Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

N/V up to 16 weeks is considered _____.

A

Morning sickness

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2
Q

Severe, excessive N/V associated with weight loss and electrolyte imbalance that persists > 16 weeks is known as _____.

A

HEG- Hyperemesis Gravidarum

*Multiple gestations and molar pregnancies are RFs

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3
Q

Acidosis (from starvation) and metabolic hypochloremic alkalosis (from vomiting) are associated with ____.

A

HEG

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4
Q

1st line antiemetics during pregnancy are:

A
  • Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
  • Doxylamine (antihistamine)
  • Promethazine
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5
Q

Fetal Hydrops is fluid accumulation in 2 or more spaces including:

*May be associated with effects of Rh alloimmunization on subsequent newborns

A
  • pericardial effusion
  • ascites
  • pleural effusion
  • subcutaneous edema
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6
Q

Rhogam is given at ___ weeks gestation AND within ___ hours of delivery of an Rh positive baby OR after any potential mixing of blood.

A

RhoGAM given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery

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7
Q

How is erythroblastosis fetalis treated?

A

Antigen-negative RBCs through US-guided umbilical vein transfusion

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8
Q

When do you screen for gestational DM?

A

24-28 weeks gestation through 50g oral glucose challenge test

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9
Q

If blood glucose is ≥ ____ mg/dL after 1 hour then you should perform 3 hour oral GTT.

A

140

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10
Q

_____ is the gold standard for diagnosing gestational DM.

A

3 hour 100g oral GTT

Positive if:

  • Fasting > 95
  • 3 hour > 140
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11
Q

_____ is treatment of choice for gestational DM.

A

Insulin (doesn’t cross placenta)

*Glyburide doesn’t cross placenta but there’s a higher risk of eclampsia

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12
Q

Treatment goal for gestational DM is fasting glucose < ____.

A

95 mg/dL

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13
Q

If gestational DM is uncontrolled/macrosomia then labor induced at ___ weeks. If it is controlled and there is no macrosomia then at ___ weeks.

A

Uncontrolled- 38 weeks

Controlled- 40 weeks

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14
Q

Mothers with gestational DM have a ___ chance of developing DM post-baby and a ___ chance of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies.

A

50%

*Mothers should be screened at 6 weeks postpartum for DM and yearly afterwards

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15
Q

HTN with NO proteinuria AFTER 20 weeks gestation is known as _____.

A

Gestational (Transitional) HTN

*Resolves 12 weeks postpartum

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16
Q

HTN with proteinuria +/- edema AFTER 20 weeks gestation is known as _____.

A

Preeclampsia

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17
Q

Mild preeclampsia defined by a BP ≥ ___ / ___.

A

140/90

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18
Q

Severe preeclampsia defined by a BP ≥ ___ / ____.

A

160/110

  • May have thrombocytopenia +/- DIC
  • *May have HELLP Syndrome–> Hemolytic anemia, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets
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19
Q

Management of mild and severe preeclampsia…

A

Mild: Delivery @ 37 weeks gestation

Severe: PROMPT DELIVERY ONLY CURE + Mag Sulfate to prevent eclampsia szs

BP Meds: Hydralazine and Labetalol

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20
Q

Preeclampsia + Seizures is known as ____.

A

Eclampsia

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21
Q

Management of eclampsia…

A

ABCDs

  • Mag sulfate for szs
  • Deliver fetus once patient is stabilized
  • BP meds!
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22
Q

HTN BEFORE 20 WEEKS gestation or before pregnancy is known as ____.

A

Chronic HTN

23
Q

How is mild HTN monitored?

A

Weekly NST during 3rd trimester, serial BP, and urine protein

24
Q

How is moderate/severe HTN managed?

