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Miniblock 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Of the >1400 species of pathogens that can infect humans, zoonoses account for __%

A

61

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2
Q

Zoonoses account for __% of emerging diseases.

A

75

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3
Q

Define reservoir

A

habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies (humans, animals, or the environment)

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4
Q

List and define the different modes/routes of transmission.

A

Vertical & horizontal(direct(projection & contact) & indirect(vehicle(fomite & common vehicle) & vector (biological & mechanical))

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5
Q

What are the 3 q’s asked when figuring out if something is a reservoir.

A
  1. Is it naturally infected with the pathogen?
  2. Can that species of animal (etc.) maintain the
    pathogen over time?
  3. Can this source transmit the disease to a new, susceptible host?
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6
Q

T/F and explain why.

Infection is the same as disease and/or infectivity.

A

F.

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7
Q

What type of curve will show an exposure followed by waves of secondary and tertiary cases? It is also associated with contagious diseases.

A

Propagated source

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8
Q

What type of curve will show all animals exposed at once to the same source of infection allowing you to determine a minimum, average, and maximum incubation time?

A

Common source single point exposure

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9
Q

What type of curve uses animals exposed at different times but to the same source? Incubation period is not clearly shown on this curve.

A

Common source with intermittent exposure

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10
Q

What are the 3 big factors that affect the shape of an epidemiological curve? Give examples for each.

A 
Host:
– immunity or other resistance to disease
– direct transmission 
Agent:
– infectiousness of agent
– latent and incubation periods
– duration of an activity
 Environment:
 – especially important for indirect routes of transmission
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11
Q

What are the 4 determinants needed when assessing if an animals is at risk?

A

Primary, secondary, intrinsic, and extrinsic.

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12
Q

Compare primary to secondary determinant.

A

Primary is a major contributing factor (usually necessary), as where secondary is a factor that makes the disease more or less likely (predisposing or enabling).

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13
Q

Compare intrinsic to extrinsic determinants.

A

Intrinsic is internal (age, breed, sex). Extrinsic is outside factors such as housing or medical treatment.

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14
Q

Using bovine shipping fever as an example give a primary and secondary factor for both intrinsic and extrinsic.

A

IP: immuno naïve animals
IS: young animals
EP: exposure to shipping fever
ES: mixing Cattle

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15
Q

Out of host, agent, and environment which 2 are extrinsic factors? Give examples of each.

A

Agent:
activity, pathogenicity, the arguments, immunogenicity, mutation rate, resistance

environment:
demographics, climate, housing, crowding/density, diet, stress.

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16
Q

Out of host, agents, and environment which 1 is an intrinsic factor? Give examples.

A

Host:

age, sex & behavior, genotype, greed, nutrition, and immunity.

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17
Q

What is the idea behind herd immunity?

A

Infectious diseases can be contained in the population’s resistance to infection is higher enough.

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18
Q

True or false, correct if false: emerging and reemerging diseases are the same thing.

A

False. Emerging is an unknown disease. A reemerging disease is a disease that was known and was on the decline, but has now become more common.

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19
Q

Name the 5 steps/stages of cross species disease emergence.

A
  1. Pathogen exclusive to an animal reservoir
  2. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals, but no transmission among them
  3. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals with a few cycles of transmission among them
  4. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals with sustained transmission among them
  5. Pathogen exclusive to humans/new animal reservoir
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20
Q

What are the 4 drivers to pathogen emergence?

A

– land use changes
– food and agricultural system
– human behavior
– environmental systems

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21
Q

What are the 4 major determinants of emergence? Name their subcategories.

A 
Pathogen:
– type of agent
– mutation/change
Reservoir:
– phylogenetic distance
Transmission:
 – reservoir size
– pathogen prevalence
– contact frequency
Host:
– susceptibility
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22
Q

True or false: the zoonotic pathogens are twice as likely to be associated with emerging diseases.

A

True

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23
Q

What makes pathogen adaptation and change so dangerous?

A

It can enhance transmissibility within or between species. Can also allow for evasion of host immunity.

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24
Q

Why is phylogenetic distance between reservoir and new host important?

A

Pathogens are more likely to cross between closely related species and distant ones. (Best transmission is within the same species)
*pathogens that somehow cross between distantly related species often cause different, often more severe disease.

