach pancreas left kidney spleen large and small intestine
33
give the organs in right lumbar region
ascending colon small intestine right kidney
34
give the organs in umbilical region
duodenum small intestine transverse colon
35
give the organs in left lumbar region
descending colon small intestine left kidney
36
give the organs in right iliac region
appendix cecum ascending colon small intestine
37
give the organs in hypogastric region
bladder sigmoid colon small intestine reproductive organs
38
give the organs in left iliac region
sigmoid colon descending colon small intestine
39
hypo means _____
below or under
40
chondriac means _____
cartilage, which is referring to cartilage of ribs
41
lumbar means _____
vertebrae in your lower back, which are the bones nearest to lumbar
42
the top of the hip bone has what is called the ________
iliac crest
43
epi means _____
above or over
44
gastric means _____
stomach or belly
45
________ is the landmark for the four quadrant point of intersection
navel
46
c1
mastoid tip
47
c2, c3
gonion (angle of mandible)
48
c3, c4
hyoid bone
49
c5
thyroid cartilage
50
c7, t1
vertebral prominens
51
t1
approx 2" or 5cm above level of jugular notch
52
t2, t3
level of jugular notch
53
t4, t5
level of sternal angle
54
t7
level of inferior angle of scapula
55
t9, t10
level of xiphoid tip
56
l2, l3
costal margin, last rib
57
l3, l4
umbilicus
58
l4
most superior aspect of iliac crest
59
s1, s2
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
60
coccyx
symphysis pubis (greater trochanter)
61
it is the common variations in shape of human body it determines size, shape and position of thoracic and abdominal cavities
body habitus
62
heart: moderately transverse lungs: moderate length diaphgram: moderately high colon: spread evenly GB: centered on right side upper abdomen built: moderately heavy abdomen: moderately long thorax: moderately short, broad and deep pelvis: relatively small 50%
sthenic
63
this body habitus has the organs and characteristics for this are intermediate between sthenic and asthenic types this is the most difficult to classify 35%
hyposthenic
64
heart: axis nearly transverse lungs: short, apices at near clavicles diaphragm: high stomach: high colon: around periphery at abdomen GB: high 5%
hypersthenic
65
heart: nearly vertical and at midline lungs: long diaphragm: low stomach: low and medial colon: low GB: low build: frail abdomen: short thorax: long, shallow pelvis: wide 10%
asthenic
66
front
anterior/ventral
67
back
posterior/dorsaL
68
towards head
superior
69
towards feet
inferior
70
towards median plane
medial
71
away the median plane
lateral
72
near the source/beginning
proximal
73
parts away from the source or beginning
distal
74
towards head
cephalad/cephalic/cranially
75
towards feet
caudal/caudad
76
near the skin surface
superficial
77
away from skin surface
deep
78
same side of the body
ipsilateral
79
opposite side of the body
contralateral
80
refers to one side of the body
unilateral
81
refers to both side of the body
bilateral
82
refers to the sole or posterior surface of foot
plantar
83
refers to the top or anterior surface of foot
dorsum or dorsal
84
refers to palm or anterior of the hand
palmar
85
it is the process of recording an image of a body part
radiography
86
is the device that receives the energy of the xray beam and forms the image of the body part
image receptor
87
a device that contains special screen that glow when struck by xray and imprints the xray image on film
cassette with film
88
a device used for CR similar to conventional IS housed in special cassette that contains special phosphorous that store the xray image
image plate
89
a flat panel thin film transistor detector or charge coupled device used for direct DR radiography the fastest processing system with image available in 6 seconds or less
solid state detectors
90
xray strike a ___________ screen, where the image is formatted and is transmitted to a television monitor via camera a real time device
fluoroscopic screen
91
end result of an exacting technical procedure permanent record of the part under study
radiograph
92
density must be within the diagnostic range
optical density
93
anatomic structure must be compared with ____________ structure to ensure that structure is present or properly visible
adjacent structure
94
relationship of the anatomic ___________ to size, shape, position must be reviewed
superimposition
95
difference in density between two areas in radiograph and must be sufficient to allow radiographic distinction of adjacent structures with different tissue densities
contrast
96
the ability to visualize small structures and must be sufficient to clearly demonstrate the desired anatomic part
recorded detail
97
identification of the radiograph: patient's name _____ _____ identity _____ number age
identification of the radiograph: patient's name date institution identity xray number age
98
lying on back facing upward
supine
99
lying on abdomen facing downward
prone
100
upright position to stand or sit
erect
101
lying down in an position (prone, lateral, supine)
recumbent
102
lying on back (supine)
dorsal recumbent
103
a recumbent position with the body tilted with head lower than the feet
trendelenburg
104
a recumbent position with the body tilted with head higher than the feet
fowlers
105
a recumbent oblique position (semi prone) with the patient lying on the anterior side with the right knee and thigh flexed
sim's position
106
position where the knees are as closed as possible to the chest
genu pectoral/knee chest
107
