Mini CPE #2/Big CPE Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Steroidal drug family
A
Prednisolone Sodium Succinate (Solu-Delta Cortef)
Methylprednisolone Acetate (Depo-Medrol)
2
Q
NSAID family
A
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Deracoxib (Deramaxx)
Meloxicam (Metacam)
Carprofen (Rimadyl)
Ibuprofen (Advil/Motrin)
Flunixin Meglumine (Banamine)
Phenylbutazone (Butazolidin)
Firocoxib (Previcox) “Bute”
3
Q
Sulfonamide Family
A
Sulfadimethoxine (Bactrovet, Albon)
4
Q
Fluoroquinolone Family
A
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Entrofloxacin (Baytril)
5
Q
Penicillin Family
A
Amoxicillin Trihydrate and Clavulate K (Clavamox)
6
Q
Diuretic
A
Furosemide (Lasix)
7
Q
Antiparasitic Family
A
Ivermectine (Heartguard)
Mibemycin Oxime (Interceptor)
Fenbendazole (Panacur)
Praziquantel (Droncit)
8
Q
Antibacterial Family
A
Abtirobe (Clindamycin Hydrochloride)
9
Q
GI Tract Inhibitors
A
Cimetidine (Tagament)
Famotidine (Pepcid)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
10
Q
Antibacterial, Antiparasitic, Antiprotozoal Family
A
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Ampicillin + Sulbactin (Unasyn)
11
Q
Antiulcer agent
A
Carafate (Sulcralfate)
12
Q
Antithyroid agent
A
Methimazole (Tapazole)
13
Q
Nutritional Supplement
A
Glucosamine + Chondroitin Sulfate (Cosequin, Glycoflex)
14
Q
What are the 2 drugs found in Telezol?
A
Tiletamine HCL + Zolazepam HCL
15
Q
What 2 things are you listening for with an esophageal stethoscope? How do you measure how far you insert it?
A
- Take heart rate and listen for murmurs
2. Measure from the tip of the nose to mid-sternum
16
Q
What are the steps for making a urinary sediment slide?
A
- Fill cinical tube with urine sample
- Centrifuge sample at 1500rpm for 3-5 minutes
- Pour off supernatent
- Re-suspend sediment
- Tap onto slide
- Scan 10x, examine with 40x and low light
17
Q
What objective is used for fecal cytology?
A
100x
18
Q
What objective is used for urinary sediment final analysis?
A
40x
19
Q
What objective is used for fecal direct to ID Giardia?
A
40x
20
Q
What objective is used for Gram stained slides?
A
100x
21
Q
What objective is used for WBC diff?
A
40x
22
Q
What objective is used for RBC morphology and platelet estimate?
A
100x
23
Q
Preventing pain before onset is called?
A
Pre-emptive analgesia
24
Q
A neuroleptanalgesic is a combo of a tranquilizer, sedative and
A
Opioid
25
Soda lime granuales absorb?
CO2
26
NRB system does not use CO2 absorber?
True
27
Pop - off valve should always remain open during anesthesia?
True
28
The O2 fills the reservior bag with pure O2 on a RB system?
True
29
Passive scavenge canisters contain?
Charcoal and last for 12 hours or added weight of 50 grams
30
How many steps are there for a NRB system?
Three steps:
1. Hook up fresh gas hose to outlet port on precision vaporizer
2. Attach the scavenge hose directly to the passive scavenge canister
3. Ensure pop-off valve is open on the end of the reservior bag
31
How many steps are there for a RB system?
Four steps:
1. Attach Y-tubing to inhalation and exhalation ports
2. Attach the reservior bag to the reservior port
3. Attach the scavenge tubing to the scavenge port
4. Ensure the pop-off valve is open
32
Captive turtles require sunlight or what type of light? In order to synthesize vitamin?
1. UVB light
| 2. Vitamin D
33
Snuffles is a respiratory infection in what animal? And what is it caused by?
