Missed BS questions

Question 1

The researchers change the procedure such that instead of placing the objects in a box, the participants have to recall all the objects that they have seen during training. According to the spreading of activation theory, which type of memory error is most likely?

A.Making source monitoring errors regarding the location of the training objects
B.Poorer memory for the training objects seen at the later points in the experiment
C.Selective forgetting of the training objects that were placed in the center of the box
D.Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

Answer 1

The answer to this question is D because spreading activation suggests that, when a concept is activated, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category

Question 2

The children from the experiment in the passage participate in a separate study using Piaget’s water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed?

A.All three age groups will state that the water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity.
B.The majority of the 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker.
C.The majority of the 9- and 11-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is greater in quantity.
D.The majority of the 7-year-olds will state that the amount of water in the taller beaker is the same as in the original beaker

Answer 2

The answer to this question is B because, according to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which starts at approximately 7 years and ends around 11 to 12 years. The majority of the 11-year-olds will have completed this stage, which will allow them to judge that pouring water into a taller beaker does not change its quantity.

Question 3

What is the difference between a positive punisher and a negative punisher?

Answer 3

Positive punishment involves adding an aversive consequence after an undesired behavior is emitted to decrease future responses. Negative punishment includes taking away a certain reinforcing item after the undesired behavior happens in order to decrease future responses.

Question 4

Actor-observer bias

Answer 4

actors attribute their own behavior to situational factors (not feeling well) whereas observers attribute actors’ behavior to dispositional factors (social awkwardness)

Question 5

In a study, each trial involves administering a drop of lemon juice to the participant’s tongue and measuring the participant’s level of salivation. As more trials are conducted, the researcher finds that the magnitude of salivation declines. After a certain point, the researcher switches to administering lime juice. This researcher is most likely studying which process?

A.Sensory perception
B.Habituation and dishabituation
C.Stimulus generalization in classical conditioning
D.Conditioned responses in classical conditioning

Answer 5

The answer to this question is B because the study involves reduced responding to a repeating stimulus, which is best described as habituation. The researcher then changes the stimulus, which will likely lead to dishabituation.

Question 6

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome

Answer 6

people’s response to various stressors is similar

Question 7

Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals?

A.Social support analysis
B.Social network analysis
C.Social stratification analysis
D.Social reproduction analysis

Answer 7

The answer to this question is B, social network analysis. Used in some epidemiological studies, social network analysis is the method described in the question. It involves the mapping of social relationships among individuals.

Question 8

What is gentrification?

Answer 8

the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups.

Question 9

What is generativity versus stagnation?

Answer 9

In Erikson’s theory, the generativity versus self-absorption crisis occurs in mid-adulthood. Thus, the adults compose the only age group that is likely to experience this stage.

Question 10

If adults performed the block tapping task as a measure of working memory capacity, they would most likely replicate sequences of what length correctly?

A.9 plus or minus 1
B.7 plus or minus 2
C.10 plus or minus 1
D.16 plus or minus 2

Answer 10

The answer to this question is B because early memory research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called “magic number 7 ± 2” was the name George Miller (1956) gave to this estimate.

Question 11

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment?

A.Comparative methods
B.Ethnographic methods
C.Experimental methods
D.Survey methods

Answer 11

The answer to this question is B. Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment.

Question 12

When do we start to see parallel play?

Answer 12

During the pre-operational stage (2-7 years old)

Question 13

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

Answer 13

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion asserts that the physiological arousal and the subjective feeling of an emotion arise from different parts of the brain and are separate and independent of one another

Question 14

Schater-Singer theory

Answer 14

starts with physiological arousal, and then the person would then interpret that arousal given the environmental context

Question 15

When would we start to see symbolic play?

Answer 15

During the pre-operational stage (2-7 years old)

Question 16

If research continues to indicate that the SAT is biased against students from low socioeconomic backgrounds and does not reflect their knowledge or skills, what does that mean for the test’s psychometric properties?

Answer 16

The test may still have high reliability but low validity.

A test can be reliable but not valid – think of a bathroom scale. If you step on it every day and the weight is the same but wrong, the test has high reliability (consistency) but low validity (accuracy). Students may be getting reliable, consistent scores over time, but if the test isn’t a true measure of their ability and skills, then it is not valid.

