mine Flashcards
(274 cards)
1
Q
1. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. translation B. transcription C. a mutation D. an alteration E. regeneration
A
c
2
Q
A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_ mutation. A. point B. silent C. back D. missense E. nonsense
A
E
3
Q
Which of the following is not a primary target of milk pasteurization? A. Salmonella B. Campylobacterjejuni C. Lactobacillus D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Brucella
A
C. Lactobacillus
4
Q
The most serious type of mutation is a \_\_\_\_\_\_ mutation. A. point B. silent C. frameshift D. back
A
c
5
Q
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
A
c
6
Q
. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A. Point B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
A
a
7
Q
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Insertion D. Deletion E. Silent
A
b
8
Q
A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.
A. missenseandinsertion B. missenseandnonsense C. nonsense and deletion
D. deletion and insertion E. insertionandnonsense
A
d
9
Q
What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for? A. Silent B. Back C. Point D. Nonsense E. Missense
A
a
10
Q
The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________.
A. transduction B. excision repair C. frameshift
D. back-mutation E. transformation
A
b
11
Q
Induced mutations are initiated by errors in DNA replication
t/f
A
f
12
Q
All mutations are not beneficial to the cell
t/f
A
f
13
Q
A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not?
1. This is a silent mutation.
2. The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so
no change to the protein.
3. The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for the normal protein.
4. This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made.
A
1
14
Q
SNPs are derived from ______.
A. genetic engineering B. frameshiftmutations C. gene therapy
D. point mutations
A
d
15
Q
Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because
- bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly.
- bacterial genomes undergo mutation often.
- short generation times accumulate mutations in populations.
- mutations are passed between organisms.
- Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
A
5
16
Q
Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except ______.
A. transposons B. R-plasmids C. conjugation D. mutation
A
d
17
Q
Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called antigenic ________, or alternatively antigenic ________, which is a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.
A. drift;exchange B. exchange;drift C. drift; shift
D. shift; drift
A
c
18
Q
Viruses exhibit all the following except ______.
- definiteshape
- metabolism
- genes
- ability to infect host cells
- ultramicroscopic size
A
1
19
Q
Host cells of viruses include ______.
- humans and other animals
- plantsandfungi
- bacteria
- protozoa and algae
- Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
A
4
20
Q
Viral spikes
A. are always present on enveloped viruses.
1. attach the viral capsid and envelope.
2. allow bacteria to evade host defenses.
3. are derived from host proteins.
4. are for recognition among the various types of viruses
A
a
21
Q
The core of every virus particle always contains \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. DNA B. capsomeres C. enzymes D. DNA and RNA E. eitherDNAorRNA
A
e
22
Q
Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. Envelope b.capsomere c.Capsid D. Nucleic acid E. Genome
A
a
23
Q
Viral nucleic acid types include which of the following? A. Double-strandedDNA B. Single-strandedDNA C. Double-stranded RNA D. Single-stranded RNA E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
A
e
24
Q
A negative RNA virus must first
- synthesize a DNA copy of its genome.
- synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome.
- synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome.
- transcribe reverse transcriptase.
- transcribeRNApolymerase.
A
3
25
```
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.
A. infertility
B. shingles
C. encephalitis
D. paralysis
E. kidney failure
```
c
26
As a couple, you have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility. After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that there is scar tissue in the uterine tubes. What disease is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Leptospirosis B. Gonorrhea
C. Syphilis
D. Trichomoniasis
b
27
```
Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to ______.
A. HIVinfection
B. infertility
C. cervical cancer
D. multiple births
E. low birthweight babies
```
B. infertility
28
```
. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.
A. nucleus; cytoplasm
B. cytoplasm;cellmembrane
C. cell membrane; cytoplasm
D. cytoplasm; nucleus
E. nucleus;endoplasmicreticulum
```
a
29
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
1. Present when the virus is in lysogeny
2. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
3. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
4. Cause lysis of host cells
5. Occurwhentemperatephagesenterhostcells
4
30
Lysogeny refers to
0. alteringthehostrangeofavirus.
1. the latent state of herpes infections.
2. virions exiting host cell.
3. the viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome.
3
31
. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called ______.
A. viroids
B. prions
C. bacteriophages D. satellite viruses
c
32
In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified?
A. Transduction B. Conjugation
C. Transformation D. Cloning
c
33
Bacterial endospores are produced by ______.
A. Entamoeba B. Bacillus
C. Mycoplasma
b
34
```
When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a
______.
A. strep
B. staph
C. sarcina D. tetrad E. palisade
```
e
35
An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______.
A. staphylospirillum B. streptobacillus C. staphylobacillus D. streptococcus
E. staphylococcus
e
36
A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______.
A. palisade
B. Staphylobacillus C. streptobacillus D. staphylococcus E. streptococcus
c
37
The chancre of syphilis
A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
B. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
C. is very painful.
D. occurs during the tertiary stage.
b
38
```
Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape?
A. Spirochete B. Vibrio
C. Coccus
D. Bacillus
E. Tetrad
```
e
39
Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except ______.
A. cilia
B. fimbriae
C. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) D. flagella
E. pili
a
40
34. An irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells is termed ______.
A. staphylospirillum B. streptobacillus C. staphylobacillus D. streptococcus
E. staphylococcus
e
41
A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______.
A. palisade
B. Staphylobacillus C. streptobacillus D. staphylococcus E. streptococcus
c
42
In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified?