1. Rabbit
| 2. Pasteurella multocida
34
What is the cranial landmark for determining the cranial limit of an abdominal film?
Xiphoid process
35
What are the characteristics of Anticholinergics?
1. Decrease secretions
2. Prevents bradycardia
3. Causes mydriasis
4. Decreases vagal nerve stimulation
5. Decrease GI motility
36
What are the characteristics of Acepromazine?
1. Anti-emetic
2. Lowers seizure thresh hold
3. Is NOT a controlled substance
4. NOT analgesic
5. Causes hypotension
6. Phenothiazine tranqualizer
7. NOT reversible
37
The acetabulum is a part of what joint?
Coxofemoral joint
38
An underexposed film is too?
Light
39
An over exposed film is too?
Dark
40
A thoracic radiograph should be taken?
Inspiration
41
1/40 of a second is (slower or faster) than 1/100 of a second?
Slower
42
Air appears what color on a radiograph?
Black
43
Extremity radiographs should be taken?
On the table
44
The olecranon is located?
The proximal end of the ulna
45
Barium is radiopaque and will appear how on a radiograph?
White
46
KVP settings have an impact on?
Radiograph contrast
47
MAS is a measure of?
Total amount of x-ray produced
48
If your radiograph turns out overexposed, the image is too dark. How should you correct this?
Decrease MAS or KVP
49
Hyperglycemis and glucosuria are indicative of?
DM
50
Elevated cortisol is indicative of?
1. Hyperadrenocortism (Cushing's) common in dogs
2. Due to increase in amounts of circulating cortisol
Four common causes:
1. PDH most common (Benign pituitary tumor - secretes excessive ACTH
2. AT adrenal tumor - secretes cortisol autonomonusly, regardless of levels in the body
3. Iatrogenic
4. Hypothalmic dz - tumor on hypothalmus
51
What are the clinical signs of Hyperadrenocorticim?
1. PU/PD
2. Haircoat changes
- alopecia
- dermatitis
- thin skin
- plugged follicles
- panting
- lethargy
- muscle weakness
3. Abdominal distension due to hepatomegaly and relaxation of abdominal muscles
52
Decreased Na+ and decreased K+ are indicative of?
1. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's)
- Adrenal failure
- Primary hypoadrenocorticism (most common)
2. Due to deficiency of glucocorticoids
- Cortisol and mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone)
3. Adrenal glands have atrophied
4. Iatrogenic due to not weaning off of steroids properly
53
What are the clinical signs of Hypoadrenocorticism?
1. ADR
2. GI signs
3. Decreased Na+ and increased K+
54
Increased TSH/higher T4 is indicative of?
Hypothyroidism primarily seen in dogs
55
What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism?
1. Alopecia
2. Poor hair coat, coarse, brittle, rat tail
3. Appearence lethargy obesity due to cholesterol not breaking down
4. May develop secondary megaesophagus
56
Increased ACTH is indicative of what?
PDH - Pituitary Dependant Hyperadrenocorticism
57
Increased serum bile acids are indicative of?
Hepatic dysfunction
58
Increased T3/T4 is indicative of?
Hyperthyroidism
| - common in cats >9 years
59
What are the clinical signs for hyperthroidism?
1. Weight lossdespite PU/PD
2. Hyperactivity
3. Tachycardia
4. Vocalization changes
5. Cardiac dz
6. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
7. Palpable thyroid gland
60
Cats tend to have hyperthyroidism caused by? Dogs tend to have it caused by?
1. Thyroid adenoma
| 2. A benign tumor thyroid adenocarcinoma (malignant tumor)
61
ALT is a liver specific enzyme in dogs and cats?
True
62
ALP, (Alkaline phosphatase is produced by oeteoblasts, and chondroblasts and can be normally elevated in?
Young growing animals
63
An elevated ALK Phos in a mature animal could indicate?
