Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Med Surg 1 > MIDTERMS: Integ: Burns & conditions > Flashcards

MIDTERMS: Integ: Burns & conditions Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

The outermost, avascular layer of the skin exposed to the environment. It provides waterproofing and protection from infection.

A

epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name and describe the layers of the epidermis.

A

Corneum: Horny layer, waterproofs and protects from infection.
Lucidum: Clear layer, found on palms and soles.
Granulosum: Retains water and regulates heat.
Spinosum: Protects basale layer.
Basale: Regeneration layer, contains melanocytes for skin pigmentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

: Large blisters (raised >5mm), associated with grade II pressure ulcers, and can follow a dermatome.

A

bullae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

: A small, fluid-filled blister (<5mm) that can be transferred through touch.

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The “true skin” layer, 20-30x thicker than the epidermis. Contains blood vessels, lymphatics, collagen, elastic fibers, and appendages like sweat glands and hair follicles.

A

dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Superficial, linear erosion of the skin caused by scratching, leading to a break in the epidermis and potential scarring.

A

excoriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Thickened, rough skin due to repeated rubbing, often seen in conditions like eczema.

A

lichenification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A flat, discolored skin area that is darker than the surrounding skin.

A

macule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A firm, doughy skin elevation (5-20mm), circumscribed and solid.

A

nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A small raised lesion on the skin, typically <5mm.

A

papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abnormal keratinization leading to scale-like skin.

A

dyskeratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Loss of nail integrity, leading to brittle, opaque nails, often due to nutritional deficiencies or pressure.

A

onycholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Superficial loss of the epidermis, often healing without scarring.

A

erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a plaque in dermatology?

A

A flat-topped, scale-like lesion >5mm that peels off, resembling a scab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a scale in terms of skin?

A

Superficial dead epidermal cells that peel off, giving a scaly appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A pus-filled, raised skin lesion commonly seen in acne, boils, and folliculitis.

A

pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An irregular, edematous area of skin, often itchy and red, commonly seen in allergies or insect bites.

A

wheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define exocytosis in skin pathology.

A

Invasion of inflammatory cells into the epidermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Destruction of intercellular connections within the epidermis.

A

acantholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Loss of epidermis extending into the dermis or deeper, often healing with scarring.

A

ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is vacuolization?

A

Damage at the basal cell membrane level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

Abnormal thickening of the stratum corneum with excessive keratin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyperplasia of the dermal papillae, causing a loss of skin integrity.

A

papillomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hyperpigmentation caused by constant rubbing, pressure, or shearing.