Question 17

Describes a major assumption of the functionalist theory of social stratification

Answer 17

Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations.

Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based.

Question 18

Conflict theory

Answer 18

emphasizes the role of coercion and power in producing social order. It sees society as fragmented into groups that compete for social and economic resources. Social order is maintained by those with the most power, usually those with the greatest political, economic, and social capital.

Question 19

Symbolic interactionism

Answer 19

focuses on the symbolic meaning that people develop and rely upon in the process of social interactions. Smoking is an excellent example, because the social symbolism of smoking is a point of contention across social groups. In previous years—and to some extent in certain social circles now—smoking was seen as trendy, whereas in others it may be seen negatively as a symbol of poor self-regard and ignorance

Question 20

What type of cultural norm is most directly involved in health behaviors?

	A. Folkways 

	B. Mores 

	C. Taboos 

	D. Laws 

Define each of theses

Answer 20

B is correct. Mores are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated. Health behaviors (like seeking help for an acute medical illness) are standards of behavior that are necessary for the well-being of everyone; if a person does not seek help, they may be shunned by family members or friends.

A: Folkways are norms that govern everyday behavior (like holding a door open).

C: Taboos are considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest).

D: Laws are established standards of behavior that are written down and have very clear consequences

Question 21

What is a kinship of affinity?

Answer 21

A kinship of affinity is one in which individuals are related by choice, such as through marriage, rather than through blood, such as the other choices

Question 22

Which of the following was NOT a finding by Harry Harlow in his experiments with rhesus monkeys and their pairing with a simulated mother made from wire (Wire Mother) or one made from soft cloth (Cloth Mother)?

	A. Monkeys paired with Wire Mothers drank similar amounts of milk and grew at a rate comprable to monkeys paired with Cloth Mothers.

	B. Monkeys paired with a Wire Mother sought soothing from their “mothers,” but at a rate less than monkeys paired with Cloth Mothers.

	C. After early neglectful conditions, monkeys’ abnormal behavior could be corrected by pairing them with the appropriate simulated mother.

	D. When given a choice, monkeys spent more time holding Cloth Mothers than Wire Mothers.

Answer 22

C is correct. In Harlow’s experiment, the infant monkeys preferred spending their time clinging to the cloth mother. Even when only the wire mother could provide food, the monkeys visited her just to eat. Harlow concluded that there was much more to the mother/infant relationship than milk and that this “contact comfort” was crucial to the psychological development and health of infants. After monkeys were paired with a Wire Mother, they showed abnormal behavior, which could not be corrected later in life by pairing them with a Cloth Mother.

Question 23

What characteristics of society are associated with high levels of anomie?

I. Rapid changes in society

II. Low levels of income

III. High heterogeneity

	A. I and II only

	B. I and III only

	C. II and III only

	D. I, II, and III

Answer 23

D is correct. Anomie refers to society feeling fragmented and lacking cohesiveness. All of the characteristics listed are associated with anomie.

Question 24

What is the difference between internal validity and external validity?

Answer 24

Internal validity refers to the degree to which causal conclusions can be drawn from a study, which can include accounting for potential confounding variables. Adding the additional measurement point of pre-intervention condom use and controlling for that variable statistically would considerably improve the degree to which one could make conclusions about how use affected participants’ behavior.

External validity describes the degree to which the findings of a study are generalizable to the population as a whole. Typically, this involves issues regarding the size and representativeness of the sample

Question 25

What is thinning in operant conditioning?

Answer 25

Reducing the frequency of rewards for a given action.

Question 26

Difference between a moderating variable and a mediating variable?

Answer 26

A moderating variable is one that either decreases or increases the strength of an association. A mediating variable is one that provides a causal link between two variables that show a statistical relationship.

Question 27

Role strain vs. Role conflict

Answer 27

Role strain involves a problem fitting into an existing role, such as a student’s problem with getting good grades. Role conflict involves two roles coming into conflict, such as when a student experiences conflict as a student and worker.