HBO/Cholestasis
64
What are 3 things that can cause a relative increase in BUN and Creatine? What kind of azotemia would this be classified as?
3 things:
1. Dehydration
2. Shock
3. Hypotension
Pre-renal azotemia
65
Azotemia is an increase in?
Non-protein nitrogenous wastes in the blood, specifically BUN and Creatinine
66
What will you see with Pre-renal azotemia?
1. Increased BUN. increased Creat, increased USG
2. Concentrated urine can be due to poor renal perfusion:
- dehydration
- Shock
- hypovolemia
- CHF
67
What will you see with Post-renal azotemia?
1. Increased BUN. increased Creat, increased USG
2. Concentrated urine (kidney's are functioning)
3. Urinary obstruction
4. Urinary tract rupture = EMERGENCY
- can go back to Pre-renal if left untreated
- icreased PCV, and V/D when it does
68
An animal with eclampsia will have decreased Ca+. This tends to occur in nursing females
True
69
Liver dz cause elevated?
```
ALT
AST
GGT
ALP
Dbili
Chol
decreased BUN, ALB, GLOB
```
70
An elevated amalase and lipase indicates?
Pancreatitis
71
ACTH stimulation tets can be used to diagnose?
Hyperadrenocorticism and hypoadrenocorticism
72
An animal with DM produces decreased insulin, which results in hypergylcemia?
True
73
An anethetized patient who is hyperventilating would develop increased ETCO2 and respiratory acidosis?
True
74
A patient with metabolic acidosis would have an decreased pH and a decreased TCO2?
True
75
List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of most soluable to least soluable.
1. Halothane
2. Isoflorane
3. Sevoflorane
76
List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of fastest to slowest in regards to solubility.
1. Sevoflorane
2. Isoflorane
3. Halothane
77
List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of highest MAC value.
1. Sevoflorane
2. Isoflorane
3. Halothane
78
What does the ABCD's of resuscitation stand for?
1. Airway
2. Breathing
3. Circulation
4. Drugs
79
Is vomiting is a side effect of Morphine?
True
80
What are some side effects of Alpha-2-agonist?
1. Peripheral vasoconstriction which causes pale mm and increased CRT
2. Bradycardia
3. Arrythmias
- Especially heart blocks
4. Hypotension
5. Respiratory depression
6. Hypothermia
81
Acepromazine is a Phenothiazine tranquilizer that is not a controlled substance what is some of its effects?
1. Not reversable
2. EPILEPTOGENIC
3. Anti-emetic
4. Depresses thermoregulation center
5. Lowers seizure threshold
6. Hypotension
82
What are the general effects of Benzodiazepine tranquilizers?
1. Cause minimal CNS depression
2. Skeletal muscle relaxation
- used to counteract muscle rigidity
3. ANTICONVULSANT
4. Appetite stimulant in cats
5. Ataxia
6. Can cause skin sloughing if given outside the vein
83
The best route of giving Diazepam is?
IV, Slowley
84
What are 3 classes of Barbiturates?
1. Thiopental (short - acting)
- Methohexital (ultra - short acting)
2. Pentobarbital (Intermediate acting)
3. Phenobarbital (long - acting)
85
What are some side effects of Barbiturates when using them as an induction agent?
1. Anti - convulsant
2. Excitation during induction and recovary
3. Respiratory depression
4. Apnea
5. Can significantly depress CVS if given rapidly or in high doses
6. Hypothermia
86
Cyclohexamines are?
Dissociatives
87
General characteristics of Cyclohexamines?
1. Provide significant analgesia to skin and limbs
2. Viceral analgesia is poor
3. Metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney's
4. Cannot be reversed
5. Tissue irritation
6. Ptyalism
7. Increased CSF pressure
8. Eyes remain open, central and dilated pupils
88
What are 2 Cyclohexamine drugs?
1. Ketamine
| 2. Tiletamine
89
What are the 2 toxic substances in chocolate? What chocolate has more of it?