___________ is named by the side closed to the IR or the body part from which the CR exits
lateral
108
__________ refers to an angled position in which neither the sagittal nor the coronal body plane is perpendicular or at right angle to the IR
oblique
109
_________ position assumed in lying down always performed with the CR horizontal
decubitus
110
is the process of recording a body part to an image receptor it describes the direction or the path of the CR of the xray beam as it passes through the patient projecting an image on the IR
projection
111
the inferior superior axial view is also known as ___________ ______ of the shoulder it is an orthogonal projection to the AP view and replaces the lateral shoulder projection
lawrence view
112
mentomeatal line is same as putting the TEA just below the bottom of the maxillary sinus
waters view/parieto-acanthial projection
113
the distance from the anode inside the xray tube to the IR directly affects magnification of the body part and recorded detail
source to image receptor distance
114
_______ the SID, the less the body part is magnified and the greater the recorded detail
greater
115
is an unnecessary movement of the part under study
motion
116
3 types of muscular tissue that affect motion
smooth cardiac striated
117
heart pulsation chill peristalsis tremor spasm pain
smooth muscle
118
nervousness discomfort excitability mental illness fear breathing
striated muscle
119
how to control motion? giving ____ instructions providing patient _____ adjusting _______ use _____ exposure time
giving clear instructions providing patient comfort adjusting support/immobilization devices use fast exposure time
120
The information that results from performing the radiographic examination generally shows the ___________ or ________ of abnormality or trauma. The information assists in the ________ and treatment of the patient. accuracy and ________ __ _______ are essential in each radiologic examination.
The information that results from performing the radiographic examination generally shows the PRESENCE OR ABSENCE of abnormality or trauma. The information assists in the DIAGNOSIS and treatment of the patient. accuracy and ATTENTION TO DETAIL are essential in each radiologic examination.
121
five functions in radiographic examination __________ the body part and alignment of CR and IR application of _______ ______ measures and devices selection of ________ factors on the control panel _________ to the px related to respiration and initiation of xray procedure processing of the IR
POSITIONING the body part and alignment of CR and IR application of RADIATION PROTECTION measures and devices selection of TECHNICAL factors on the control panel INSTRUCTIONS to the px related to respiration and initiation of xray procedure processing of the IR
122
depresses the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, lengthens and expands the lung fields, elevates the sternum and pushes it anteriorly, and elevates the ribs and reduces their angle near the spine
inspiration or inhalation
123
elevates the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, shortens the Lung fields, depresses the sternum, and lowers the ribs and Increases their angle near the spine
expiration or exhalation
124
For AP or PA projections that include both the right and left sides of the body, _ marker is typically used.
right marker
125
For lateral projections of the head and trunk, always mark the side closest to the IR. Marker is typically placed ______ to the anatomy.
anterior
126
For oblique projections that include both the right and left sides of the body, the side down or ________ the IR is typically marked.
nearest
127
For limb projections, use the appropriate R and L marker. It should be placed within the _____ of the collimator border.
edge
128
the beam of radiation must be ________ enough to irradiate only the area under examination
narrowed
129
xray beam restriction serve two purposes
minimizes the amount of radiation to the px produces radiograph that demonstrate excellent recorded detail
130
bounded by the sternum anteriorly, lungs laterally and vertebral column posteriorly contains all the thoracic structures except the lungs and pleura
mediastinum
130
surrounded by the rib cage and is separated from the abdominal cavity by the muscular diaphragm divided into right and left parts by a median structure
thoracic cavity
130
bounded primarily by the abdominal muscles and contains the: stomach intestines spleen kidneys liver pancreas peritoneum
abdominal cavity
131
a small space enclosed by the bones of the pelvis and contains the urinary bladder part of the large intestine the internal reproductive organs
pelvic cavity
132
The radiographers responsibility is to select the combination of exposure factors that produces the __________ _______ of radiograph for each region of the body and to standardize this quality.
The radiographers responsibility is to select the combination of exposure factors that produces the DESIRED QUALITY of radiograph for each region of the body and to standardize this quality.
133
Certain conditions require the radiographer to _________ when establishing an exposure technique
Certain conditions require the radiographer to COMPENSATE when establishing an exposure technique
134
conditions that require an increase in technical factor
pneumonia pleural effusion hydrocephalus enlarged heart edema ascites
135
conditions that require an decrease in technical factor
old age pneumothorax emaciation emphysema degenerative arthritis atrophy