Misc Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

What is the purpose of a wet-to-dry dressing?

A

non-selective debridement

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2
Q

What are the 3 superficial veins in the UE?

What are the 6 deep veins in the UE?

A
  • SUPERFICIAL*
  • cephalic
  • basilic
  • median cubital vein
  • DEEP*
  • subclavian
  • axillary
  • brachial
  • ulnar
  • radial
  • interosseous
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3
Q

What are the 2 superficial veins in the LE?

What are the 6 deep veins in the LE?

A
  • SUPERFICIAL*
  • greater saphenous
  • lesser saphenous
  • DEEP*
  • iliac
  • common femoral
  • deep femoral
  • femoral
  • popliteal
  • deep calf
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4
Q

General risk factors of VTE include Virchow’s triad which is:

A
  • stasis
  • endothelial trauma
  • hypercoagulable state
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5
Q

From most common to least what are the 5 cancers that cause VTE?

A
  1. lung
  2. pancreas
  3. colon
  4. kidney
  5. prostate
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6
Q

A younger patient with no other risk factors who presents with recurrent LEFT leg DVT should be worked up for this syndrome.

A

Mae-Thurner syndrome

important because this is one of the rare cases where you will need to stent a vein

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7
Q

Thrombophlebitis is often associated with what?

A

peripheral IV catheter placement

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8
Q

What are the 3 classic DVT symptoms?

A
  • pain
  • swelling (unilateral lower extremity edema)
  • erythema
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9
Q

A patient presents with sudden severe leg pain. On PE you notice he has unilateral swelling and edema that is extremely firm and non-palpable. What should this patient be worked up for?

NOT DVT but associated

A

Phlegmasia cerulea dolens

surgical emergency (thrombectomy) it is a limb threatening injury

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10
Q

What risk assessment tool is used for DVT?

A

Well’s Score

>3 = high probability (50-75%)
1-2 = mod probability (17%)
0 = low probability (5%)
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11
Q

What lab test is a good test to rule OUT DVT?

A

D-dimer

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12
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic imaging test for DVT?

A

ultrasound

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13
Q

If a patient is at a LOW risk for VTE what initial test should you start off with? Depending on that test’s results what do you do?

A
  • start off with D-dimer

If negative = ruled out DVT
If positive = obtain U/S

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14
Q

If a patient is at a MOD risk for VTE what initial test should you start off with? Depending on that test’s results what do you do?

A
  • start of with U/S

If positive = DVT
if negative = no DVT

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15
Q

If a patient is at a HIGH risk for VTE what initial test should you start off with? Depending on that test’s results what do you do?

A
  • start off with U/S

If positive = DVT
If negative = consider venography

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16
Q

What is the treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis?

A
  • local heat (warm compresses)
  • NSAIDs
  • remove catheter
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17
Q

What is the treatment for a hemodynamically stable DVT?

A
  • outpatient treatment with anticoagulation
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18
Q

What are the 3 anticoagulation treatment options for DVT?

A
  • IV heparin bridge to Coumadin
  • LMWH bridge to Coumadin
  • Oral factor Xa inhibitors
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19
Q

What is the difference in management for a unprovoked vs. provoked DVT?

A
  • unprovoked = indefinite a/c

- provoked = 3-6 months a/c

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20
Q

If a patient has a very low risk of VTE based on the Caprini score what is the treatment?

A

early ambulation

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21
Q

If a patient has a low risk of VTE based on the Caprini score what is the treatment?

A

mechanical prophylaxis

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22
Q

If a patient has a moderate risk of VTE based on the Caprini score what is the treatment?

A
  • mechanical prophylaxis

- pharm prophylaxis (low-dose)

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23
Q

If a patient has a high risk of VTE based on the Caprini score what is the treatment?

A
  • mechanical prophylaxis

- pharm prophylaxis (low-dose)

24
Q

What is the treatment for thoracic outlet syndrome?