1. Caffeine and theobromine
| 2. Unsweetened bakers chocolate
90
Heinz bodies can be caused by ingestion of what?
1. Onions
| 2. Pennies (zinc)
91
Ingestion of onions, pennies (zinc) can cause what type of anemia?
Hemolytic anemia
92
Developing times
Develop for 3 min at 68 degrees
- decrease time by 30 sec for every degree below
- increase time by 30 sec for every degree above
(never greater than 5 min)
93
Fixing time
2 times the developing time
94
Clearing time
Minimum of 20 sec
95
Rinsing times
1. Between developing and fixing 30 sec
| 2. Final rinse (approx. 10 min)
96
Caliper
1. Measures in cm
2. Measure at the thickest point
3. Abdomen - measure at the 13th rib
4. Thorax - measure at the 9th rib
5. Rear extremity - measure distal femur
6. Front extremity - measure the distal humerus
97
Large animal IM injection sites
1. Neck
- Dorsal: Nuchal ligament (origination or the mane)
- Caudal: Scapula
- Ventral: Cervical verterbrae
2. Hind limb/hamstrings
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
98
Pulse sites in a horse
1. Transverse facial artery
2. Facial/submandibular artery
3. Lateral dorsal metatarsal artery
99
Poll/nuchal crest
Knot between the ears to occiput
100
Withers
Point of scapula, were the neck and back meet
| - dorsal spinous process
101
Carpus
Knee
102
Metacarpals
Medial splint (M2), Cannon (M3), Lateral splint (M4)
103
Fetlock joint
Metacarpophalangeal joint
104
Pastern joint
Proximal Interphlanageal joint
105
Coffin joint
Distal Interphlanageal joint
106
Hoof
1. Hoof wall
2. White line
3. Sole
4. Frog
5. Sulci
6. Bulb of heel
107
Frog
Triangle shaped fleshy part underneath the hoof
108
Sole
White are around the frog
109
Wing of Ilium
Point of the hip
110
Stifle
True knee, femorotibial joint
111
Tarsus "hock"
Between tibia and metatrsals
| - Calcanean tuberosity
112
Metatarsals
Medial and lateral splints (M2 & M4) & Cannon (M3)
113
Splint bones
Metacarpal/tarsal bones II & IV
114
Proximal sesamoid bones
Distal end of cannon bone (fore and hindlimbs)
115
P1/Long pastern
Proximal phalanx
116
P2/Short pastern
Middle phalanx
117
P3/Coffin bone
Distal phalanx
118
Navicular bone
Distal sesamoid bone
119
Croup
Rump
120
Zygomatic arch
Above eye
121
Facial crest
Below eye
122
TPR in the equine
Temp: 99.5 - 100.5 degrees F
Pulse: 35-45 BPM
Resp: 10-12 RPM
123
Equine formulas
Dental: 2(I 3/3, C 0-1/0-1, PM 4/3, M 3/3) = 36-42 teeth
Vertebral: C7, T 18. L 5-6, Ca 15-21
Gestation: 11 months (335 days)
124
Balling gun
Administer a bolus in cattle
125
Dose syringe
Rinse out mouth, give liquid medication
126
Elastrator
Used for closed casteration (has the ''X'' at the jaw)
127
Emasculator
Used for open casteration (has sharp blades)
128
Back pour cup
Administer topical medications
129
Mouth speculums
Hold the mouth open during dental examinations
130
Dental float
To smooth teeth that have rough edges or are overgrown
131
Speculum
Open the vaginal vault to pass swabs or tubes into the uterus or bladder
132
Hoof rasp
To smooth the rough edges of the hoof wall after trimming
133
Hog snare
Capture and hold a hog for venipuncture, injections or other procedures
134
Hoof trimmer for Sheep and Goats
To trim excess hoof material. Pointed and sharp
135
Barnes Dehorner
Remove small horns from calves, goats, and sheep
136
Electric dehorner
Remove horn buds by killing the cells that produce horns or to cauterize blood vessels after dehorning
137
Hoof Tester
To check through a hoof wall for abscesses or sore spots
138
Obstetrical chains and handles
Assist with delivery of a calf
139
Nose lead
To control the head by applying pressure to the nasal septum
140
Strongylus vulgaris
Blood worm
141
Oxyuris equi
Pin worm - scotch tape prep
142
Habronema spp.
