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miscellaneous questions > Misc Terms > Flashcards

Misc Terms Flashcards

1
Q

cloud

What is Data remanence?

A

the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it.

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2
Q

cloud

What is the security concern regarding Data remanence?

A

If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization.

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3
Q

cloud

How do you protect your cloud environment from Data remanence?

A

All cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others.

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4
Q

cloud

What is meant by the term Metered Services?

A

Metered services are pre-paid, a-la-carte, pay-per-use, or committed offerings. A metered service like a database may charge its users based on the actual usage of the service resources on an hourly or monthly basis.

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5
Q

cloud

What is meant by the term Resource pooling?

A

Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.

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6
Q

cloud

What is meant by On-demand in cloud services?

A

On-demand refers to the fact that a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.

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7
Q

Interfaces

What are the attributes of PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express)?
And what type of cards and adapters is PCIe used for?

A

PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Used for GPUs, RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards.

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8
Q

Interfaces

The types of PCIe slots available on your computer are dependent upon your motherboard. What are the PCIe designations for PCIe slots?

A

PCIe slot types are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16.

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9
Q

Graphics connections

What type of expansion slot is utilized (almost exclusively) in todays high end graphics cards

A

Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity.

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10
Q

Graphics connections

What type of expansion slot was utilized for low-speed connectivity to expansion cards, but has been replaced by the faster PCIe bus.

A

The peripheral component interconnect (PCI) bus is used to provide low-speed connectivity to expansion cards but has been mostly replaced by the faster PCIe bus.

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11
Q

Graphics connections

What port utilized a parallel expansion card standard originally for attaching video cards to a computer system to assist in 3D computer graphics

A

(AGP)
Accelerated Graphics Port

It has been replaced with PCIe due to its faster speeds.

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12
Q

Memory

What type of memory is usually utilized in laptops, routers and other small form factor computing devices?

A

A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device.

For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.

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13
Q

Memory

What type of memory is utilized in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape?

A

A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape.

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14
Q

Security

PAM

A

Priviledged Access Management (PAM)
is the combination of tools and technology used to secure, control and monitor access to an organization’s critical information and resources. Subcategories of PAM include shared access password management, privileged session management, vendor privileged access management (VPAM) and application access management.

Privileged user accounts are significant targets for attack as they have elevated permissions, access to confidential information and the ability to change settings. If compromised, a large amount of damage could be done to organizational operations. Types of accounts that implement PAM can include emergency cybersecurity procedure, local administrative, Microsoft Active Directory, application or service, and domain administrative accounts.

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15
Q

Security

FDE

A

Full-disk encryption (FDE) is a security method for protecting sensitive data at the hardware level by encrypting all data on a disk drive. FDE automatically encrypts data and operating systems (OSes) to prevent unauthorized access.

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16
Q

Security

AES

A

AES stands for Advanced Encryption Standard. It is an encryption algorithm that was initially used by the United States government to safeguard sensitive documents. AES was designed as a replacement for the older Data Encryption Standard (DES).

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17
Q

Security

TPM

A

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is an international standard for a secure cryptoprocessor.

On-board Cryptographic Processor (built into CPU)

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18
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

(1) Identify the problem.

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory of.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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19
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the second step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

**(2) Establish a theory. **

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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20
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the third step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

(3) Test the theory

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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21
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the forth step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

(4) Establish plan of action and implement.

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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22
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the sixth step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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23
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

What is the fifth step in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

A

**(5) Verify full system functionality. **

============================
(1) Identify the problem.
(2) Establish a theory.
(3) Test the theory
(4) Establish plan of action and implement.
(5) Verify full system functionality.
(6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

24
Q

Troubleshooting

With what are S.M.A.R.T. errors associated?

A

Monitors magnetic hard disk drives (non-SSD drives) to ensure proper performance. Can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and alert users to backup. After backup, use chkdsk to attempt to replair the failing drive.

25
Q

Network

What defines Throttling, and why would you do it?

A

Network Throttling is intentionally slowing down a network connection. Developers do this in a test environement to simulate a users connection which may not be as fast as the corporate connection. This allows them to test their software with closer to real-world experience of a user.

26
Q

Network

What is split horizon and what is it used for?

A

Split horizon is a routing technique used to prevent loops in a network by avoiding information from being sent back to its source.

27
Q

Networking

Latency

A

Latency, also known as network delay, is the duration of time it takes for data packets to move between different locations within a network.

28
Q

Network

Interference

A

Network interference occurs when external factors disrupt the normal operation of a network, affecting its performance and reliability.

Causes of Network Interference:
Physical Landscape
Electronic Equipment
Distance from the Router
Other Wireless Netwrk overlap (frequency/channel)

29
Q

cloud

What steps must be taken when setting up new thin client computers to allow access to a VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure) environment.

A
  1. Connect the thin client to the network.
  2. Install the latest security updates.
  3. Install the necessary applications.
30
Q

When a MAC os workstation continually crashes using certain applications, what is this most likely cause?

A

Failure or corruption of memory

31
Q

Cloud Security

Proper data disposal and management practices are crucial to mitigate the risk of data breaches caused by data remnants. Which cloud service would be most associated with this as a security concern? When will data remnants possibly remain on pre-utilized cloud infrastructure?