A
  • remove the anterior scalene and the first rib
25
When examining for carotid artery disease which artery do we care about the most?
internal carotid artery
26
What is the treatment for carotid dissection?
anticoagulation
27
what is the mainstay diagnostic study for carotid artery disease?
carotid duplex ultrasound
28
If you want to rule out a stroke what diagnostic imaging study should you order?
CT scan
29
What is the goal of treatment for carotid artery disease?
stroke prevention
30
what is the first line surgical treatment for carotid stenosis?
carotid endarterectomy (CEA)
31
Which of the following ASYMPTOMATIC patients with carotid stenosis get surgery? a. <50% stenosis b. 50-69% stenosis c. >70% stenosis d. 100% occluded
c. >70% stenosis * all others are medically managed* * if you have complete occlusion DO NOT reopen them because that will increase risk of clot*
32
Which of the following SYMPTOMATIC patients with carotid stenosis get surgery? a. <50% stenosis b. >50% stenosis c. 100% occluded
b. >50% stenosis | * think about Mr. Herring here*
33
If a patient has carotid stenosis and presents with a TIA how soon should he have surgery?
ASAP cut off is 2 weeks!!!
34
What is Hering's nerve?
branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) that innervates the baroreceptors of the carotid sinus and the chemoreceptors in the carotid body.
35
If someone needs acute dialysis what type of catheter will they get?
temporary dialysis catheter
36
When you are using an ash split catheter for hemodialysis what do you need to make sure to do first?
- DO NOT FLUSH | - remove the pre-stored heparin first
37
How do you manage an infection d/t hemodialysis?
- remove catheter and replace in 1-2 days - antibiotics - protocol for catheter care
38
How do you manage a fibrin sheath d/t hemodialysis?
- catheter striping and exchange
39
How do you manage a catheter thrombosis d/t hemodialysis?
- cathflo (Alteplase) installation protocol | - catheter replacement
40
How do you manage an exposed cuff d/t hemodialysis?
- catheter exchange
41
How do you manage a central venous stenosis d/t hemodialysis?
angioplasty
42
What is the best first choice for dialysis access and why?
- Arteriovenous fistula (AVF) - lower infection rates - higher flow rates - lower risk of thrombosis - better long-term patency
43
Why is a fistula better than a graft for dialysis access?
- if a graft gets infected it needs to come out
44
What location do you want to start with for an AVF for dialysis?
- radiocephalic | * move from distal to proximal*
45
A normal fistula that is functioning properly will have this present daily.
- thrill/bruit | * need to check everyday*
46
What are the 8 points relating to dialysis access patient care/education?
- check trill daily - avoid tight clothing - avoid sleeping on the site - no heavy lifting - begin maturation exercises after a few weeks - monitor for infection - no BP/blood draws from the arm - call if thrill is absent
47
What is the Maturity Rule of 6's for a dialysis fistula?
- 6 weeks old - < 6mm deep - at least 6 mm in diameter - 600ml/min flow - if not mature by 6 weeks needs to re-evaluate
48
What is the arm elevation test used for and what do the results mean?
- assess for outflow stenosis in a dilated AVF | * if elevation of the arm DOES NOT cause vein collapse = outflow stenosis*
49
A patient who recently underwent dialysis presents with facial edema, a hoarse voice, distended neck, chest and arm veins. What should he be worked up for?
- superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome
50
what is the gold standard diagnostic study for SVC syndrome?
venogram
51
what are the 7 red flags for human trafficking
- someone else is speaking for the patient - not aware of location, time, date - exhibits fear, anxiety, PTSD, tension - shows signs of abuse, torture - reluctant to explain injury - not able to provide home address - not in possession of personal ID
52
communication errors are responsible for ____% of sentinel events
66%
53
what are the 4 standards of effective communication?
- complete - clear - brief - timely
54
what does the CUS work stand for?
- I am Concerned - I am Uncomfortable - This is a Safety issue
55
what does SBAR stand for?
- situation - background - assessment - recommendation
56
What is the goal INR with Coumadin?
2.0-3.0