A. Transduction B. Conjugation
C. Transformation D. Cloning
c
43
You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a coccobacillus morphology. When you examine the cells after culturing on a variety of differential media, you find that in some cases, the cells appear as coccobacillus, but in others, they can be filamentous, cocci, or club-shaped. The best explanation for this observation is that
0. themediawereincubatedatanincorrecttemperature.
1. the differential media are contaminated.
2. the microscope is out of adjustment.
3. the bacterium is pleomorphic.
4. yourculturehasbecomecontaminated.
3
44
The pathogenesis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is dependent upon phase variation. Which of the following statements concerning phase variation is incorrect?
1. Phase variation involves alterations to the structure of the fimbriae.
2. Phase variations results from genetic rearrangements in the Neisseria chromosome.
3. Phase variation allows Neisseria cells to escape immune detection.
4. Phase variation results in Neisseria cells adopting a pleomorphic morphology.
4
45
. In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles contain DNA?
1. Nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus
2. Nucleus,chloroplast,andperoxisome
3. Nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus
4. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus
5. Nucleus,chloroplast,andmitochondrion
5
46
he glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell is
0. mostly polysaccharides.
1. alsocalledthecellwall.
2. composed of many diverse proteins.
3. a protective mechanism against osmotic lysis.
4. the site where many metabolic reactions occur.
0
47
Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotic glycocalyx?
0. Protection
1. Reception of chemical signals
2. Adherence
3. Movement
3
48
Treponema pallidum
A. has humans as the sole reservoir.
B. can cross the placenta.
C. has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
D. is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
e
49
The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms, including bacterial endospores, on inanimate objects is ______.
A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization E. degermation
b
50
. Sterilization is achieved by
1. flashpasteurization.
2. hotwater.
3. boiling water.
4. steam autoclave.
5. Allofthechoicesarecorrect
4
51
Bacterial conjugation involves
A. abacteriophagecarryingdonorDNAtotherecipientcell.
B. a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus.
C. naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell. D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
b
52
The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______.
1. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
2. fimbriae
3. sex pili
4. cilia
5. flagella
3
53
The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the ______.
A. cellmembrane B. flagella
C. cell wall
D. ribosomes
c
54
. You are observing an organism under the microscope, and it is clearly multicellular with no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a(n) ______.
A. alga
B. fungus
C. helminth D. protozoan E. bacterium
c
55
You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?
A. Giveyouahighdoseofantibiotics
B. Putthebabyonahighdoseofantivirals
C. Delivery by cesarean section D. Have an abortion
c
56
All of the following are exoenzymes except ______. A. ATP synthase
B. streptokinase C. penicillinase D. collagenase
a
57
Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein). There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein. These enzymes are considered ______.
A. apoenzymes B. exoenzymes C. ribozymes
D. endoenzymes
b
58
```
When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called
______.
A. mycelia
B. pseudohyphae C. molds
D. dimorphic
E. septa
```
b
59
The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called ______.
A. pseudohyphae B. asci
C. conidiophores D. septa
E. hyphae
e
60
Many lakes in the United States are suffering from periodic algae blooms, which can be thought of as an infection of the lake. Although the algae are naturally-occurring in the lake, when adjacent farm fields are over- fertilized with diammonium phosphate, the run-off deposits these nutrients in the lake, allowing the algae to grow without limit. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the overgrowth of algae?
0. Lakes have sufficient micronutrients for algae to grow.
1. The algae are heterotrophs.
2. The nitrogen in the fertilizer is in the ammonium form, the preferred nitrogen source of most microbes.
2
61
The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is termed ________.
A. transduction B. conjugation
C. transformation D. transmission E. mitosis
c
62
Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect?
A. They are sexually transmitted.
B. Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.
C. They are not common in the United States.
D. They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
E. They form large cauliflower-like masses called condyloma acuminata.
c
63
An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a(n) ______.
A. element
B. traceelement C. growth factor D. macronutrient E. compound
c
64
Growth factors
1. areinorganic.
2. are synthesized by the organism.
3. contain elemental oxygen.
4. cannot be synthesized by the organism.
5. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
4
65
In humans, helminths generally infect the ______.
0. nervous system
1. gastrointestinal tract
2. skin
3. urinary tract
4. muscularsystem
1
66
Documented transmission of HIV involves ______.
A. respiratory droplets
B. unprotected sexual intercourse or contact with blood/blood products
C. mosquitoes
D. contaminated food
b
67
Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
0. Primary host
1. Secondary host
2. Definitive host
3. Transport host
4. Mating occurs in all hosts
2
68
Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
0. Primary host
1. Secondary host
2. Definitive host
3. Transport host
4. Mating occurs in all hosts
2
69
```
In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common pediatric infection, the child carries the adult worm in his/ her intestine. The adult worm releases eggs, which are transmitted out of the body in the feces. The child will scratch the itching anal region, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into his/her mouth. For this helminth life cycle, the human is the ______ host.
A. intermediate
B. definitive
C. primary
D. intermediate and definitive
```
d
70
Cold temperatures are considered microbistatic, whereas excessive heat is considered microbicidal. This is due to the fact that
A. in cold temperatures, the energy of activation is not sufficient to drive chemical reactions regardless of the presence of enzymes, whereas excessive heat denatures enzymes and/or incinerates the cell causing irreparable damage.
B. cold temperatures denature enzymes causing irreparable damage to the cell, whereas heat limits the energy
of activation available to drive chemical reactions.
C. cold temperatures freeze and therefore kill the cell, whereas excess heat keeps the cell metabolically active
but not dividing.