Question 28

A researcher hypothesizes that there is institutional discrimination, but no individual discrimination, at a particular organization. Which of the following options would allow the researcher to fully confirm this hypothesis? A. Compare the demographics of individuals hired at the organization with the demographics at similar organizations B. Compare the demographics of individuals hired by several hiring directors within the organization C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B together

Answer 28

D is correct. Both A and B are required here. Method A could show that there is a difference between organizations with regard to hiring practices, which implies institutional discrimination. Method B could show that no individual discrimination is present. Since the hypothesis proposes that there is institutional discrimination and that there is no individual discrimination at the organization, both A and B are required to fully confirm (or reject) the hypothesis.

Question 29

What are Erikson's stages of developments?

Answer 29

Hope: trust vs. mistrust (oral-sensory, infancy, under 2 years) Will: autonomy vs. shame/doubt (muscular-anal, toddlerhood, 2–4 years) Purpose: initiative vs. guilt (locomotor-genital, early childhood, 5–8 years) Competence: industry vs. inferiority (latency, middle childhood, 9–12 years) Fidelity: identity vs. role confusion (adolescence, 13–19 years) Love: intimacy vs. isolation (early adulthood, 20–39 years) Care: generativity vs. stagnation (middle adulthood, 40–59 years) Wisdom: ego integrity vs. despair (late adulthood, 60 years and above)

Question 30

Many elderly individuals struggle with the concept of death and dying. The Kübler-Ross model provides a series of stages that most people experience when facing the end of their life. Which of the following is the correct sequence of emotional stages from this model? A. Anger, denial, depression, acceptance, bargaining B. Denial, depression, bargaining, anger, acceptance C. Bargaining, anger, depression, denial, acceptance D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Answer 30

D is correct. For these stages, you can remember the acronym Death Always Brings Definite Acceptance. The stages are sequenced in the following order: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Question 31

A surgeon suspects that the supernatural ability of a dowser to locate a hot coal buried in the ground is best explained by the presence of particularly sensitive thermoreceptors in their hands. Lesioning which area of the brain would best allow the surgeon to test her hypothesis? A. Lateral geniculate nucleus B. Hippocampus C. Frontal lobe D. Parietal lobe

Answer 31

D is correct. The parietal lobe integrates multiple inputs of sensory information, from spatial sense and navigation (proprioception) to temperature (thermoreceptors) and touch (mechanoreceptors). Lesioning this area of the brain would likely interfere with the dowser’s ability to detect hot objects, if this were the true basis of the ability.

Question 32

An outspoken skeptic and opponent of automatic writing attends multiple séances where a medium appears to successfully contact someone who has recently died. If the skeptic’s views shift over time to view the practice as harmless entertainment, this evolution is best described by: A. subjective norms. B. a locus of control. C. cognitive dissonance. D. reciprocal determinism.

Answer 32

D is correct. Reciprocal determinism is the theory set forth by Albert Bandura that a person’s behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and the environment. In this scenario, the skeptic does not believe in the supernatural power of a medium, but attends multiple séances where they may see evidence that could soften their views. It appears this behavior of attending séances, in conjunction with the social environment of others who attend the séances, caused the skeptic's views on supernatural phenomena to shift.

Question 33

What is social cognitive theory?

Answer 33

Social cognitive theory asserts that people learn by watching others, and if they see someone is rewarded for a behavior, they are more likely to behave that way too.

Question 34

The media portrayal of shoppers who are violent and aggressive or who misbehave on Black Friday in order to shame or ridicule them is an example of what type of social control? A. Formal positive sanction B. Formal negative sanction C. Informal negative sanction D. Informal positive sanction

Answer 34

C is correct. An informal sanction is an action by a peer or group of peers that is meant to make behavior more normative. It usually involves shaming or ridicule, which is considered a punishment. When the media shames people who engage in non-normative behavior (acting like a jerk while shopping), they are trying to enforce norms in an informal way.

Question 35

Which of the following steps could an organization take to make itself into a more ideal bureaucracy? A. Making distinctions between management and employees less pronounced B. Cross-training employees to be proficient in different skills C. Evaluating how decisions impact stock price to promote value for stockholders in accordance with the company's mission D. Promoting individuals until they reach a level above their skill set

Answer 35

C is correct. An ideal bureaucracy will make decisions in accordance with its mission—in this case, to create value for shareholders.

Question 36

Which of the following variables are negatively correlated with globalization? A. Number of multi-national corporations B. Internet usage C. Protectionism D. Trade agreements

Answer 36

C is correct. Protectionism refers to a country rejecting trade with others and being isolative, which is inversely proportional to globalization.

Question 37

What regulates our fear response?

Answer 37

The amygdala

Question 38

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a male Seattle welfare recipient who has a mental illness? A. He will redirect feelings of bias towards police during potential MHA incidents. B. He will seek out other welfare recipients. C. He will seek out other welfare recipients with mental illness. D. He will internalize perceived police bias.

Answer 38

D is correct. The looking-glass self is a social psychological concept stating that a person's self grows out of society's interpersonal interactions and the perceptions of others. The term refers to people shaping their self-concepts based on their understanding of how others perceive them. If the man feels bias from society and/or police (as mentioned in paragraph 1) the looking-glass self theory states that he will internalize the bias/stigmatization directed towards him.

Question 39

What is group polarization?

Answer 39

Group polarization is a phenomenon in which a group comes to express a consensus view that is more extreme than the individual views of any one group member before the group discussion began. Here, the more extreme policy is likely the result of group polarization during the discussion

Question 40

Ecological validity

Answer 40

refers to how findings from an experimental setting can be generalized to the environmental considerations in the real world.

Question 41

Construct validity

Answer 41

refers to whether measures actually do assess the variables that they are intended to assess.

Question 42

The Rorschach inkblot test is often used to identify distinct personalities in those with DID. This test is best categorized as a: I. subjective personality assessment. II. objective personality assessment. III. projective personality assessment. A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I and III only

Answer 42

D is correct. Both RN I and III correctly describe the inkblot test. In subjective assessments, patients project their own subjective feelings, perceptions, and thoughts onto the assessment stimuli, yielding results that are open for inaccuracy. For example, physicians may reach a different conclusion despite seeing the same patient who says the same thing. Projective personality assessments require the participant to respond, and then their response is assessed for meaning.

Question 43

Parkinson's can result from insufficiencies in which neurotransmitter?

Answer 43

Dopamine

Question 44

Which of the following strategies would likely reduce the occurrence of criminal behavior from a differential association theoretical perspective? A. A child in a high-crime area being adopted by an affluent family B. Repeated messages in school that students are expected to uphold prosocial values C. Deemphasizing the importance of values, such as material wealth, that would lead individuals to commit crimes D. Increasing penalties for crime to a degree that individuals are dissuaded from committing it

Answer 44

A is correct. According to differential association theory, individuals engage in criminal choices because they are exposed to it, while individuals who don’t commit crimes have not been exposed to this type of behavior. Thus, a child going from an area in which he is likely to be exposed to crime to an area where he is not likely to be exposed will reduce the likelihood of this individual committing a crime.

Question 45

What is differential association theory?

Answer 45

Through interaction with others, individuals learn the values, attitudes, techniques, and motives for criminal behavior.

Question 46

Which of the following would likely decrease an individual’s self-efficacy in regard to a particular task? A. Seeing a task performed successfully B. Feeling that past failures were due to other individuals C. Being offered positive encouragement by others D. Learning stress-reduction techniques in regard to the task

Answer 46

B is correct. This is an example of an external locus of control, which might increase an individual’s self-esteem, but would be expected to have a negative effect on self-efficacy.

Question 47

What is a meritocracy?

Answer 47

A meritocracy is a society of people whose progress within the society is based on ability and talent rather than on class privilege or wealth. This requires that everyone be afforded the same opportunities to advance yet only be rewarded based upon individual outcomes due to their individual talents and/or abilities, which can vary between persons.

Question 48

A person experiences a prolonged deficiency of thiamine and as a result may develop which of the following neurological disorders? A. Down syndrome B. Alzheimer's disease C. Korsakoff's syndrome D. Schizophrenia

Answer 48

C is correct. Korsakoff's syndrome is a neurological disorder that is most often seen in people who have severe prolonged alcoholism, as a result of which they experience severe thiamine deficiency.

Question 49

Difference between explicit and implicit attitudes?

Answer 49

Explicit attitudes are conscious attitudes | Implicit attitudes are unconscious attitudes.

Question 50

What is proactive interference?

Answer 50

the tendency of previously learned material to hinder subsequent learning.

Question 51

What is social stratification?

Answer 51

Social stratification is a kind of social differentiation whereby a society groups people into socioeconomic strata, based upon their occupation and income, wealth and social status, or derived power

Question 52

Anomie

Answer 52

Anomie is a "condition in which society provides little moral guidance to individuals". This evolves from conflict of belief systems and causes breakdown of social bonds between an individual and the community.

Question 53

Extrinsic vs Intrinsic motivation

Answer 53

Intrinsic motivation involves doing something because it's personally rewarding to you. Extrinsic motivation involves doing something because you want to earn a reward or avoid punishment.

Question 54

Me vs I in Mead's theory

Answer 54

The “me” is the social self and the “I” is the response to the “me. ” The “I” is the individual’s impulses. The “I” is self as subject; the “me” is self as object. I is spontaneous

Question 55

Which statement best explains meritocracy in terms of status? Meritocracy occurs when selections are made based on: A.master status rather than achieved status. B.achieved status rather than ascribed status. C.ascribed status rather than social status. D.social status rather than achieved status.

Answer 55

Meritocracy is when appointments, selections, and responsibilities are assigned to individuals based on merit – intelligence, skills, credentials, and other similar factors. Merit is thus derived from achievements. The option pairing that best explains meritocracy is B, achieved status over ascribed status. The options that include social status are not specific, since social status refers to honor or prestige but without an assumption of how that status was attained. Finally, master status refers to a particular status that dominates other statuses that a person might hold.

Question 56

Parkinson's disease is caused by decreased signals of what?

Answer 56

Dopamine

Question 57

Depression is caused by decreased signals of what?

Answer 57

Seratonin

Question 58

How do you increase statistical power?

Answer 58

Statistical power refers to the potential or likelihood of a study to detect a “real” difference in the outcome of interest. As such, it depends on the sample size and the magnitude of the effect of interest.

Question 59

Benefits of social capital?

Answer 59

Social capital is the value embedded in social networks, such as job connections, the ability to call in favors, and the ability to rely on others for support in difficult circumstances.

Question 60

Surround suppression

Answer 60

Surround suppression involves perceiving tactile information while ignoring stimuli immediately surrounding it

Question 61

Behaviorists would assert that self-defeating behaviors are maintained by immediate reinforcement in the form of: A. relief from anxiety. B. defending the ego. C. negating one's self-image. D. increasing existential anxiety.

Answer 61

A is correct. People are more likely to behave in a self-defeating or destructive manner either when they perceive a threat or when they have low self-esteem. These people are more likely to be susceptible to having anxiety and emotional distress, which are problems that are usually directly related to a less favorable self-appraisal. Self-defeating or self-destructive behaviors often manifest due to an inability to handle either anxiety or stress which results from a lack of self-confidence. Thus engaging in these behaviors offers an immediate relief from anxiety which then reinforces that behavior.

Question 62

When a person's gender identity does not match his or her physical sex, the person would most likely experience which of the following? A. Paraphilia B. Sexual dysfunction C. Gender dysphoria D. Androgyny

Answer 62

C is correct. Gender dysphoria is the feeling of stress or discomfort in which one's sense of one's gender does not align with the gender assigned at birth (overwhelmingly the physiological sex of the person as determined by primary sex characteristics). In the older nomenclature, this was termed gender identity disorder, but (much like homosexuality before it), this condition has since been removed from the DSM as a "disorder" and come to simply be understood as one point on the wide spectrum of human sexual and gender characteristics.

Question 63

Paraphillia

Answer 63

Paraphilia is the experience of intense sexual arousal to atypical objects, situations, or individuals.

Question 64

Androgyny

Answer 64

Androgyny is the combination of masculine and feminine characteristics. Sexual ambiguity may be found in fashion, gender identity, sexual identity, or sexual lifestyle. It can also refer to biological intersex physicality

Question 65

General paresis

Answer 65

general paralysis of the insane or paralytic dementia, is a neuropsychiatric disorder affecting the brain, caused by late-stage syphilis.

Question 66

Availability heuristic

Answer 66

individuals pay attention to more extreme cases, which they then use to generalize events as occurring at greater rates than they actually are.

Question 67

The amygdala is the part of the brain involved with perceptions of ____.

Answer 67

fear

Question 68

To compare the percent of people experiencing crime in an area with the percent of people perceiving crime to be a problem, researchers could use what type of analysis? A. A paired samples t-test B. An independent samples t-test C. Linear regression D. A Pearson correlation coefficient

Answer 68

B is correct. An independent samples t-test is conducted when researchers wish to compare mean values of two groups.

Question 69

Paired samples t test

Answer 69

This test would be used if the results came from the same participants.

Question 70

Tactile perception

Answer 70

also called touch perception, is the brain's ability to understand (perceive) information coming from the skin, particularly the skin on the hands.

Question 71

What is our body's thirst center?

Answer 71

Hypothalamus

Question 72

It was discovered that in those whose stress levels are significantly elevated by traumatic events, the incidence of bedwetting was increased. During which stage of sleep is bedwetting most likely to occur? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. REM

Answer 72

C is correct. Typically, sleepers pass through five stages: 1, 2, 3, 4, and REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. Stage 4 is referred to as Delta sleep because of the delta waves that occur during this stage. Stage 4 is a deep sleep that typically lasts about 30 minutes. Sleepwalking and bed-wetting typically occur at the end of Stage 4. During this “deep sleep,” there is no eye movement or muscle activity. This is when some children may also experience sleepwalking, or night terrors.

Question 73

Affective heuristic

Answer 73

a mental shortcut that allows people to make decisions and solve problems quickly and efficiently, in which current emotion—fear, pleasure, surprise, etc.—influences decisions.

Question 74

Sexual dimorphism

Answer 74

Sexual dimorphism refers to the degree to which males and females resemble each other. A species with low sexual dimorphism contains males and females that look mostly identical. High sexual dimorphism signals intense competition for mates, while animals from species with low sexual dimorphism typically form pair bonds and mate for life.

Question 75

Informative vs normative pressure

Answer 75

Informative pressure is a subtype of conformity pressure. It occurs when an individual conforms his or her behavior to match that of the rest of a group out of the belief that the group is better informed and knows more than the individual. Normative pressure is a subtype of conformity pressure in which the individual knows that the others are incorrect, but still feels pressure to not dissent from the rest of the group.

Question 76

What is social constructionism?

Answer 76

Presumes that ideas are created through historical processes, that are socially defined and culturally distinct.

Question 77

Dramaturgical theory

Answer 77

Front stage self, back stage self, impression managemnt and communication are all relevant to the dramaturgical approach to social interactions. Uses the metaphor of theater to understand social interactions. People are assumed to act in accordance with the expectations of their audience.

Question 78

Which approach uses the effects of classical conditioning?

Answer 78

Behaviorist

Question 79

Subjective vs Objective

Answer 79

Subjective refers to personal perspectives, feelings, or opinions entering the decision making process. Objective refers to the elimination of subjective perspectives and a process that is purely based on hard facts.

Question 80

the ____ is directly involved in color sensation and its distribution of receptors varies across different species

Answer 80

fovea

Question 81

Which finding best supports the linguistic relativity hypothesis? A.All languages have a word for “up” and a word for “down.” B.Humans are better at learning words for primary colors than for secondary colors. C.Some languages do not have words for “right” and “left.” D.Humans are better at distinguishing colors for which their language has a name.

Answer 81

The answer to this question is D. The linguistic relativity hypothesis suggests that human cognition is affected by language.

Question 82

Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A.Classical conditioning B.Operant conditioning C.Latent learning D.Observational learning

Answer 82

The answer to this question is B. The finding focuses on reward-seeking motivation, which is most closely associated with operant conditioning (change in behavior due to past outcomes)

Question 83

Relative poverty

Answer 83

Relative poverty refers to social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to the social advantages linked to income or wealth in a society. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it involves

Question 84

What is the socioeconomic gradient of health?

