Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the Five types of Incontinence

A
  1. Stress- Involuntary loss during exertion
  2. Urge- Loss with Urgency
  3. Mixed- Both Stress and Urge
  4. Overflow- Overfull bladder
  5. Reflex- Present with Neurologic Lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Female Athlete Triad?

A
  1. Eating Disorders
  2. Ammenorhea
  3. Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Independent and Dependent Variable

A

Independent Variable- The Variable manipulated by the researcher
Dependent Variable- The Variable Measured by the researcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Measurement Validity

A

An indication of whether the measurement is an accurate representation of the phenomenon of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe a Between Subjects/ Completely Randomized design

A

A Single Independent Variable is used and assigns different groups of subjects to each level of that variable
Each individual subject is measured on only one level of the independent variable (Three Different Braces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe a Within Subjects/ Repeated Measures Design

A

Uses a single independent variable and measures each subject under all levels of that variable
Each subject measured on all levels (Medication doses of 200, 400, 600 mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe a Factorial Design

A

Uses two or more independent variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe as Completely Randomized Factorial Design

A

Uses Two or more independent variables and each subject is tested at only one level of each variable
If two variables and three levels each, would require 9 groups of subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe a Within Subjects Factorial Design

A

Measures each subject in all levels of all variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe a Mixed Factorial Design

A
  • Measures at least one of the variables at only one level and at least one of the variables in all levels
  • Combination of between subjects and repeated measures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a correlation coefficient used?

A

To learn about the association between two variables
- (relationship between thigh girth and knee extensor force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is a Regression Analysis used?

A

When the question concerns prediction
- (If the pnt has 50-60 deg ROM the second day after surgery, how much longer will he remain in the hospital?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When would you use a Chi Square, ANOVA, or t-test?

A

To question whether a treatment has an effect
- (Does Spinal traction reduce the symptoms of root compression?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Sensitivity?

A

The proportion of patients with a disorder who also have a positive clinical test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Specificity?

A

The proportion of patients without the disorder who also have a negative clinical test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you calculate Positive Likelihood Ratios?

A

Sensitivity divided by 1 minus the Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you Calculate Negative Likelihood Ratio?

A

1- Sensitivity divided by the Specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Number Needed to Treat and how do you calculate it?

A
  • The number of people who need to be treated to affect a change in one person
  • One - Control Group divided by Experiment Group
  • Control Group and Experiment group are numbers of people per group who did not respond to the treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Briefly Describe the Convex-Concave rule

A

Convex on Concave - Opposite Directions
- Concave on Convex - Same Directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • Symmetric Arthritis of small joints in hand (except for DIPs)
  • Same in the Wrists, Feet, And Knees all with morning stiffness
  • Rheumatoid Factor may be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What X Ray changes occur with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Periarticular Osteopenia occurs first
Erosions may develop at joint margins
Loss of Joint Space, malalignment, and progressive Osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the most common hand deformities in RA?

A

Swan Neck
Boutoniere
Ulnar Deviation at MCPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the types of Juvenile RA?

A

Pauciarticular- Involving < or equal to 4 joints- Most Common
Polyarticular- Similar in Nature to Adult RA
Systemic Onset- Fever, Arthritis, Rash, and other organ involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some common blood tests to diagnose RA?