A

acanthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
A form of keratinization where nuclei are retained in the stratum corneum.
parakeratosis
13
What is spongiosis?
Intercellular edema within the epidermis.
13
What does red color in a wound indicate?
Viable tissue with granulation, indicating healing.
13
What key information is needed for evaluating a patient with an open wound?
Age, sex, occupation, medical history, past interventions, wound development history, symptoms, progression, and any interventions.
14
When is a wound considered chronic?
When it persists for more than 3 months.
14
Classify wounds based on etiology.
Surgical (e.g., appendectomy, laparotomy) Traumatic (e.g., fights, accidents) Chronic (e.g., pressure ulcers)
14
What are the thickness classifications of wounds?
Partial thickness Full thickness
15
What is a wound?
A break in the integrity of body structures.
16
What does pink color in a wound indicate?
Epithelializing wounds showing pink margins or islands on the surface.
17
What is Marjolin’s ulcer?
A malignant degeneration that occurs progressively.
18
What does yellow color in a wound signify?
Sloughy wounds with a layer of viscous adherent slough.
19
What does black color in a wound indicate?
Necrotic wounds covered with devitalized epidermis.
20
What is a suspected deep tissue injury (SDTI)?
Discoloration of skin without an opening in the wound.
20
Common sites for pressure ulcers in a sitting position?
Ischium, heel, elbow, buttocks.
21
Describe the stages of pressure ulcers.
Stage I: Nonblanchable erythema, intact epidermis. Stage II: Partial thickness, may blister. Stage III: Full thickness destruction into subcutaneous tissue. Stage IV: Deep tissue destruction to fascia, muscle, bone, or joint.
22
Describe the superficial burn.
Involves the epidermis, red erythematous, dry, and heals in 2-3 days.
22
What is an unstageable pressure ulcer?
Ulcer with slough/eschar that obscures the depth.
22
What are the degrees of burn injury?
1st degree: Sunburn. 2nd degree: Blisters. 3rd degree: Full thickness involving deeper layers.
22
What pressure can cause ischemia in tissue?
External pressure exceeding 32 mmHg for prolonged periods.
22
A risk assessment tool consisting of six factors to evaluate risk for pressure ulcers.
Braden Scale
23
What is the role of nutrition in wound healing?
Essential for synthesizing tissues; protein, vitamin C, and zinc are crucial.
23
They are used for partial thickness (PT) and full thickness (FT) wounds with varying amounts of exudate, as well as secondary dressings over amorphous hydrogels.
FOAM DRESSINGS
23
hydrophilic polyurethane materials with phobic layers that absorb exudates. They come in sheets or pads and can be semi-permeable, available in adhesive and non-adhesive forms.
FOAM dressings
23
What are the disadvantages of GAUZE dressings?
They can adhere to the wound bed, are highly permeable requiring frequent changes, and may increase the infection rate.
23
What are the characteristics to observe during wound evaluation?
Size, depth, shape, surrounding tissue, color, temperature, and edema.
23
What are the advantages of GAUZE dressings?
They are readily available, cost-effective, can be used alone or with other dressings, and can add layers for treatment.
23
What are the disadvantages of FOAM DRESSINGS?
: They can roll in areas with excessive friction, may traumatize the peri-wound area, and are difficult to inspect.
23
made from calcium salt of alginic acid (from seaweed), are highly permeable, non-occlusive, and require a secondary dressing.
ALGINATES
23
What are the uses of ALGINATES?
They are suitable for PT and FT wounds, particularly pressure ulcers, venous ulcers, and infected wounds.
24
made of polyurethane with water-resistant adhesives, are permeable to water and oxygen but impermeable to water and bacteria, and are highly elastic.
TRANSPARENT FILM dressings
24
What are the advantages of ALGINATES?
They have high absorptive capacity, enable autolytic debridement, provide protection from microbial contamination, and can be used for both infected and non-adhering wounds.
25
What are the uses of TRANSPARENT FILM dressings?
They are used for superficial wounds and PT wounds with minimal drainage.
26
What is a skin graft?
A skin graft is the placement of a healthy layer of new skin onto a wound site to close the wound, prevent infection, protect underlying tissue, and expedite healing.
27
What are the types of skin grafts?
Autografts (from the same person), allografts (from other humans), and xenografts (from animals, often pigs).
28
What are the forms of skin grafts?
Partial or split-thickness grafts (epidermis and part of dermis) and full-thickness grafts (epidermis and entire dermis).
29
What are the indications for skin grafts?
Severe burns, ulcers, biopsies, and wounds with extensive skin loss.
30
What is the recommended time frame for starting range of motion exercises post-surgery?
Range of motion exercises should begin three weeks post-surgery.
31
What is the purpose of a Circulator Boot?
Designed to compress the leg to increase blood flow, each treatment lasts about 40 minutes and it is not intended for home use.
32
: What are some wound cleansing solutions and their purposes?
Povidone-Iodine: Useful against bacteria and viruses but toxic to fibroblasts. Acetic Acid (0.5%): Effective against Pseudomonas but can change tissue color. Sodium Hypochlorite (2.5%): Used primarily for necrotic tissue. Dakin's Solution: Antiseptic for wound cleaning.
33
What are major dressing categories and their key performance characteristics?
Alginates: Exudate absorption, autolytic debridement. Foams: Retain moisture, absorb exudate. Gauzes: Absorb exudate, mechanical debridement. Hydrocolloids: Retain moisture, autolytic debridement. Hydrogels: Retain moisture, occlusions. Wound fillers: Obliterate dead space, absorb exudate.
34
: How do the Norton and Braden scales compare?
Norton Scale: Focuses on physical and mental condition, with a score ≥ 12 indicating risk. Braden Scale: Assesses activity, mobility, sensory perception, and nutrition.
35
What wound care modalities are used for pressure ulcers?
Hydrotherapy: For debridement of large exudating wounds. Electrical Stimulation: For stage III and IV ulcers unresponsive to conventional therapy. Experimental Treatments: Hyperbaric oxygen, low-energy laser therapy, ultrasonography.
36
Q: What surgical treatments are used for pressure ulcers?
A: Surgical options include direct closure, skin grafting, and skin flaps to reduce healing time and prevent complications.
37
37
37

Med Surg 1 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions