Miscellaneous Quizzes Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
What is the best temperature for cold agglutinins to react at?
A
0-5*C
2
Q
In the direct fluorescent antibody test, what is labeled with the fluorescent dye?
A
antibody
3
Q
Proteins can be complexed with red cells as antigen carriers in indirect or passive hemagglutination testing through the use of what?
A
tannic acid
4
Q
What can a Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection cause to develop?
A
cold agglutinins
5
Q
In a hemagglutination inhibition test, the presence of agglutination indicates what about the antigen being tested?
A
the antigen is not present
6
Q
What phenomenon can lead to false positives when several antigens are closely related in structure?
A
cross reactivity
7
Q
Which hormone is detected in pregnancy testing?
A
hCG
8
Q
What urine specimen is recommended for the earliest detection of pregnancy?
A
first morning
9
Q
For what reason may some technicians prefer serum over plasma for testing?
A
plasma may contain fibrin clots that can be difficult to distinguish from agglutination
10
Q
Which Coomb’s test is used in detecting HDFN, HTR, and AIHA, and what kind of globulins does it test for?
A
direct Coomb’s (DAT); tests for gamma or beta globulins
11
Q
What effect can drugs like Levodopa and Phenazopyridine have on a DAT?
A
can cause them to be positive
12
Q
What kind of transfusion reaction is associated with antibodies to white cells, commonly due to multiple transfusions?
A
febrile non-hemolytic (FNHTR)
13
Q
If a newborn’s A or B cells are coated with the mother’s immune anti-A or -B. which test would be positive?
A
DAT
14
Q
Why should pretransfusion samples be kept after testing, and for how long?
A
keep for three days; the time of appearance of unexpected antibodies may be delayed
15
Q
What should be done if there is any doubt as to the identity of a blood sample?
A
request a redraw
16
Q
If a kk recipient receives Kk donor blood, to what foreign antigen would that recipient be immunized to?
A
K
17
Q
Which antigen is most common in South, Central, and North American Indians and Asians?
A
Dia
18
Q
Jk(a-b-) occurs most commonly in which population?
A
Polynesians, Chinese, and Filipinos
19
Q
Which antibody is a hemolysin seen in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, referred to as the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?
A
anti-P
20
Q
Which antibody is found in patients with mycoplasmal or viral pneumonia?
A
anti-I
21
Q
Which antibody is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?
A
anti-i
22
Q
What is the general term for antibodies possessed by
A
low-incidence
23
Q
Can a patient with the genotype MN be immunized by any of the following genotypes: MM, MN, or NN?
A
no
24
Q
In what population is Lu(a-b-) the rarest?
A
this phenotype is rare in all populations
25
Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?
Duffy
26
The McLeod phenotype is associated with the absence of what antigens?
Kx
27
Which antigen is actually a white cell antigen that is also expressed to varying degrees on red cells and can cause confusion in serological testing?
Bg
28
Which phenotype is found in the African-American population with a frequency of 68%?
Fy(a-b-)
29
Which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?
Ii, P, Kidd
30
Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?
MNS, Duffy
31
Which antibodies react best at 37*C and AHG phases?
Duffy, MN (though not typical), S, k
32
What is the total sum of genes present on the chromosomes with respect to one or more characteristics, regardless of whether or not they produce detectable traits?
genotype
33
What kind of gene is always expressed whether it is present in the homozygous or heterozygous state?
dominant
34
What kind of gene produces no product even in the homozygous state?
silent or amorph
35
What kind of gene is expressed only when it is inherited in the homozygous state?
recessive
36
What is the name for the detectable products of genes only discovered through a description of observed traits or as the result of direct testing?
phenotype
37
What does PEG stand for?
polyethylene glycol
38
Which gene is necessary for the expression of the ABO genes?
H
39
When does T. pallidum cross the placenta?
from 18 weeks onward
40
What does the FTA-ABS test detect in patient serum?
treponemal antibody
41
Which stage of syphilis occurs 6-8 weeks after the appearance of the primary lesion?
secondary
42
In secondary syphilis, what can be expected of serological testing results, and how long after treatment do they become nonreactive?
they are invariably positive; become nonreactive 12-18 months after treatment
43
Is syphilis contagious in the late latent stage?
not usually
44
What component of the FTA-ABS test makes the antibody-antigen reaction visible?
fluorescein-labeled antihuman globulin
45
Which strain of T. pallidum is used as the antigen in the FTA-ABS test?
the virulent Nichols strain
46
How long after the appearance of the primary syphilitic lesion do serum tests become reactive?
between the first and third week
47
Why is the patient's serum heated in the VDRL test?
to destroy complement
48
How often should the needles used to dispense antigen in the VDRL test be calibrated, and what volume of antigen do they need to deliver?
before each test batch is prepared; 1/60 mL
49
What substance is added to the RPR test to serve as an adsorption center for tissue lipids?
cholesterol
50
Which test uses modified VDRL antigen?
RPR
51
What is the name for the characteristic inflammatory lesion in primary syphilis?
chancre
52
What is the name of the antibody formed to tissue lipids in regards to syphilis?
reagin
53
VDRL and RPR are examples of what kind of serological testing?
flocculation
54
What speed does the rotator need to be set to in the RPR test?
100 rpm
55
What does the antigen in the RPR contain (i.e., what modifies it from the VDRL test)?
charcoal
56
Which syphilis test is read microscopically?
VDRL
57
Which syphilis test does not require that patient serum be inactivated before testing?
RPR
58
Which syphilis test requires a flat-bottomed bottle?
VDRL
59
Can treating a pregnant woman for syphilis cure her fetus?
no
60
Can tertiary syphilis be treated?
yes
61
Is it necessary to undergo repeated blood tests for five years after syphilis treatment?
no
62
Do repeated doses of penicillin have any effect on congenital, primary, or secondary syphilis?
no
63
Does treatment for syphilis alter any tissue damage that has already occurred?
no
64
What substance is found in >95% of SLE patients and is used in testing for the disease?
anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
65
What is the name for a transplant from one species to another?
heterograft or xenograft
66
What is the name for a transplant from one individual to a genetically identical individual?
isograft or syngeneic graft
67
What is the name for a transplant from one region to another of the name person?
autograft
68
What is the name for a transplant from one individual to another genetically nonidentical individual of the same species?
allograft or homograft
69
Which antigen is encoded by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and is considered to be the most important immunologic barrier to the survival of transplanted organs and tissues?
human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
70
Rheumatoid factor is an IgM antibody against what portion of IgG molecules?
Fc
71
What is the name for an enlarged thyroid in the neck of a patient, commonly seen in disorders such as Hashimoto's and Graves' disease?
goiter
72
What is the study of the noncellular portion of the blood known as serum?
serology
73
What is the condition of being resistant to infection?
immunity
74
What is a foreign substance that induces an immune response?
antigen
75
What are the group of plasma proteins formed as a result of exposure to a foreign substance called? (2 names)
antibodies, immunoglobulins
76
What is the study of the reactions of a host when foreign substances are introduced into the body?
immunology
77
What is the term applied to any procedure of injecting immunogenic material into the body in order to induce immunity?
vaccination
78
Metchnikoff first described the process of what?
phagocytosis
79
Which scientist is attributed with working with the first attenuated vaccines?
Louis Pasteur
80
Which scientist worked with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, and what phenomenon did this work demonstrate?
Edward Jenner; cross-immunity
81
What is the process in which cells tend to move in a certain direction under the stimulation of chemical substances?
chemotaxis
82
What are serum proteins that attach to foreign substances and help prepare them for phagocytosis?
opsonins
83
What kind of immunity results from the transfer of antigen-sensitive lymphocytes from an actively immunized donor to a non-immune recipient?
adoptive immunity
84
What is the term for the engulfment of cells or particulate matter by leukocytes, macrophages, or other cells?
phagocytosis
85
What is the ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions called?
natural resistance
86
What kind of immunity is induced by the exposure to an infectious agent as a result of natural infection or through vaccination?
active immunity
87
What is absolute protection against particular diseases associated with species characteristics?
nonsusceptibility
88
Which peripheral blood cell plays a key role in the killing of parasites?
eosinophils
89
What is the structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell?
phagolysosome
90
What enzyme in secretions such as tears and saliva attacks the bacterial cell wall, especially Gram+ bacteria, thus playing an important role as an external defense mechanism?
lysozyme
91
What kind of immunity results from the injection of antibodies derived from another individual, or from in utero or post-partum transfer of antibodies from mother to child?
passive immunity
92
What process is characterized by increased blood supply to the area, white cell migration, the appearance of acute phase reactants, and increased capillary permeability?
inflammation
93
Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia all represent what kind of resistance?
natural
94
The presence of what acts as an external defense mechanism by competing with pathogens for nutrients?
normal flora
95
Which white cell is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?
monocyte (become macrophages)
96
What substance acts as an internal defense mechanism against bacteria or foreign cells until antibody can be formed?
c-reactive protein (CRP)
97
What are CRP and complement components examples of?
opsonins
98
Which fragment of an antibody possesses antigen-binding ability?
Fab
99
Which fragment of an antibody directs its biological activity?
Fc
100
What are substances injected with an antigen that improves the immune response by extending the period of exposure through slow release of the antigen in the body?
adjuvants
101
What are the two immunoglobulin classes that can "fix" complement?
IgG and IgM
102
What kind of antigens exist in unrelated plants and animals and are identical or closely related in structure, so that antibody to one will cross-react with the other?
heterophile
103
What are substances that are only antigenic when coupled with a protein carrier?
haptens
104
What is the Davidsohn differential test used for and what two substances does it utilize the adsorption characteristics of?
aids in the diagnosis of Epstein-Barr (EBV); guinea pig kidney and beef red cells
105
Which of the two substances used in the Davidsohn test absorbs the Forssman antibody?
guinea pig kidney
106
Antigens found on all nucleated cells in the body that have been found to play a key role in the immune response are called what?
human leukocyte antigens (HLA)
107
What is the system of genes responsible for controlling the expression of HLA?
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
108
Light chains of immunoglobulins can occur as either one of these two categories, but never both together.
kappa or lambda
109
Generally, an antigen has to have what molecular weight to be recognized?
10,000 Daltons or more
110
What is the key portion of the antigen that is actually recognized in an immune response?
epitope
111
What is the main immunoglobulin in various body secretions?
IgA
112
Which immunoglobulin's synonym is (non-syphilitic) reagin?
IgE
113
Which immunoglobulin contains a secretory component?
IgA
114
Which immunoglobulin is made up of 5 basic structural units in a circular arrangement (pentameter)?
IgM
115
Which immunoglobulin accounts for ~75% of all present in the body?
IgG
116
Which immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reactions through binding to mast cells?
IgE
117
Which is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?
IgG
118
Which immunoglobulin is very little known about?
IgD
119
Which immunoglobulin is associated with the now-obsolete RAST test?
IgE
120
Which immunoglobulin is formed mainly in the respiratory and GI tracts?
IgE
121
Which immunoglobulin are the majority of virus-neutralizing antibodies?
IgG
122
Which immunoglobulin is most often formed in response to Gram= bacteria?
IgM
123
Which condition is defined as a monoclonal gammopathy in which plasma cell tumors in the bone marrow overproduce a single class of immunoglobulins (50-60% of cases overproduce IgG)?
multiple myeloma
124
What kind of cells are produced in the immune response that are capable of being rapidly activated upon a second exposure to the same antigen?
memory cells
125
Where are T-lymphocytes modified, and what kind of immunity are they responsible for?
modified in the thymus, responsible for cellular immunity
126
What immunodeficiency disease is characterized by a decrease in IgG, resulting in susceptibility to infection?
acquired agammaglobulinemia
127
What are the end product of T-cell antigen recognition that regulate the functions of other cells and tissues?
lymphokines
128
Which antibody response occurs when an individual first encounters a foreign antigen, and which immunoglobulin is detected after a lag of a few days?
primary response; IgM
129
What are the two names for the faster antibody response that occurs upon the next contact with the same antigen, and what immunoglobulin is predominant?
secondary or anamnestic; IgG
130
Which immunoglobulin is overproduced in Waldstrom's macroglobulinemia?
IgM
131
What kind of cells do not express T- or B-cell markers, but have to ability to mediate cytolytic reactions and kill target cells without prior exposure to them?
natural killer cells
132
What is the situation in which, under certain conditions, a foreign antigen fails to elicit the formation of antibody in the recipient by repeated injections of proper doses of certain antigens?
immune tolerance
133
Which T-cell receptor is responsible for rosetting with sheep red cells?
CD2
134
What type of lymphocyte is predominant in the peripheral blood?
T-cells
135
Which virus selectively invades B-cells?
Epstein-Barr (EBV)
136
Where are B-lymphocytes modified and what kind of immunity are they responsible for?
modified in the bone marrow; responsible for humoral immunity
137
Which antigen is found on the T-cell subset known as helper/inducer cells?
CD4
138
What kind of cells do sensitized B-cells differentiate into, and what do they secrete?
differentiate into plasma cells; secrete antibodies
139
What in humans is thought to be the equivalent of the Bursa of Fabricius in birds?
bone marrow