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25
Why is the new species important to disease emergence?
Because of susceptibility. The animal might be in immuno compromised allowing for easier infection.
26
What factors can increase transmission?
-Increase abundance of reservoir – increasing pathogen prevalence in the reservoir – increasing contact between the reservoir and the new host. – Development and changing ecosystems – animal trade – travel and tourism – intentional release (bioterrorism EX: anthrax in US in 2001)
27
What are the 4 portals of entry for transboundary disease?
-Animals/animal products (global legal and trade, importation of life animals/animal meat/products) – vectors – fomites – people
28
How can you prevent disease spread?
–Proper practice (responsible antimicrobial use, educate clients and the public) – small animals (healthy pets = healthy owners) – food animals (Healthy food animals = reduced burden of pathogens at slaughter, food inspection, improving biosecurity security for both commercial and backyard farms)
29
How can you control animal disease outbreak? Select all that apply. A.Mass culling B. Quarantine C. Sacrifice the firstborn D. test and slaughter E. vaccination/ring vaccination F. Prophylactic antibiotic use G. All are reasonable ways to control disease outbreak H. None of these are reasonable ways to control disease outbreak
A, B, D, E, F
30
Name the four phases of disaster management.
Mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery.
31
Describe mitigation.
It is an attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters altogether or to reduce the effects of disasters they.
32
What are the three long-term measures they need to focus on that involved with mitigation?
Part of recovery can be structural can be nonstructural (procedural changes)
33
Describe preparedness.
Plans and preparations made to save lives and property, and to facilitate response operations. *Provisions to ensure that all resources/services needed to cope with a disaster can be rapidly mobilized and
34
List few examples of veterinary preparedness.
Emergency lighting, multiple exits, unobstructed escape, emergency and evacuation plans. *Other is listed on slide 17 of disaster management set.
35
Provide an example of a response.
Static and medical clinics.
36
Give an example of recovery.
Reconstructing physical structures.
37
``` Which of the below is a companion animal issue in disasters? A. Adoption B. Carcass disposal C. Animal abandonment D. All of the above E. Two of the above ```
E. (A and C) | *more on slide 20 of disastermanagement
38
Name a few special considerations with large animal infectious disease outbreak.
``` – veterinary manpower –carcass disposal from casualties – animal identification and premise ID – time from diagnosis to slaughter *rest on slide 21 ofdisaster management said ```
39
Why are veterinarians part of the disaster management team?
–They're trust members of the community, and trained advisor to local authorities. *rest on slide 22 of disaster management set
40
What does CART stand for? What is it?
County animal response team. –Intended for use by local governments and agencies to take immediate action providing a means of care to minimize and suffering of the large-scale disaster. –Utilizes local resources. – Establish relationships with local agencies (Ex. EM, Sheriff, buyer, animal control, Ag Ext) – familiarity with territory and special consideration (special populations/features)
41
What does SART stand for? What is it?
State animal response team – interagency organization dedicated to preparing, planning, responding, and recovering during animal emergencies – public-private partnerships, joining governmental agencies with private goals – training to facilitate a safe and efficient response to disasters on the local, county, state and federal level
42
What level is requested when the local veterinary community is overwhelmed (example. Clinic's, shelters, EM teams, farms, local animal response teams)? (Gen. group not each specific name)
Federal level veterinarian involvement in animal disaster response
43
What groups fall under federal level veterinary involvement in animal disasters? (Four)
– veterinary medical assistance team (VMAT) – national veterinary response to (NVRT) – national animal health emergency response Corp. (NAHERC) – US Public health service
44
What are the three primary functions of VMAT?
– early assessment volunteer teams – basic treatment volunteer teams – training
45
What are the responsibilities of NVRT?(10)
46
What is NFR and what does it stand for?
It stands for national response framework (previously the national response plan), and it establishes a comprehensive, national, all hazards approach to domestic incident response.
47
True or false: the NRF is only in effect when needed.
False. It is always in effect, can be partially or fully implement.
48
What are the 15 ESFs?
-Transportation -Telecommunications and technology -Public Works and engineering -Firefighting -Emergency management management -Mass care, housing, human services -Resource support -Public health and medical services -Urban search and rescue -Oil and hazardous materials response -Agriculture and Natural Resource -Energy -Public Safety and Security -Community Recovery, Mitigation, and Economic Stabilization -Emergency Public Information and External Communications
49
What is ICS's 5 management functions?
``` – Incident command – logistics – operations (veterinarians primarily) – planning (veterinarians) – finance and administration ```
50
Why are diseases chosen to be monitored?
They either have an adverse impact on agriculture, or pose some form of human health risk.
51
What is OIE?
It is the world organization for animal health. He is responsible with internationally reportable diseases.
52
How fast must an OIE notifiable disease be reported in?
24 hours
53
Who is responsible for regulating all animal import and export the US?
USDA
54
What are the 8 enzootic animal diseases?
1. Brucellosis (livestock) aka “Bang’s disease” 2. Mycobacterium bovis aka “bovine TB” 3. M. avium paratuberculosis aka “Johne’s disease” 4. Pseudorabies 5. Prions: scrapie, BSE, CWD 6. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) aka “Coggins” 7. Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA) 8. Low pathogenicity avian influenza (LPAI)
55
True or false: each state has their own list of notifiable diseases of animals.
True
56
What is the role of the clinical veterinary?
They provide vaccinations and testing services for regulatory diseases. They also perform exams and complete health certificates for animal movement.
57
What is the role of the state/USDA veterinarian?
They monitor movement of animals between states and between countries, manage animal disease control programs, investigate possible cases of foreign/reportable diseases, investigating animal cruelty cases, provide guidance to veterinarians on "paperwork for import/export, testing, etc".
58
What does FAD stand for?
Foreign animal disease
59
What happens if an FAD is suspected?
Veterinarian with additional training in FAD's will be immediately dispatched.
60
Can any lab in the USA diagnose a FAD?
No, only a USDA lab.
61
What are the control measures for a FAD?(6)
– Quarantine zones for animals (and humans?) – Import/export or trade restrictions – Testing animals for disease/exposure – Biosecurity for farms in the region – Mass culling of all susceptible animals within a given distance of the outbreak – Ring vaccination or treatment of animals
62
What are the two different categories of being USDA accredited?
Category one: pets, lab animals, etc. | category two: food animals, horses, birds, zoo animals
63
Why do you need to the USDA accredited?
So you can write health certificates.
64
What are 2 common mistakes made in vet med?
– Withholding information | – over assurance of audience.

Epi/PH (2 decks)

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