A

Rheumatoid Factor (Sensitive)
- Anti CCP Ab- Anticyclic Citrullinated peptide Antibodies (Specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What areas of the spine are affected by RA?
* The Synovium of the Odontoid Process and The Transverse Ligament that holds C2 to C1 via the Dens * RA can lead to Axis Joint Instability
26
What is a Darrach Procedure and when is it indicated?
Excision of the Distal Ulna For relief of pain following distal RU disruption and/or RU arthritis Typically used in the elderly with low physical demands
27
Describe Typical Lupus Arthtitis
Arthralgia without visible joint swelling When inflammation present, typically involves small joints of hands Arthritis is not erosive (unlike RA) although joint deformities may be seen
28
Name the Seronegative Arthropathies
Ankylosing Spondylitis Reiter Syndrome Psoriatic Arthritis Arthritis associated with inflammatory Bowel Disease These have an increased incidence of HLAB27 but negative in Rheumatoid Factor and Anti Nuclear Antibody
29
What is Reiter Syndrome?
A Seronegative arthropathy that is triggered by infection, typically Chlamydia, Shigella, or Yersinia
30
Name some typical findings of Ankylosing Spondylitis
Onset in late teens to 20s Insidious in nature Increase pain with rest Decreased pain with Activity +++Stiffness
31
What causes Gout and Pseudogout?
* Gout- Uric Acid Crystals in Synovial Joints * Pseudogout- Calcium Pyrophosphate
32
What is a typical onset of Gout?
* Begin with sudden onset of burning pain * Often Starts at Night * Joint appears red, Swollen, and hot to touch * Usually resolve within 7-10 days with RICE and NSAIDs
33
How is definitive diagnosis of Gout or Psuedogout made?
Examination of joint fluid under Microscope
34
What is differential Diagnosis of a single, red, hot joint?
* Infection * Gout * PsuedoGout * Rheumatoid Arthritis * Seronegative Arthropathy
35
What is Virchows Triad?
* Classic pathogenesis for Deep Vein Thrombosis * Endothelial Damage * Alteration in Blood Flow * Hypercoagulability
36
What are some symptoms of DVT?
* Calf Pain * Swelling * Warmth * Low Grade Fever * Palpable Cord and Pain along the course of the involved nerve
37
What is Homans Sign?
Calf Pain with Forced passive dorsiflexion - uses to assess for DVT
38
What are some common signs and symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?
* Pleuritic Chest Pain and Dyspnea * Tachycardia * Bulging Neck Veins
39
At what levels is the International Normalized Ration (INR) usually kept in order to prevent DVT?
Between 2 and 3
40
What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)?
Syndrome in which pain is out of proportion with injury and is characterized by Autonomic Dysregulation
41
Describe the signs of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)
* Burning Type Pain * Trophic Changes * Allodynia or pain with stimulus that does not normally cause pain
42
Describe the signs of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)
* Burning Type Pain * Trophic Changes * Allodynia or pain with stimulus that does not normally cause pain
43
What NMES settings should be used after Knee Surgery to help the quadriceps recover?
* 2500 Hz alternating current * 75 bursts per second * 2 second ramp up and down * 10 second stimulation with 50 second rest
43
What NMES settings should be used after Knee Surgery to help the quadriceps recover?
* 2500 Hz alternating current * 75 bursts per second * 2 second ramp up and down * 10 second stimulation with 50 second rest
44
Describe some settings of Ultrasound
Non Thermal- between .1 and .3 W/cm2 Thermal- Above .3 W/cm2 Deeper Penetration- 1MHz Shallow Pentration- 3 MHz
45
How do NSAIDs work?
* Inhibit the Synthesis of Prostaglandins * Prostaglandin Biosynthesis is catalyzed within the cell by the COX enxyme * NSAIDs inhibit the COX Enzyme so no Prostaglandin can be produced
46
What are PPV and NPV?
* Positive Predictive Value- the percentage of persons with a positive test result who actually have the disesae * Negative Predictive Value- The percentage of people with a negative test result who do not have the disease
47
What is Horner Syndrome?
An interruption of sympathetic nervous system innvervation to the head and face
48
What are common signs and symptoms of Horner Syndrome?
Ptosis- Droopy Eyelid Miosis- Constricted pupil Anhidrosis- Absence of sweat production All on the affected side of the face only
49
What are some common tests used to diagnose Developmental Dysplasia of the hips in infants?
Ortolani Sign Barlows Test Galeazzi sign
50
How is Developmental Dysplasia of the hips treated?
1.5 years- usually need open surgical reduction
51
What are some Brachial Plexus Palsies seen in infants?
Erb-Duchenne Palsy (C5-6) (Best Prognosis) Klumpkes Palsy (C8-T1) (Worse Prognosis) Complete Plexus Palsy (worst prognosis)
52
What is Osteochondritis Dissecans and How is it Treated?