D. cold temperatures halt binary fission and is therefore considered a sterilant, whereas heat does not kill
spores so it is not an effective method of control.
a
71
Halobacterium salinarum lives in and requires a high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeon described as a ______.
A. barophile
B. halophile
C. thermophile D. psychrophile
b
72
. Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic, or salty environments, are called ______.
A. halophiles
B. thermophiles C. psychrophiles D. barophiles
E. extremophiles
e
73
A halophile would grow best in ______.
0. freshwaterponds
1. hotgeysersprings
2. arid, desert soil
3. acid pools
4. salt lakes
4
74
A barophile would grow best in ______.
0. acidpools
1. deep oceans
2. arid, desert soil
3. hot geyser springs
4. salt lakes
b
75
The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that
0. have abundant oxygen and CO2.
1. are directly exposed to sunlight.
C. are extremely cold.
D. are very acidic.
E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2.
e
76
Methane is a significant part of the carbon cycle in ______ environments dominated by methanogens.
A. autotrophic B. anaerobic C. thermophilic D. oligotrophic
b
77
```
when methanogens convert carbon dioxide to methane, it is a(n) ______ reaction.
A. aerobic
B. oxidation
C. reduction
D. ammonification
```
c
78
You are observing an organism under the microscope, and it is clearly multicellular with no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a(n) ______.
A. alga
B. fungus
C. helminth D. protozoan E. bacterium
c
79
A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called ______.
A. substrates B. apoenzymes C. catalysts
D. cofactors
E. ribozymes
d
80
```
When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called ______.
A. competitiveinhibition
B. enzymeinduction
C. enzyme repression
D. noncompetitive inhibition
```
d
81
Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as
0. thesubstratebindingtoDNA,blockingenzymetranscription.
1. theendproductbindingtoDNA,blockingenzymetranscription.
2. the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site.
3. the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site.
3
82
Sulfa drugs like Bactrim, given for bacterial infections, inhibit bacteria by blocking folic acid synthesis. The precursor molecule of folic acid is para-amino benzoic acid (PABA). Interestingly, PABA has a structure very similar to a sulfa drug. If a sulfa drug is present, the bacterial enzyme will bind the sulfa drug because of structural similarity. This is an example of ______.
A. enzymeinduction
B. enzymerepression
C. noncompetitive inhibition D. competitive inhibition
E. cataboliterepression
d
83
Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called A. inhibitors
B. blockers
C. competitive inhibitors
D. noncompetitive inhibitors
c
84
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by
A. repressoraloneboundtooperator.
B. substrateboundtorepressor.
C. substrate bound to promoter.
D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
d
85
Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A. the product B. acofactor
C. a coenzyme D. the substrate E. thereactant
a
86
All of the following pertain to transcription except
0. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
1. it occurs before translation.
2. it requires RNA polymerase.
3. it requires a template DNA strand.
4. it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein
0
87
. RNA polymerase binds to the
A. startcodon.
B. terminationsequence. C. regulationsequence. D. promoter sequence.
d
88
If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______.
0. GCA
1. CGT
2. ACG
3. CGU
4. UGC
3
89
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
0. They are also called nonsense codons.
1. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken.
2. They include AUG.
3. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA.
4. They do not have corresponding tRNA.
2
90
Helicase ______.
1. unwinds DNA
2. supercoils DNA
3. unwinds RNA
4. winds RNA
1
91
```
Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase
D. DNA gyrase
E. primase
```
a
92
```
The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA
is ______.
A. endonuclease
B. ligase
C. reverse transcriptase D. helicase
```
b
93
```
. EcoRI and HindIII are ______.
A. palindromes
B. reversetranscriptases
C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases
E. DNA polymerase
```
c
94
```
87. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5'to 3'direction on one strand and the 3'to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.
A. palindromes
B. reversetranscriptases
C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases
E. DNA polymerases
```
a
95
```
Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.
A. codons
B. palindromes C. introns
D. exons
E. genes
```
b
96
Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections?
1. Genetic defects in immunity
2. Physical and mental stress
3. Strong, healthy body
4. Chemotherapy
5. Oldage
3
97
Opportunistic pathogens
1. cause disease in every individual.
2. cause disease in compromised individuals.
3. are always pathogens.
2
98
```
Which opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candidaalbicans
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
```
d
99
The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is ______.
A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization E. degermation
a
100
```
The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed ______.
A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. decontamination E. degerming
```
c
101
```
The removal of all life forms from inanimate objects is termed ______.
A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. decontamination E. degerming
```
c
102
. The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an ______.
1. virulencefactor
2. indigenous biota
3. infectious dose
4. endotoxin
5. minimal dose
3
103
Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except ______.
A. ultravioletradiation B. boilingwater
C. pasteurization
D. hydrogen peroxide
d
104
. Clavulanic acid inhibits
A. beta-lactamase activity.
B. peptidoglycansynthesis.
C. formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages. D. cell membrane synthesis
a
105
```
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______.
A. infood
B. the patient's own normal biota
C. on fomites
D. in the air
E. transmittedfromonepersontoanother
```
b
106
Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except
A. thebirthprocessthroughthebirthcanal. B. bottlefeeding.
C. breast feeding.
D. contact with hospital staff.
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
e
107
Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?
A. Impetigoandringworm
B. Impetigoandcellulitis
C. Impetigo and conjunctivitis
108
. Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except
1. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
2. theflushingactionoftearsandblinking.
3. nasal hairs.
4. phagocytic white blood cells.
5. theflushingactionofurine.
4
109
```
All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______.