Summer sores
143
The Coggins test is used to diagnose?
Equine Infectious Anemia
144
Give the 3 most common most distal joints in an equine front leg
1. Fetlock joint
2. Pastern joint
3. Coffin joint
145
Which lab animal requires supplementary vitamin C in there diet?
Guinea pigs and non-human primates
146
Streptococcus equi
1. Beta hemolytic
2. Lancefield group C
3. Equine strangles
4. Immunization (stangles bacterin)
147
Streptococcus dysgalactiae
Minor cause of bovine mastitis
148
Streptococcus suis
1. Alpha hemolytic
2. Lancefield group D.R.S
3. Pathyogenic for young pigs
- Meningitis
- Septicemia
- Pneumonia
- Arthritis
149
Streptococcus pnuemoniae
Important cause of pneumonia in guinea pigs
150
Streptococcus aureus
MRSA, Most common Bovine mastitis
151
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
1. Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) - sheep, goats
2. Ulcerative lymphangitis - horses, mules (common name "dryland distemper", "pigeon fever"
- Swollen chest
- Can cause lameness
152
Corynebacterium renale
1. Cattle: bovine pyelonephritis, cystitis
| 2. Sheep: "Pizzle rot"
153
Listeria monocytogenes
Circling dz - cattle, sheep
154
Clostridium chauvoei
Black leg dz
155
Clostridium haemolyticum
Red water dz
156
Actinomyces bovis
Lumpy jaw
157
Brucella abortus
Bangs dz in cattle
158
Moraxella bovis
IBK (Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis) "Pink eye"
159
Fusobacterium spp.
Thrush in horses
160
What are some viral infections in horses?
1. EEE
2. EIA
3. West Nile
4. Vesticular stomatitis
161
Enteropathogenic E. coli K99 most common cause
Calf Scours
162
Immunization Bovine brucellosis
1. RB51 immunization
2. Female calves 4-12 mos
3. Right ear tattoo, tagged with orange tag
163
Campylobacter jejuni/coli
1. Wet tail hamsters
| 2. Winter dysentery in cattle, sheep
164
Mycobacterium bovis
Pulmonary TB
165
Chlamydophilia psittaci
Parrot fever
166
Ehrlichia risticii
1. New name Neorickettsia risticii
2. Potomac horse fever - 1st discovered in Maryland
3. Most common vector flies
167
Canine distemper virus "Hard pad dz"
1. Highly contagious affects all canids also ferrets,minks,skunks,raccoons and pandas
2. Paramyxovirus-family, Morbilli virus-Genus
3. Transmission
- Aerosol main source
- Transplacental
4. DHLLP
168
Infectious Canine Hepatitis (CAV-1)
1. Multisystemic viral dz
2. Affects dogs and foxes
3. Virus: Canine Adenovirus (CAV-1)
4. DHLLP or DA2LPP (A2 = CAV-2)
169
Canine Parvo Virus
1. Viral infection that causes an acute gastroenteritis
2. CVP-2 Parvovirus
3. DHLPP
170
Canine infectious Tracheobronchitis (Kennel cough)
1. Contagious respiratory dz "cold like"
2. Bacterial: Bordetella bronchiseptica
3. Viral: Parainfluenza, CAV-2 and Herpes virus
4. Aerosol #1 in dogs, Fomites #2 in cats
5. VX
- Bacterial: Bordetella bronciseptica bactrin
- Viral: Parainfluenza DHLPP (CAV-2)
- Herpes no
171
Canine Leptospirosis
1. Bacterial dz of humans and other animals
2. Affects kidneys and liver
3. Spirochete
4. Leptospira interrogans, Grippotyphosa (Colorado)
5. Zoonotic
6. DHLPP
172
What are the three stages of Leptospirosis?
