Midterms Pcol Flashcards
(37 cards)
An elderly patient with a history of heart disease is brought to the emergency room with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals that she has pulmonary edema. Which treatment is indicated? A. Acetazolamide. B. Chlorthalidone. C. Furosemide. D. Hydrochlorothiazide. E. Spironolactone.
C. Furosemide.
A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip to the Andes. Which would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?
A. A thiazide diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide.
B. An anticholinergic such as atropine.
C. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor such as
acetazolamide.
D. A loop diuretic such as furosemide.
E. A β-blocker such as metoprolol.
C. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor such as
acetazolamide.
An alcoholic male has developed hepatic cirrhosis. To control the ascites and edema, which should be prescribed? A. Acetazolamide. B. Chlorthalidone. C. Furosemide. D. Hydrochlorothiazide. E. Spironolactone.
E. Spironolactone.
A 55-year-old male with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However, after a few weeks, he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic was he taking? A. Furosemide. B. Hydrochlorothiazide. C. Spironolactone. D. Triamterene. E. Urea.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
A 75-year-old woman with hypertension is being treated with a thiazide. Her blood pressure responds well and reads at 120/76 mm Hg. After several months on the medication, she complains of being tired and weak. An analysis of the blood indicates low values for which of the following? A. Calcium. B. Glucose. C. Potassium. D. Sodium. E. Uric acid.
C. Potassium.
What is the contraindicated in a patient with hyperkalemia? A. Acetazolamide. B. Chlorthalidone. C. Chlorothiazide. D. Ethacrynic acid. E. Spironolactone.
E. Spironolactone.
Which of the following should be avoided in a patient with a history of severe anaphylactic reaction to sulfa medications? A. Amiloride. B. Hydrochlorothiazide. C. Mannitol. D. Spironolactone. E. Triamterene.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
A male patient is placed on a new medication and notes that his breasts have become enlarged and tender to the touch. Which medication is he most likely taking? A. Chlorthalidone. B. Furosemide. C. Hydrochlorothiazide. D. Spironolactone. E. Triamterene.
D. Spironolactone.
A patient presents to the emergency department with an extreme headache. After a thorough workup, the attending physician concludes that the pain is due to increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure? A. Acetazolamide. B. Indapamide. C. Furosemide. D. Hydrochlorothiazide. E. Mannitol.
E. Mannitol.
Which diuretic has been shown to improve blood pressure in resistant hypertension or those already treated with three blood pressure medications including a thiazide or thiazide-like diuretic? A. Chlorthalidone. B. Indapamide. C. Furosemide. D. Mannitol. E. Spironolactone.
E. Spironolactone.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding insulin glargine?
A. It is primarily used to control postprandial hyperglycemia.
B. It is a “peakless” insulin.
C. The prolonged duration of activity is due to slow
dissociation from albumin.
D. It should not be used in a regimen with insulin lispro
or glulisine.
E. It may be administered intravenously in emergency
cases.
B. It is a “peakless” insulin.
DW is a patient with type 2 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 400 mg/dL today at his office visit. The physician would like to give some insulin to bring the glucose down before he leaves the office. Which of the following would lower the glucose in the quickest manner in DW? A. Insulin aspart. B. Insulin glargine. C. NPH insulin. D. Regular insulin.
A. Insulin aspart.
Which of the following classes of oral diabetes drugs is paired most appropriately with its primary mechanism of action?
A. DPP-4 inhibitor—inhibits breakdown of complex carbohydrates.
B. Glinide—increases insulin sensitivity.
C. Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion.
D. Thiazolidinedione—decreases hepatic
gluconeogenesis.
C. Sulfonylurea—increases insulin secretion.
Which of the following statements is characteristic of metformin?
A. Metformin is inappropriate for initial management of type 2 diabetes.
B. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production.
C. Metformin undergoes significant metabolism via the
cytochrome P450 system.
D. Metformin should not be combined with
sulfonylureas or insulin.
E. Weight gain is a common adverse effect.
B. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial oral agent for management of type 2 diabetes in patients with no other comorbid conditions? A. Glipizide. B. Insulin. C. Metformin. D. Pioglitazone.
C. Metformin.
A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes? A. Exenatide. B. Glyburide. C. Nateglinide. D. Pioglitazone. E. Sitagliptin.
D. Pioglitazone.
KD is a 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and advanced chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diabetes medications is contraindicated in this patient? A. Glipizide. B. Insulin lispro. C. Metformin. D. Saxagliptin.
C. Metformin.
Which of the following drugs for diabetes would be LEAST likely to cause weight gain? A. Glimepiride. B. Liraglutide. C. Pioglitazone. D. Repaglinide. E. Insulin glulisine.
B. Liraglutide.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking metformin. The fasting glucose levels are in range, but the postprandial glucose is uncontrolled. All of the following drugs would be appropriate to add to metformin to target postprandial glucose except: A. Acarbose. B. Exenatide. C. Insulin aspart. D. Pramlintide.
D. Pramlintide.
Which of the following diabetes medications is most appropriately paired with an adverse effect associated with its use? A. Canagliflozin—lactic acidosis. B. Metformin—urinary tract infections. C. Nateglinide—heart failure. D. Liraglutide—pancreatitis.
D. Liraglutide—pancreatitis.
Which of the following zones of the adrenal gland is correctly paired with the type of substance it secretes? A. Adrenal medulla—corticotropin. B. Zona fasciculata—cortisol. C. Zona glomerulosa—androgens. D. Zona reticularis—catecholamines.
B. Zona fasciculata—cortisol.
Corticosteroids are useful in the treatment of all of the following disorders except: A. Addison disease. B. Allergic rhinitis. C. Cushing syndrome. D. Inflammatory bowel disease. E. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Cushing syndrome.
All of the following adverse effects commonly occur with glucocorticoid therapy except:
A. Glaucoma.
B. Increased risk of infection.
C. Hypotension.
D. Emotional disturbances. E. Peripheral edema.
C. Hypotension.
Osteoporosis is a major adverse effect caused by the glucocorticoids. It is due to their ability to:
A. Increase the excretion of calcium.
B. Inhibit absorption of calcium.
C. Stimulate the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis.
D. Decrease production of prostaglandins.
E. Decrease collagen synthesis.
B. Inhibit absorption of calcium.