A. hairs
B. T cells
C. unbroken skin D. mucous
E. tears
```
2
110
Nonspecific chemical defenses include
1. lysozyme.
2. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
3. the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
4. stomach hydrochloric acid.
5. Allofthechoicesarecorrect
5
111
Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it
1. is toxic to pathogens.
2. destroys pathogens.
3. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
4. creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
4
112
Lymphocytes
1. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
2. havemembranereceptorsthatrecognizeforeignantigens.
3. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
4. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
5. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
5
113
```
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______.
A. markers
B. sizes
C. cell processes D. shapes
E. cellwalls
```
a
114
Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-prNesUeRntSinIgNceGllsK.IBNceGlls.,CmOacMrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize ______ .
A. CD8receptors B. MHC-II receptors C. MHC-I receptors D. interleukin-2
E. CD4receptors
2
115
An example of artificial passive immunity would be
1. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
2. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
3. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
4. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
3
116
An example of natural passive immunity would be
1. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
2. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
3. C. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
4. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
4
117
An example of artificial active immunity would be
1. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
2. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
3. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
4. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
a
118
An example of natural active immunity would be
1. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity.
2. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
3. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
4. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox.
a
119
As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive the protective vaccine
against this pathogen at the age of 35. This vaccine will stimulate
1. latency.
2. an anamnestic response.
3. a primary immune response.
4. a secondary immune response.
3
120
Which of the following is a febrile disease characterized by a rash and is caused by a virus that can cross the placenta to cause serious fetal damage?
A. Measles B. Impetigo C. Shingles D. Smallpox E. Rubella
e
121
```
The causative organism for mumps is ______.
A. Vibriocholerae
B. Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae
C. Morbillivirus
d Paramyxovirus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
```
d
122
Identification of the causative microbe for a diarrheal infection often requires a stool culture. The best medium for this purpose is
0. a medium containing a broad-spectrum antibiotic as a selective agent.
1. a general purpose medium that supports the growth of the diverse gut microbiota.
2. a medium containing bile as a selective agent.
3. a medium containing mammalian blood to provide extra growth factors.
4. a liquid medium, as the diarrhea conditions are more liquid than solid.
2
123
1. Which of the following statements regarding fecal transplant is correct?
A. Donors and recipients must be carefully matched to prevent an immune reaction in the recipient.
B. The goal is to completely eradicate Clostridium difficile from a patient's gut microbiota and replace it with
a healthy community.
C. Fecal matter must be carefully disinfected and screened for viruses, cysts, and endospores before
transfer to a recipient patient.
D. This treatment is designed to jump-start the intestinal microbiota after an infection with Clostridium
difficile resuts in acute diarrhea.
d
124
Paramyxoviruses evade the host immune system by
A. infectingonlyredbloodcells.
B. entering new cells by inducing syncytia formation.
C. producing an inhibitor specific for lymphocyte receptors. D. a display of host antigens on its surface.
The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is ______.
b
125
```
The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea globally is ______.
A. rotavirus
B. Cryptosporidium C. arbovirus
D. adenovirus
E. norovirus
```
a
126
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is ______.
A. Campylobacter B. Salmonella
C. E. coli
D. Shigella
a
127
The number one worldwide infectious diseases are ______.
A. AIDS-related diseases
B. malaria and other protozoan diseases C. respiratory diseases
D. measles and other rash diseases
E. diarrheal diseases
c
128
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
1. Produces urease to buffer stomach acidity
2. Curvedrods
3. Lives in the stomach
4. Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
4
129
HEP B INFECTION
7. has an incubation of 2 to 3 weeks.
8. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
9. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
10. is responsible for most cases of post-transfusion hepatitis
8
130
11. Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called ______.
12. A. jaundice
B. cirrhosis
C. mononucleosis D. hepatitis
d
131
HEP C MOST COMMON LIVER CANCER!
HEP C MOST COMMON LIVER CANCER!
132
```
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the ______.
A. piamater
B. duramater
C. subarachnoid space
D. arachnoidmater
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
```
c
133
Which of the following statements regarding Clostridium difficile infection is incorrect?
1. It is a colitis that is a superinfection.
2. It is associated with disruption of normal biota due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials.
3. It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
4. It is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
3
134
Which of the following is not a helminth that causes primarily intestinal symptoms?
1. T aenia solium
2. Diphyllobothrium latum
3. Trichuristrichiura
4. Enterobius vermicularis
2
135
Which of the following attributes is not common to the life and transmission cycles of Opisthorchis sinensis, Clonorchis sinensis, and Fasciola hepatica?
1. Infection causes obstruction of the bile duct.
2. Eggs are released in the feces.
3. C. They are transmitted by consuming inadequately cooked fish.
4. D. Fresh water snails are an intermediate host.
c
136
A woman is much more likely than a man to contract a UTI. Which of the following practices would best reduce her chances of getting a UTI?
1. Daily antibiotic dose
2. Not wearing tight-fitting clothes
3. Wiping with toilet paper in a front-to-back direction
4. Using birth control pills
3
137
1. Two functions of bacterial appendages are ______ and ______.
attachment; motility
1. Two functions of bacterial appendages are ______ and ______.
attachment; motility
138
2. Two structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ______ and ______.
a. actin filaments; phospholipid membranes
b. lipopolysaccharide;techoicacid
c. endospores; metachromatic granules
d. fimbriae; capsules
e. pili; ribosomes
d
139
3. Which external structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis?
Capsule
3. Which external structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis?
Capsule
140
4. All bacterial cells have ______.
| a. a chromosome
4. All bacterial cells have ______.
| a. a chromosome
141
5. Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease.
