Misc Memory Items

Question 1

Smoke, Fire, or Fumes in Passenger Cabin or Flight Deck (Recall Item)

Question 2

Runaway Stabilizer (Recall Item)

Question 3

Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization (Recall Item)

Question 4

Airspeed Unreliable (Recall Item)

Question 5

6 Reasons for Abort Start

Answer 5

No N2 rotation
No N1
No EGT within 15 sec of IDLE
No or slow N1 or N2 after EGT
EGT approaching/exceeding the limit
No oil px when stabilized at idle

Question 6

Items Required to Fly

Answer 6

Required Items
• FAA Airman and Medical Certificates
• Spare corrective lenses if medical certificate requires them
• Company-issued EFB
• Radio Permit
• Passport/Alien Registration Card (current document must be on file with Pilot
Records)
• Flashlight
- Standalone device (not on a PED) capable of illuminating all parts of the
aircraft
- For flights out of Mexico, must be 8 inches or less
• Boom Mic Headset (must be FAA TSO compliant, including noise canceling headsets)

Question 7

When MUST a takeoff be rejected prior to V1

Answer 7

Engine Failure,
Fire,
Takeoff Configuration Warning
or
a condition severely affecting the safety of flight
(Predictive Windshear)

Question 8

What 8 things would Invalidate a TPR?

Answer 8

wrong Header Info (tail #, fleet type, airport)
wrong Runway condition
Adverse Altimeter (actual altimeter lower than the TPR)
Wind (more tailwind or less headwind)
Weight (actual TOW greater than PTOW, recommended if more than 3,000 less)
Temp (if warmer than planned or 5 degrees C cooler than planned)
TPR not in paperwork
MEL (must match any actual MEL conditions)

Question 9

When can you set the MCP to Field Elevation?

Answer 9

1. LNAV and VNAV engaged
2. Cleared for the approach
3. Altitude constraints verified

Question 10

3 Weather Conditions for Circling Approach

Answer 10

• the reported ceiling must be at or above 1000 ft or the published MDA, whichever is higher.
• the reported visibility must be at or above 3 sm or the published visibility minima,
whichever is greater.
• the circling approach shall be flown at the higher of 1000 ft HAA or published circling MDA.

Question 11

Stable Approach Criteria

Answer 11

• Only small changes in heading*/pitch are required to maintain the correct flight path
• Specific types of approaches are stabilized if they fulfill the following:
- ILS: within 1-dot deviation of glide path and localizer
- LNAV: Less than 1 times RNP, (NPS) within RNP-ANP bar
- VNAV (on GP leg): Minus 50 ft, (NPS) within RNP-ANP bar
- LOC/VOR: within 1-dot lateral deviation
- NDB: 5° right or left; and,
- Visual: lined up with the runway centerline no later than 300 ft (Unless terrain dictates otherwise)
• Aircraft is in the landing configuration (gear and flaps set, speed brakes retracted)
• Airspeed is stabilized within ± 10 kts of target speed, but not less than VREF
• Thrust is stabilized above idle to maintain the target approach airspeed
• Sink rate is no greater than 1000 fpm

Question 12

How to determine a LTP

Answer 12

first 3000 feet beyond the threshold
first third of the runway
or the Latest Touchdown Point (LTP)*, whichever is less

• calculate your own LTP by subtracting landing distance from landing distance available and adding 1,000’

Question 13

3 Reasons VNAV PATH changes to VNAV SPD

Answer 13

• Limit Speed Reversion (configuration limit, airport speed limit, or FMC Descent Page target speed + approximately 10 kts)
• Path Diversion (200 feet above path & increasing)
• No “TO” Waypoint (path ends)

Question 14

Holding Airspeeds (ICAO, Mexico, FAA)

Answer 14

See picture below

Question 15

When is it required to land at the “nearest suitable airfield”? (5 situations)

Answer 15

• the checklist includes the item “Plan to land at the nearest
suitable airport.”
• fire or smoke continues
• only one AC power source remains (engine or APU generator)
• only one hydraulic system remains (the standby system is
considered a hydraulic system)
• any other situation determined by the Flight Crew to have a
significant adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued

Question 16

When, during a QRC/QRH checklist, must both pilots “confirm”?

Answer 16

• retarding an Engine Thrust Lever
• pulling a Fire Warning switch
• moving a Generator Drive Disconnect switch to DISCONNECT
• moving a Flight Control Switch
• moving an IRS Mode Selector Switch to ATT
• moving a Start Lever to CUTOFF
(This does not apply to the Loss of Thrust on Both Engines
checklist)

Question 17

You must declare (according to the QRH) during these 5 situations

Answer 17

• Fire or smoke endangers the aircraft
• The flight cannot definitely establish its position
• The failure of an aircraft component, such as flight controls or
an engine shutdown, which jeopardizes a flight
• An in-flight medical emergency that requires a diversion
• A high probability of an emergency evacuation exists

Question 18

What defines an UPSET aircraft?

Answer 18

> 25 degrees NH
10 degrees NL
45 degrees AOB
Within those limits, but airspeed inappropriate for the conditions

Question 19

When is CSFF acceptable (does NOT require deciding)

Answer 19

Cold-Soaked Fuel Frost (CSFF) is acceptable:
• on the lower wing surfaces in the vicinity of the fuel tanks – up to 1/8 inch
• on the upper wing surfaces provided:
- CSFF is not beyond the lines of the painted CSFF area, and
- fuel temperature is at or above -16°C, and
- OAT is at or above 4°C, and
- there is no visible moisture present (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than
one mile visibility)

Question 20

List Windshear conditions (performance changes/indications):

Answer 20

• 15 kts IAS
• 500 fpm vertical speed
• 5° pitch attitude
• 1 dot displacement from the glide slope
• Unusual thrust lever position

Question 21

What distance must you avoid thunderstorms depending on altitude?

Answer 21

Above 23,000 = 20NM
Below 23,000 = 5NM if SAT is 0 or above, = 10NM if SAT is blow 0
5,000 feet above cloud tops (any altitude)