Misc

Question 1

What is Specific Fuel Consumption?

Answer 1

Grams/sec fuel per unit of thrust

Measured in KN

Question 2

What is N1?

Answer 2

Speed of the low pressure spool, which consists of the fan, low pressure compressor and low pressure turbine.

Question 3

What is N2?

Answer 3

Speed of the high pressure spool, which consists of the high pressure compressor and high pressure turbine.

Question 4

The speed at which shockwaves form is determined by…?

Answer 4

Thickness chord ratio.

Question 5

How does thickness chord ratio effect Mcrit?

Answer 5

The longer the chord, the low the TC ratio and the higher the Mcrit. This ratio can be increased without increasing the size of the wing. The wing can be swept.

Question 6

what is wing taper ratio?

Answer 6

Ratio of tip chord to root chord

Question 7

What is the manoeuvre margin for a uk certified airliner, before it encounters buffet?

What bank angle?

Answer 7

1.3G

40 deg

Question 8

For a low speed stall, what does top of the amber band indicate?

Answer 8

1.3G manoeuvrability

Question 9

For a low speed stall, what does top of the red band indicate?

Answer 9

Stick shaker activation

Question 10

For an autoland you need what 3 things?

Answer 10

2 independent autopilots
2 nav systems (nav1 nav2)
2 independent rad alts

Question 11

What type of autopilot does the 737-800 have?

Answer 11

Fail-passive

Question 12

Cat 1 app minima requirements?

Answer 12

> or= 200ft baro

550 RVR

Question 13

Cat 2 app minima requirements?

Answer 13

<200ft but not below 100ft rad alt

RVR 300m

Question 14

Cat 3A app minima requirements?

Answer 14

<100ft rad alt

200m RVR

Question 15

Cat 3B app minima requirements?

Answer 15

<50ft

RVR 200-75m

Question 16

Cat 3C app minima requirements?

Answer 16

Nothing!

Question 17

LNAV will not arm on the ground if the track of the first leg is…? off rwy hdg.

When would we engage LNAV then?

Answer 17

5 degrees

400ft

Question 18

What is the average fuel burnt for the 737-800?

Answer 18

2400kgs/hr

Question 19

What is the min crew oxygen required for dispatch?

Answer 19

> 1100 psi

Question 20

Hydraulic check on systems page:

Min pressure = …?

Min qty% = …?

Answer 20

2800psi

No RF and > 76%

Question 21

What does ISFD stand for?

Answer 21

Integrated Standby Flight Display

Question 22

To carry out the stall warning test, what needs to be met before you will be able to check it?

Answer 22

AC transfer busses have been powered up for 4 minutes

Question 23

If, during the preliminary pre-flight procedure, the leading edge flaps have drooped, what can you do?

What warning system check will this affect?

Answer 23

Ask for clearance to pressurise hyd system B electric pump
Retract flaps
Turn B elec pump OFF

Stall warning test

Question 24

If APU is started, what fuel pumps should be on?

Answer 24

An AC operated fuel pump ON

L centre tank pump ON (if centre tank has fuel)

Question 25

When should centre tank fuel pump switches be ON?

Answer 25

If centre tank fuel quant > 453kgs

Question 26

How long should you wait from APU start before using APU bleed air?

Answer 26

2 minutes

Question 27

If you are using centre fuel pumps, what should you not do?

Answer 27

Leave the flight deck unattended

Question 28

What is Dutch roll?

Answer 28

A combination of rolling and yawing (coupled lateral/directional) oscillations that normally occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability.

Question 29

What flight conditions defines an aircraft upset?

Answer 29

Pitch greater than 25 deg nose up Pitch greater than 10 deg nose down Bank angle greater than 45 deg Flight within the above parameters, at speeds inappropriate for the conditions.

Question 30

Jet transport aeroplanes are certified to withstand vertical load factors from......to........ in a clean configuration.

Answer 30

-1.0g to 2.5g

Question 31

The coefficient of lift comprised of what 3 things?

Answer 31

Wing shape Area Aoa

Question 32

What brakes does the nose wheel have?

Answer 32

None | It has snubbers

Question 33

How many ailerons are on each wing?

Answer 33

One, and has a balance tab

Question 34

How many spoilers do each wing have? When will they work?

Answer 34

Six - 2 ground spoilers, 4 flight spoilers When control column is moved by more than 10 deg or speed brakes used in flight.

Question 35

What wing surfaces are the captains control column connected to, as a back up?

Answer 35

Ailerons

Question 36

What wing surfaces are the FOs control column connected to, as a back up?

Answer 36

Spoilers

Question 37

How many flaps on each wing?

Answer 37

Two double slotted trailing edge flap.

Question 38

What is the minimum groove depth of each tyre?

Answer 38

0.79mm

Question 39

How many cargo holds are there?

Answer 39

4

Question 40

How many elevator feel pitot probes are there on the vertical stabiliser?

Answer 40

2

Question 41

How many static discharge wicks are there in total and where are they? How many may be missing? (check CDL)

Answer 41

14 2+2 at wingtips 3+3 at tip of horizontal stabiliser 4 on top of fin 2 - check CDL

Question 42

What is the difference between MEL and CDL?

Answer 42

The MEL lists the limitations of the aircraft when some equipment (autopilot, transponder...) are inoperative. The CDL deals only with non-structural external parts (wheel fairing...) that may be missing without grounding the aircraft.

Question 43

What does CDL stand for?

Answer 43

Configuration Deviation List

Question 44

What is the full travel of the horizontal stabiliser?

Answer 44

17.1 degrees

Question 45

How is the vacuum created in the waste tank?

Answer 45

Below 16,000ft via a blower | Above 16,000ft via a cabin-to-ambient pressure differential.

Question 46

What is the Mach Number formula?

Answer 46

MN= TAS/LSS