TRUE
5. Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease.
TRUE
142
6. Plasmids:
a. are found in all bacteria.
b. are essential for survival.
c. are located in microcompartments.
d. cannot be passed between organisms.
e. often carry genes controlling pathogenicity.
e
143
7. All of the following occur during endospore germination except
a. the cell grows out of its protein coats.
b. binding of a small organic molecule to initiate germination.
c. dehydration of the cell components.
d. enzymes digest the endospore cortex.
c
144
8. Endospores are
a. metabolicallyinactive.
b. resistant to heat and chemical treatments.
c. resistant to destruction by radiation.
d. living structures.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
145
9. The function of bacterial endospores is
a. to provide a protected site for photosynthesis.
b. storage of excess cellular building blocks.
c. protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
d. reproduction and growth.
c
146
```
10. Halobacterium salinarum lives in and requires a high salt concentration. This is an example of an archaeon described as a ______.
A. barophile
B. halophile
C. thermophile
D. psychrophile
```
b
147
11. Which of the following is mismatched?
a. Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures
b. Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats
c. Methanogens - convert CO2 and H2 into methane
d. Hyperthermophiles - adapted to high temperatures
e. Thermoplasmas - adapted to warm-blooded animal environments
e
148
12. Archaea have been found in many microenvironments in the human body. Which of the following microenvironments is most likely to fit with the designation of Archaea as "extremophiles?"
1. The inner ear can withstand increased pressure.
2. The surface of the tongue has salt receptors.
3. The gingiva and the gut are anaerobic.
4. The temperature of the testes is less than 37°C.
3
149
13. You've just isolated a new bacterium in pure culture, and you culture it on a general purpose medium where its cells have a coccobacillus morphology. When you examine the cells after culturing on a variety of differential media, you find that in some cases, the cells appear as coccobacillus, but in others, they can be filamentous, cocci, or club-shaped. The best explanation for this observation is that
1. the media were incubated at an incorrect temperature.
2. the differential media are contaminated.
3. the microscope is out of adjustment.
4. the bacterium is pleomorphic.
5. your culture has become contaminated.
4
150
14. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______.
a. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
b. fimbriae
c. sex pili
d. cilia
e. flagella
c
151
15. When bacilli in a chain fold back upon each other like a hinge, this cellular arrangement is termed a
______.
A. Strep. B. staph C. sarcina D. tetrad E. palisade
e
152
```
Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shape?
A. Spirochete
B. Vibrio
C. Coccus
D. Bacillus
E. Tetrad
```
e
153
Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?
1. Ribosomes are present as the site of protein synthesis.
2. Organelles termed mitochondria are the site of ATP production.
3. The cell wall is made of peptidoglycan or other distinct polysaccharides.
4. DNA is free in the cytoplasm.
2
154
```
In the life cycle of the pinworm Enterobius, a common pediatric infection, the child carries the adult worm in his/ her intestine. The adult worm releases eggs, which are transmitted out of the body in the feces. The child will scratch the itching anal region, picking up the worm eggs and re-inserting them into his/her mouth. For this helminth life cycle, the human is the ______ host.
A. intermediate
B. definitive
C. primary
D. intermediate and definitive
```
d
155
```
Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?
B. Primaryhost
C. Intermediate host
D. Definitive host
E. Transport host
F. Larval development
```
2
156
```
Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
G. Primaryhost
H. Secondaryhost
I. Definitive host
J. Transport host
```
i
157
```
. In humans, helminths generally infect the ______.
L. nervoussystem
M. gastrointestinal tract
N. skin
O. urinary tract
P. muscular system
```
m
158
You are attempting to identify the type of helminth that has been isolated from a patient stool sample. The most important consideration to make this distinction is to
Q. examine the sample to see if microscopic eggs are present.
R. ask the patient about recent food and water consumption.
S. look at the gross anatomy to determine if the body is segmented or not.
T. determine if the cells are eukaryotic or bacterial by looking for nuclei.
s
159
```
The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called ______.
A. pseudohyphae
B. asci
C. conidiophores
D. septa
E. hyphae
```
e
160
```
When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called
______.
A. mycelia
B. pseudohyphae
C. molds
D. dimorphic
E. septa
```
b
161
```
The size of a eukaryotic ribosome is ______.
A. 40S
B. 70S
C. 50S
D. 80S
E. 30S
```
d
162
```
. Which organelle is found in algae but not in protozoa or fungi?
A. Endoplasmicreticulum
B. Chloroplasts
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Lysosomes
```
b
163
```
Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotic glycocalyx?
A. Protection
B. Reception of chemical signals
C. Adherence
D. Movement
```
d
164
```
You are observing an organism under the microscope, and it is clearly multicellular with no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a(n) ______.
A. alga
B. fungus
C. helminth
D. protozoan
E. bacterium
```
c
165
```
You are observing an organism under the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall, no chloroplasts, and a nucleus. Your prediction would be that this organism is a(n) ______.
A. alga
B. protozoan
C. bacterium
D. fungus
E. virus
```
d
166
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Protozoa;unicellular
b. Algae;multicellular
c. Fungi; multicellular
d. Protozoa; multicellular
e. Helminths; multicellular
f. Fungi; unicellular
d
167
. Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called ______.
A. mutualistic B. saprobes C. free-living D. parasites E. antagonists
b
168
A saprobe differs from a parasite in that
A. a saprobe has the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores.
B. a saprobe derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals.
C. a saprobe has a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite has true hyphae.
D. a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan
b
169
. Which of the following statements is correct?