A

The security concern related to data remnants and potential data breaches in the context of using a cloud service provider would most likely be associated with “On-Demand” services.

When you provision resources on-demand in a cloud environment, there’s a risk that data remnants—pieces of data left behind after the resources are released or deleted—may still persist within the cloud infrastructure. If not properly managed or disposed of, these remnants could potentially be accessed by unauthorized parties, leading to a data breach.

when utilizing on-demand cloud services.

32
Q

During boot-up of a Windows 10 machine, which key should be pressed to enter the boot order menu and allow booting from a USB drive?

A

F12

33
Q

Troubleshooting

If a Windows workstation continually crashes (BSOD) when using certain applications, what is the most likely cause?

A

BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) errors often occur due to issues with hardware or software components of the system. When a system experiences frequent crashes with BSOD errors, one of the common culprits is faulty or corrupted memory (RAM)

34
Q

Internet Connection Types

This type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different media type between the switching center and the end customer.

A

DSL connections typically use telephone lines to connect the end customer’s location to the local switching center, where the DSL signal is terminated. However, from the switching center to the end customer’s premises, DSL connections may require a different media type, such as twisted-pair copper cables or fiber optic cables, depending on the specific infrastructure and distance involved.

35
Q

Laptop Display Panels

What type of laptop display supports a high refresh rate (120Hz or 144Hz) and works well for gaming?

A

TN panels are known for their fast response times and high refresh rates, making them ideal for gaming purposes. They typically offer refresh rates of 120 Hz or higher, providing smooth and fluid gameplay.

36
Q

Laptop Display Panels

This display panel type offers better color accuracy and viewing angles.

A

IPS (In-Plane Switching) displays offer better color accuracy and viewing angles, and often have refresh rates comparable to TN panels.

37
Q

Display types

This display type requires no backlight, as each pixel emmits its own light. This allows precise control over vibrant colors and deep black. It is energy efficient, thin, and allows wide-viewing angles.

A

OLED
(Organic Light Emitting Diode)

38
Q

Display types

This display type features these attributes:

1) High Contrast Ratio (results in deep blacks and good color accuracy)
2) Good Color Reproduction (good color reproduction, with accurate color representation across a wide range of hues.
3 ) Wide Viewing Angles (typically have wider viewing angles, ensuring that the image remains consistent and colors stay accurate even when viewed from off-center positions.
4) Better Motion Handling (with reduced motion blur and ghosting)
5) Good Screen Uniformity
6) Affordability
7) Suitable for Curved Displays

A

VA (Vertical Alignment)

39
Q

Memory - Cache

CPU Cache is identified as a heirarchy. This cache is the fastest and closest memory to the processor core. It is used to reduce the average cost (time or energy) to access data from the main memory.

A

L1 - Level 1 Cache

40
Q

Memory - Cache

CPU cache

A

a smaller, faster type of memory located closer to a processor core, storing copies of the data from frequently used memory locations. It is used to reduce the average cost (time or energy) to access data from the main memory.

41
Q

Display

What is the best procedure to follow when a plasma display or tv experiences burn-in?

A

Replace the display

Use OLED or LED display instead if there is to be a lot of static content on the screen.

42
Q

Display

What procedure can be follow to attempt to remove/erase burn-in being experienced on a CRT display?

A

Run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in from old CRT displays

Degaussing will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED display types.

43
Q

Wireless home automation

This is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. It uses 2.4 GHz frequency band allowing more data bandwidth at the expense of range. This protocol can support up to 65,000 devices on a single network and there is no hop-limit between devices.

A

Zigbee

44
Q

Wireless home automation

This is a proprietary low-power wireless communication protocol that supports up to 232 devices on a single network. It uses 800 MHz and 900 MHz radio frequency ranges.

A

Z-wave

45
Q

Wireless communication technologies

This is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distance using UHF radio waves. It is used for the creation of personal area networks (PAN). It is also commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices

A

Bluetooth

46
Q

wireless communication technology

This is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices (one of which is usually a portable device) to establish a communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. Commonly used for contactless payment systems, or transferring a file from one device to another.

A

NFC (near field communications)

47
Q

virtual machines

This is a Type 2 hypervisor that allows you to install the software inside your existing operating system.

A

Virtual Box is a Type 2 Hypervisor
that can run on macOS

48
Q

Virtual Machines

These are 3 Type-1bare-metal hypervisors

A

VMware ESXi
Hyper-V
RHEV

49
Q

Hyper-visors

This hypervisor type runs directly on hardware.

A

Type 1 Hypervisor

50
Q

Hyper-visors

This hypervisor type runs on
top of an operating system

A

Type 2

51
Q

Hyper-visors

Virtual Box is which type of hypervisor?

A

Type 2 - runs on top of an OS.

52
Q

Hyper-visors

VMware ESXi is this type of hypervisor.

A

Type 1 - Bare Metal

53
Q

hyper-visors

Hyper-V is this type of hypervisor.

A

Type 1 - Bare-metal hypervisor

54
Q

hyper-visor

RHEV is this type of hypervisor

Red-hat Enterprise Virtualization

A

Type 1 - bare-metal hypervisor

55
Q

hyper-visor

This type 1 hypervisor can run natively on Windows servers (2008, 2012, 2016, 2019) and Windows desktops (8, 8.1, 10)

A

Hyper-V

miscellaneous questions (2 decks)

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