* Necrotic Bone Lesion * Most common in knee in teenagers * Diagnosed with Radiology * Treatment is casting x 2-3 months, but if loose body present surgery is required
53
What is Osgood Schlatters and How is it Treated?
* Traction Apophysitis of the Tibial Tubercle in Skeletally immature patients * Treated with RICE, NSAIDs, Activity Modification and Stretching/Strengthening * Condition is self limiting and often resolves with skeletal maturity
54
What is Sinding Larsen Johanssen Syndrome?
Traction Apophysitis of the Distal Patellar Pole
55
What is Legg Calve Perthes and How is it Treated?
* Idiopathic Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head * Often seen in 4-12 year olds, more in boys * Treated with ROM into Abduction, maintaining the involved portion of the femoral head in the acetabulum * Sometimes Surgical procedure is required (Salters Osteotomy, Femoral Osteotomy)
56
What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis and How is it Treated?
* Displacement of the Capital Femoral Epiphysis * Often in obese boys, 10-16 years old * Limited Internal Rotation at Hip * Treatment usually require screw fixation
57
What is Nursemaids Elbow?
Dislocation of the Radial Head from the Annular Ligament - Reduction achieved with Supination
58
What are most common locations for plantar ulcers in patients with diabetes?
* First Metatarsal head * Fifth Metatarsal Head * Great Toe
59
What is the Arcade of Frohse, and why is it clinically relevant?
It is a fibrous arch and part of the supinator muscle in the forearm The radial nerve passes through this fibrous arch before becoming the Posterior Interosseous Branch This is a site of nerve entrapment and will present clinically with finger drop (MP joints)
60
What is Meralgia Parasthetica?
Compression of the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Usually from tight clothing or heavy tool belt
61
How does an Obturator Nerve Entrapment Present?
* They are rare * Usually occur after traumatic event such as childbirth or pelvic trauma * Weakness of the Adductors and may or may not have sensation loss to medial thigh
62
How does Saphenous Nerve Entrapment present?
* Pain in the knee and usually without sensory loss to medial leg * Pain can be ellicited with palpation of entrapment site between the Sartorious and Gracilis
63
What sites can the Fibular Nerve be entrapped?
Popliteal Space behind Knee Fibular Head Anterior Compartment (as Deep Fibular) Lateral Compartment (as Superficial Fibular)
64
What are Signs of Superficial Sensory Fibular Nerve Entrapment?
* Occurs after the innervation of Fibularis Muscles, nerve is purely cutaneous * Loss of Sensation to Distal leg and Dorsum of the Foot
65
How is Deep Fibular Nerve most often injured?
Anterior Compartment Syndrome - Treated with Fasciotomy
66
What is Anterior Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?
* Entrapment of the Deep Fibular Nerve at the ankle as it passes deep to the inferior extensor retinaculum * Occurs in Skiers, Runners, etc who wear tight fitting boots/shoes * Sensation to 1st web space and Motor to EDB and EHB
67
What is Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?
* Compression of the Tibial Nerve as it passes through the Posterior Tarsal Tunnel * Pain, Parasthesias pattern consistent with one or both of the plantar nerves
68
What are the contents of the Tarsal Tunnel?
Tibialis Posterior Flexor Digitorum Longus Flexor Hallucis Longus Posterior Tibial Nerve, Artery, Vein Tom Dick And Very Nervous Harry
69
Describe Peripheral Neuropathy (Polyneuropathy)
* Causes include Toxicity, Alcoholism, Nutritional Deficiencies and Systemic Infection or Disease * Stocking Glove pattern of sensory loss, often affects most distal nerves first (feet then hands)
70
What are some common causes of Clubbing and Cyanosis?
Heart Failure - Lung Failure
71
What is Bells Palsy?
* Idiopathic Unilateral Facial Nerve Paralysis * Hallmark Sign is paralysis that is of rapid onset and typically occurs overnight * Usually Self Limiting
72
What are some factors that might precipitate Gout Flare Up?
Diet heavy in Meat and Seafood Heavy Alcohol Consumption, especially beer Aspirin Use Use of Diuretics High Blood Pressure Chronic Kidney Disease
73
What are some Symptoms of Hiatal Hernia?
* Heartburn and Chest Pain * Often confused with Heart Attack * Can be diagnosed with barium swallow and x ray
74
What is Best VO2 usage to mobilize fat vs carbohydrate?
< 30% VO2 Max uses mostly fat - > 70% VO2 Max uses carbohydrate
75
What are some visceral pain referrals of the cervical spine?
liver pancreas perforated duodenal ulcer
76
What are some visceral pain referral sites of the thoracic spine?
* gastroesophegeal reflux * cholecystitis * penetrating duodenal ulcer
77
What are some visceral pain referrals sites of the Lumbosacral spine?
* pancreatitis * rectal lesions * renal colic