1. All saprobes are heterotrophic, but only some are parasitic.
2. All heterotrophs are fungi, and include both parasites and saprobes.
3. All heterotrophs are parasites, but only some are saprobes.
4. All fungi, whether parasite or saprobe, are heterotrophs.
4
170
The core of every virus particle always contains ______.
1. DNA
2. capsomeres
3. enzymes
4. DNA and RNA
5. either DNA or RNA
5
171
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes
1. a positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand.
2. a negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand.
3. viral RNA from DNA.
4. viral DNA from RNA.
4
172
Viruses with _____-sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____- sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
1. positive; negative
2. negative;positive
3. primary; secondary
4. secondary; primary
5. intermediate;primary
1
173
The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
1. penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, and release.
2. uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, and release.
3. adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, and release.
4. assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, and adsorption.
5. adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, and penetration.
3
174
. In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.
1. nucleus; cytoplasm
2. cytoplasm;cellmembrane
3. cell membrane; cytoplasm
4. cytoplasm; nucleus
5. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum
1
175
```
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are ______.
A. chronic latent viruses
B. oncoviruses
C. syncytia
D. inclusionbodies
E. cytopathic
```
a
176
```
New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by ______.
A. lysis
B. budding
C. exocytosis
D. both lysis and budding
E. bothbuddingandexocytosis
```
a
177
. Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
1. Present when the virus is in lysogeny
2. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
3. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
4. Cause lysis of host cells
5. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
4
178
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called ______.
1. latent
2. oncogenic
3. prions
4. viroids
5. delta agents
1
179
```
. In transduction, the viral genome
A. initiates lysis of the host.
B. includes DNA from the previous host.
C. is replicated in the cytoplasm.
D. is replicated in the nucleus.
```
b
180
Lysogeny refers to
1. altering the host range of a virus.
2. the latent state of herpes infections.
3. virions exiting host cell.
4. the viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome.
4
181
```
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called ______.
A. viroids
B. prions
C. bacteriophages
D. satellite viruses
```
c
182
```
Infectious protein particles are called ______.
A. viroids
B. phages
C. prions
D. oncogenic viruses E. spikes
```
c
183
```
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the host ______.
A. cytoplasm
B. nucleus
C. nucleolus
D. DNA
E. cellmembrane
```
d
184
```
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is
A. causedbyachroniclatentvirus.
B. initiatedbyanoncogenicvirus.
C. caused by a viroid.
D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
E. also called "mad cow disease."
```
d
185
In order to synthesize proteins, a virus with a genome comprised of single-stranded negative-sense RNA
1. can directly translate its negative-sense RNA strand into proteins.
2. must use reverse transcriptase to make a negative-sense DNA strand first.
3. must use DNA polymerase to make a positive-sense DNA strand first.
4. must use its negative-sense strand as a template to make a positive-sense RNA.
4
186
51. An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a(n) ______.
a. element
b. trace element
c. growth factor
d. macronutrient
e. compound
c
187
52. Growth factors:
a. are inorganic.
b. are synthesized by the organism.
c. contain elemental oxygen.
d. cannot be synthesized by the organism.
e. . All of the choices are correct.
d
188
```
53. Human pathogens fall into the group called ______.
A. halophiles
B. thermophiles
C. acidophiles
D. mesophiles
E. psychrophiles
```
d
189
```
Replication of DNA begins at a/an _______ rich area.
A. guanine-cytosine
B. uracil-adenine
C. adenine-thymine
D. adenine-cytosine
E. guanine-adenine
```
c
190
All of the following pertain to transcription except
a. it occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
b. it occurs before translation.
c. it requires RNA polymerase.
d. it requires a template DNA strand.
e. it is a process that contributes to the synthesis of protein.
a
191
If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______.
a. GCA
b. CGT
c. ACG
d. CGU
d
192
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
a.They are also called nonsense codons.
b. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken.
C . They include AUG.
d. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA.
E, They do not have corresponding tRNA.
c
193
```
. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. back
D. missense
E. nonsense
```
e
194
The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.
A. point
B. silent
C. frameshift D. back
c
195
```
What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for?
A. Silent
B. Back
C. Point
D. Nonsense E. Missense
```
a
196
Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A. Transformation B. Conjugation
C. Mitosis
D. Transduction
c
197
n the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase II
c. DNA helicase
d. DNA ligase
e. Primase
d
198
63. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.
a. a Southern blot
b. a Western blot
c. DNA sequencing
d. gene probes
e. the polymerase chain reaction
e
199
64. Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are
a. plasmids.
b. viruses.
c. bacteriophages.
d. artificial chromosomes.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
200
```
65. The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______.
A. endonuclease
B. ligase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. helicase
```
b
201
```
66. Which of the following microbial forms has the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?
A. Nakedviruses
B. Protozoancysts
C. Fungal spores
D. Bacterial endospores E. Yeast
```
d
202
67. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms, including bacterial endospores, on inanimate objects is ______.
A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization E. degermation
b
203
68. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is ______.
A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization E. degermation
a
204
69. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is ______.