A

Meds if BP ≥ 150/100

  • METHYLDOPA is treatment of choice
  • Labetalol good option too
25
3 categories of abnormal labor progression include: *Hint: think 3 P's
1. Power- uterine contraction 2. Passenger- presentation size or position of fetus 3. Passage- uterus or soft tissue abnormalities
26
The ____ maneuver is a non-manipulative approach to the treatment of shoulder dystocia. It helps to increase the pelvic opening with hip hyperflexion.
McRoberts
27
The _____ maneuver is a 180 shoulder rotation for shoulder dystocia.
Woods (Corkscrew)
28
______ test is used to diagnose PROM. It turns blue if pH > 6.5.
Nitrazine Paper Test | normal amniotic fluid is 7.0-7.3 and vaginal pH is 3.8-4.2
29
Crystallization of estrogen and amniotic fluid is seen through the ____ test to diagnose PROM.
Fern Test
30
How is PROM managed?
Await for spontaneous labor and monitor for infxn (chorioamnioitis or endometritis)
31
Umbilical cord prolapse
See study guide *C-section in many cases
32
Regular uterine contractions (>4-6/hr) with progressive cervical changes before __ weeks gestation is known as Premature Labor.
37 *MC cause of perinatal mortality
33
PTL defined as cervical dilation > ___ cm and ≥ ___ % effacement.
>3cm and ≥80% effacement
34
Presence of fetal ____ between 20-34 weeks strongly suggests PTL.
Fibronectin
35
_____ is given to enhance fetal lung maturity if L:S ratio < 2:1 and <34 weeks gestation.
Betamethasone *Tocolytics can be given for up to 48hrs to delay delivery so steroids can take effect on fetus
36
Tocolytics in labor...
- Indomethacin: 24-32 wks - Nifedipine: 32-34 wks (or 2nd line for 24-32 wks) - Mag Sulfate
37
_____ is given for abx prophylaxis in patients with GBS.
Ampicillin followed by PO Amoxicillin and Azithro Allergy--> Cefazolin followed by PO Cephalexin and Azithro
38
What are some contraindications to induction of labor?
- prior uterine rupture - prior c-section - active genital herpes infxn - umbilical cord prolapse - placenta previa or vasa previa - transverse fetal lie
39
Early induction v. late induction agents...
Early induction: promotes cervical ripening in women with unfavorable cervixes- Prostaglandin gel or balloon catheter ``` Later induction: if cervix is dilated < 1cm with some effacement- IV Oxytocin (Pitocin) ``` *Amniotomy (artificially rupturing membranes with small hook) can be done if cervix is partially dilated and there is effacement
40
Normal fetal HR is between ___ and ___.
120-160bpm
41
Reactive NST is ___ (good/bad).
GOOD
42
A positive CST is ____ (good/bad).
BAD
43
The MC cause of postpartum hemorrhage is ____.
Uterine atony: uterus unable to contract to stop the bleeding. PE- soft, boggy uterus with dilated cervix
44
Management of postpartum hemorrhage entails:
1. Bimanual uterine massage and treat underlying cause | 2. Uterotonic agents like pitocin or misprostol (only if uterus is soft and boggy)
45
_____ is the biggest RF for Endometritis (infxn of the uterine endometrium).
C-section *also prolonged ROM >24hr, vaginal delivery, dilation and curettage (or evacuation)
46
_____ + ______ is given for an endometritis infxn post c-section.
Clindamycin + Gentamicin (may add Ampicillin for GBS coverage)
47
_____ + ______ is given for infxn after vaginal delivery or chorioamnionitis.
Ampicillin + Gentamicin
48
Prophylaxis for endometritis involves what class of medication?
1st generation cephalosporin x 1 dose during c-section
49
Fever + soft, tender uterus and lochia +/- foul odor after giving birth is associated with what dx?
Endometritis
50
Hyperplasia due to continuous unopposed estrogen is known as ____ hyperplasia.
Endometrial hyperplasia *Often occurs within 3 years of estrogen-only treatment and MC POSTMENOPAUSAL
51
Common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is _______.
Endometrial hyperplasia
52
Endometrial hyperplasia is diagnosed by what modality?
TVUS- endometrial stripe >4mm *ENDOMETRIAL BX IS DEFINITIVE DX
53
Treatment of endometrial hyperplasia WITHOUT atypia is:
Progestin (PO or Mirena) *repeat endometrial bx in 3-6 mos
54
Treatment of endometrial hyperplasia WITH atypia is:
Hysterectomy