1. Acute: Non-specific
2. Convalescent: Bacteria in liver. Kidneys and eyes
3. Chronic/carrier
173
Canine Influenza Virus (CIV)
1. Highly contagious respiratory infection in dogs only
2. Noval virus
3. Vaccine on the market is Intervet
174
Feline Panleukopenia
1. Viral dz causing severe gastroenteritis
2. Virus: Parvo virus
3. FVRCP
175
Feline upper respiratory tract disease
1. Contagious occulonasal discharge and sneezing
2. Viral: Feline viral
Rhinotracheitis: Herpes virus (FHV-1) Feline Calicivirus
Bacteria: Chlamydia (Chlamydoplia felis)
3. Direct contact, FOMITES
4. FVRCCP
176
Feline Leukemia Virus
1. Viral dz of cats that causes bone marrow and immune system suppression
2. Retrovirus, an oncorna virus
3. FeLV
177
Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
1. Viral dz of cats that causes bone marrow suppression and immunodeficiency
2. Retrovirus, Lentivirus (slow virus)
178
What are the 3 stages of FIV?
1. Acute: Generalized lymphadenomegaly, bacterial infections of the skin or GI tract
2. Latent: Non-systomatic
3. Chronis: Stomatitis, gingivitis, diarrhea, resp. infections, FUO
179
Feline Infectious Peritonitis
1. Highly fatal viral dz in cats
2. Fatal corona virus
3. FIP
180
What are the 2 types of FIP?
1. Effusive (wet) form produces fluid in abdomen or chest
| 2. Non-Effusive (dry) form is more chronic. Granulomas form in GI tract
181
DHLPP+C
1. 3 Shot series (8, 12, 16 wks)
| 2. Distemper, Hepatitis(adenovirus), Leptospirosis, Parvovirus Parainfluenza, Corona virus
182
FVRCP+C
1. 3 Shot series (8, 12, 16 wks)
| 2. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis, Calci virus, Panleukopenia, Chlamydia
183
Megaesophagus
Paralysis/dilation of esophagus, regurgitation, secondary to trauma or other pathology
184
Vascular ring abnormality
Retention of embryonic right aortic arch, esophagus is trapped between aorta, base of heart, ligamentum arteriosis, plum artery
185
Spirocerca Lupi neoplasia
Esophageal worm-causing regurgitation +/- vomiting
186
Gastro-esophageal reflex
Caused by incomplete closure of cardiac sphincter, hiatal hernia; regurgitation of stomach and duodenal contents(bile). Early morning late night after sleeping
187
Gingivitis
Inflammation of gingiva
188
Periodontal dz
Bacterial infection in periodontal pocket affects gums and alveolar bone
189
Papillomatosis
Benign tumor of dogs, poliferative, cauliflower mass
190
Epulis
Benign tumor of dogs, pedunculated stalk
191
Malignant melanoma
#1 in dogs ulcerated proliferative mass on lip or gingiva
192
Squamous cell carcinoma
#1 in cats, #2 in dogs raised ulcer
193
Fibroscarcoma
#2 in cats, #3 in dogs, large breed young dogs, other breed old dogs and old cats
194
Sialocele (salivary gland cyst)
Salivary gland, sub lingual gland and duct
195
Dental Hoe
Removes supragingival plague
196
Periodontal elevator
Brakes down periodontal ligaments to aid in tooth removal
197
Periodontal Probe
To determine gingival sulcus depth
198
Curette
To help remove subgingival tartar
199
Extraction forcepts
To extract teeth
200
Tartar forcepts
To chip off big pieces of tarter