A. disinfection B. sterilization C. antisepsis D. sanitization
c
205
```
70. The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of ______.
A. antisepsis
B. disinfection
C. sterilization
D. decontamination E. sanitization
```
a
206
Sterilization is achieved by
a. flashpasteurization.
b. hot water.
c. boiling water.
d. steam autoclave.
e. All of the choices are correct
d
207
71. Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ______.
a. antibiotics
b. narrow-spectrumdrugs
c. semisynthetic drugs
d. synthetic drugs
e. broad-spectrum drugs
e
208
```
Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called
A. inhibitors
B. blockers
C. competitive inhibitors
D. noncompetitive inhibitors
```
c
209
73. The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______.
a. competitive inhibition
b. synergism
c. prebiotics
d. prophylaxis
e. lantibiotics
d
210
74. Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______.
a. influenza A virus
b. HIV
c. herpes zoster virus
d. respiratory syncytial virus
e. hepatitis C virus
b
211
75. The term infection refers to :
a. Microorganisms colonizing the body.
b. contact with microorganisms.
c. contact with pathogens.
d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.
d
212
```
76. Which of the following is not correct terminology used for resident biota?
A. Pathogenic biota
B. Normalbiota
C. Indigenous biota
D. Normal microbiota
```
a
213
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______.
a. in food
b. the patient's own normal biota
c. on fomites
d. in the air
e. transmitted from one person to another
b
214
Opportunistic pathogens
a. cause disease in every individual.
b. cause disease in compromised individuals.
c. are always pathogens.
b
215
An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ______.
A. exogenous
B. anexotoxin
C. an enterotoxin D. endogenous E. axenic
a
216
The minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed is termed a/an ______.
a. virulence factor
b. indigenous biota
c. infectious dose
d. endotoxin
e. minimal dose
c
217
```
Virulence factors include all of the following except ______.
A. capsules
B. ribosome
C. exoenzymes D. endotoxin
E. exotoxin
```
b
218
Which of the following is a mismatched term and description?
a. Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
b. Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
c. Acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms
d. Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
e. Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
a
219
Which of the following is an example of sequelae?
a. Headache from meningitis
b. Difficulty swallowing from streptococcal infection
c. Arthritis from Lyme disease
d. Diarrhea from Salmonella enteritidis infection
c
220
. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ______.
A. fomite
b. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source
d
221
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a ______.
A. fomite B. carrier C. vector D. reservoir E. source
c
222
. An infection spread between animals and humans is a
| a. secondary infection b. sequela c. healthcare associated infection d. zoonosis
d
223
Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except
a. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
b. the flushing action of tears and blinking.
c. nasal hairs.
d. phagocytic white blood cells.
e. the flushing action of urine.
d
224
89. Nonspecific chemical defenses include
a. lysozyme.
b. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
c. the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
d. stomach hydrochloric acid.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
225
```
All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______.
A. hairs
B. T cells
C. unbroken skin D. mucous
E. tears
```
b
226
```
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______.
A. markers
B. sizes
C. cell processes D. shapes
E. cellwalls
```
a
227
Acquired specific immunity involves the response of
1. interferon.
2. mucusmembranes.
3. skin barriers.
4. lysozyme.
5. B and T lymphocytes.
5
228
Lymphocyte maturation involves
1. hormonal signals that initiate development.
2. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
3. T cells maturing in the thymus.
4. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
5. All of the choices are correct.
5
229
Class II MHC genes code for
a. certain secreted complement components.
b. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
c. all HLA antigens.
d. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
e. All of the choices are correct.
d
230
. Class I MHC genes code for
a. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
b. all HL A antigens.
c. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
d. certain secreted complement components.
a
231
Lymphocytes
a. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
b. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
c. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
d. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
232
An example of natural passive immunity would be
A. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
B. chicken pox infection,followed byl ifelong immunity.
c. chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox
d. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
d
233
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
a. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
b. removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
c. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
d. long-term subculturing of the microbe.
a
234
Live, attenuated vaccines
a. include the Sabin polio vaccine.
b. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
c. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
d. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
235
The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity(ies) that typically involve(s) a B-cell immunoglobulin response include(s)
1. type I only.
2. type I and type IV.
3. type IV only.
4. type I, type II, and type III.
5. type I, type II, type III, and type IV.
4
236
Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n) ______.
a. immunodeficiency
b. desensitization
c. autoimmune disease
d. hypersensitivity
e. transfusion reaction
d
237
Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______. 7.
a. high pH
b. high salt content
c. lysozyme
d. a keratinized surface
e. residentbiota
a
238
Necrotizing fasciitis is
a. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis.
b. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues.
c. also called impetigo.
d. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.
e. not treatable with antimicrobial drugs.
d
239
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ______.
a. carbuncles
b. scalded skin syndrome
c. chickenpox
d. meningitis
e. impetigo
c
240
Chickenpox
a. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.
b. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.
c. has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days.
d. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
241
```
Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies?
A. Impetigo and ringworm
B. Impetigo and cellulitis
C. Impetigo and conjunctivitis
D. Conjunctivitis and rubella
```
c
242
Meningococcemia is
a. best treated with penicillin G.
b. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae.
c. started from a nasopharyngeal infection.
d. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
243
Which of the following is/are a sign or symptom of meningitis?
A, Headache b. Stiff neck c. White blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid d. Fever
f. All of the choices are correct.
f
244
```
The most important defense of the cardiovascular system against infection is ______.
A. lymphocytes in the blood
B. lymphnodes
C. the blood-brain barrier
D. fever
```
a
245
After a Drug Enforcement Agency raid on a location that housed intravenous drug users, several were brought to the hospital with rapid breathing, fever, and an altered mental state. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Stained blood smears should be performed promptly to look for abnormalities in the blood cells.
b. A broad-spectrum antibiotic is needed promptly, as they are likely to be in septic shock from
intravenous introduction of microbes into the blood.
c. Unsanitary conditions in the house probably resulted in infestations with insects, so it's prudent to
examine them for insect bites that may provide a clue.
d. Many drug users are HIV-positive, so the patients should all be monitored for levels of CD4 T-cells
before any other action is taken.
b
246
The most common causative agent of acute endocarditis is ______.
A. Neisseriagonorrhoeae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcuspneumoniae
b
247
```
. The causative agent of Lyme disease is ______.
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Ixodes pacificus
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia hermsii
```
c
248
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the site of a tick bite is associated with ______.
1. Qfever
2. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
3. Lyme disease
4. plague
5. ehrlichiosis
3
249
```
Lyme disease is transmitted by ______.
A. droplets
B. ticks
C. lice
D. fleas
E. flies
```
b
250
The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72-hour episodes in a malaria patient are
a. sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
b. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge.
c. chills, fever, and sweating.
d. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
c
251
Malaria may be prevented by
1. using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
2. eliminating standing water.
3. taking prophylactic drugs.
4. using genetically engineered mosquitoes.
5. All of the choices are correct.
5
252
```
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is ______.
A. Hodgkin'slymphoma
B. myeloma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. melanoma
E. leukemia
```
c
253
Lyme disease involves
a. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck.
b. crippling polyarthritis, cardiovascular issues, and neurological problems.
c. people exposed to wooded or forested areas.
d. treatment with antimicrobials.
e. All of the choices are correct.
e
254
Endocarditis is often a consequence of bacteria attached to the heart valves. These microbes are not eliminated by circulating lymphocytes because
A. lymphocytes cannot engulf microbes attached to tissue.
B. Gram-positive microbes don't have an exotoxin surface molecule to trigger an immune response.
C. these microbes become covered in platelets and fibrin which is not recognized as foreign by the immune
system.
D. lymphocytes do not circulate through the heart valves to detect the presence of microbes.
c
255
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding subacute endocarditis?
A. It is caused by autoantibodies that inappropriately target heart and valve tissue.
B. It occurs exclusively in patients that have prior heart damage.
C. Bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in biofilm growth.
D. It can be caused by oral bacteria tNhaUtRarSeIinNtroGdKucIeNdGto.thCeObMlood by dental procedure
a
256
```
The causative agent of Lyme disease is ______.
A. Leptospirainterrogans
B. Ixodes pacificus
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia hermsii
E. Ixodes scapularis
```
c
257
Which of the following statements regarding the Epstein-Barr virus is incorrect?
A. The virus has a 30-50 day incubation period.
B. The virus is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva.
C. An infection typically requires hospitalization for about a week.
D. An infection results in sudden leukocytosis.
E. Transmission has been documented through contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.
258
Several infections of the cardiovascular system can be identified by inspecting a stained blood smear in the microscope. For the following infections, identify the microscope observation that does not fit the disease.
A. Chagas disease; protozoan visible among blood cells
B. Malaria; ring trophozoites visible inside red blood cells
C. Epstein-Barr virus; virus visible inside red blood cells
D. Babesiosis; protozoan visible inside red blood cells
c
259
```
The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______.
A. competitiveinhibition B. synergism
C. prebiotics
D. prophylaxis
E. lantibiotics
```
d
260
A common cardiovascular/lymphatic system disease in AIDS patients is ______.
A. brucellosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma C. cytomegalovirus D. ehrlichiosis
E. acuteendocarditis
b
261
```
Malaria may be prevented by
A. usingbednetssprayedwithinsecticide.
B. eliminatingstandingwater.
C. taking prophylactic drugs.
D. using genetically engineered mosquitoes.
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
```
e
262
```
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is ______.
A. Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. myeloma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. melanoma
E. leukemia
```
c
263
neumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
A. lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane.
B. isabacterium.
C. is an obligate parasite.
D. causes serious infection in the elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients.
d
264
```
Which opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candidaalbicans
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
```
d
265
The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is _______. A. exotoxin
B. directcontact
C. indirect contact
D. endogenous infection E. dropletcontact
d
266
```
The most common causative agent of otitis media is ______.
A. Aspergillusfumigatus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Candida albicans
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
```
e
267
```
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except _______.
A. scarletfever
B. otitis media
C. rheumatic fever
D. glomerulonephritis
```
b
268
```
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is ______.
A. catalase
B. reversetranscriptase C. hyaluronidase
D. neuraminidase
E. kinase
```
d
269
What is the function of normal biota of the respiratory tract?
A. Competes with pathogens for resources and space
B. Microbial antagonism
C. Provides antibodies
D. Both [competes with pathogens for resources and space] and [microbial antagonism] are correct.
E. All of these three functions are correct.
d
270
Which of the following is not true of bubonic plague?
A. An infection can progress to septicemia.
B. It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
C. A patient exhibits fever, headache, nausea, and weakness.
D. A patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
E. It is caused by Yersinia pestis.
b
271
Tuberculin skin testing
A. involves the injection of PPD intradermally.
B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
D. will be positive in active TB.
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect.
E
272
```
Extrapulmonary TB is more common in
A. young children and immunosuppressed patients. B. theelderly.
C. organ transplant patients.
D. AIDSpatients.
E. Allofthechoicesarecorrect
```
A
273
One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that
A. the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies. B. the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve
the gastrointestinal tract.
C. the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection. D. the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms.
D
274
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
A. Has birds as a reservoir
B. Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia
C. Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, and headache
D. After 2 to 3 weeks, develops into an unproductive cough and earache
E. Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall
a