Answer 84

The socioeconomic gradient in health refers to the graded relationship between social class and health, in which each “step” up on the hierarchy of social stratification tends to be associated with better health.

Question 85

Social desirability bias

Answer 85

a type of response bias that is the tendency of survey respondents to answer questions in a manner that will be viewed favorably by others. It can take the form of over-reporting "good behavior" or under-reporting "bad," or undesirable behavior

Question 86

Selection bias

Answer 86

the bias introduced by the selection of individuals, groups or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomization is not achieved, thereby ensuring that the sample obtained is not representative of the population intended to be analyzed. It is sometimes referred to as the selection effect

Question 87

Which type of psychoactive drug has the lowest risk of dependence? A.Stimulants B.Hallucinogens C.Alcohol D.Sedatives

Answer 87

B. Hallucinogens have low risk of dependence, whereas the other substances listed as possible answers carry a moderate to high risk of physical or psychological dependence (the question does not require making a distinction between either).

Question 88

To determine the effectiveness of brainstorming, a researcher designs a study in which participants are asked to produce alternatives to an existing marketing strategy on their own or with a group. Which pattern of results is most likely based on research on group processes? A.Groups arrive at the improved alternatives more often than individuals. B.Groups are more likely to critically evaluate alternatives than individuals. C.On average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group. D.On average, participants produce more alternatives in a group than alone.

Answer 88

The answer to this question is C. Social loafing refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group. Research also suggests that individuals are less critical and less creative in groups.

Question 89

Individuals who have the ability to delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards are most likely to be categorized as having which type of intelligence? A.Analytical B.Creative C.Interpersonal D.Emotional

Answer 89

The answer to this question is D. Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive, express, understand, and manage one’s emotions. Emotionally intelligent people are self-aware and can delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards, rather than being overtaken by immediate impulses. None of the other answer choices is related to delaying gratification.

Question 90

What is cognitive behavioral theory?

Answer 90

CBT focuses on challenging and changing unhelpful cognitive distortions and behaviors, improving emotional regulation, and the development of personal coping strategies that target solving current problems.

Question 91

Which statement reflects the medicalization of smoking and smoking cessation? A.Smoking is a personal behavior that can be adjusted through individual behavior modification. B.Smoking is an unhealthy behavior that is structurally managed via legislation to reduce overall smoking rates. C.Smoking is an addictive behavior that can be treated via the use of pharmaceutical intervention. D.Smoking is a public health issue that is socially desirable to mitigate through smoking cessation programs.

Answer 91

he answer to this question is C because it suggests the expansion of medical authority to smoking cessation and identifies a specific medical therapy. Medicalization refers to the taken-for-granted process in which a problem comes to be defined and treated by the social institution of medicine. A behavior undergoes medicalization when both the definition of the problem and the therapy intended to improve it are couched in medical terms. The other options do not suggest the expansion of medical authority or do not describe both problem and solution in medical terms.

Question 92

What is an observational study?

Answer 92

Observational studies observe the behavior of subjects in their natural, uncontrolled environments

Question 93

Flashbulb memory

Answer 93

the subjectively vivid, compelling memories of details associated with reception of news about emotionally arousing events were referred to as flashbulb memories

Question 94

Prospective memory

Answer 94

Prospective memory is a form of memory that involves remembering to perform a planned action or recall a planned intention at some future point in time. Prospective memory tasks are common in daily life and range from the relatively simple to extreme life-or-death situations.

Question 95

Eidetic memory

Answer 95

an ability to recall images from memory vividly after only a few instances of exposure, with high precision for a brief time after exposure, without using a mnemonic device.

Question 96

Generalizability

Answer 96

refers to external validity, which is the extent to which the results of a scientific investigation would generalize to other settings and populations. It is dependent on the extent to which the processes studied in the investigation represent the processes presumed to be operating outside the laboratory.

Question 97

emotional arousal seems to focus a person’s attention on the ______ features of an event. Memories of ______ features seem to be forgotten or become changed

Answer 97

central | peripheral

Question 98

A 45-year-old man presents himself at a hospital emergency room. Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Medical tests reveal that the man did not have a heart attack. Which psychiatric diagnosis provides the most likely explanation for the man’s symptoms? A.Generalized anxiety disorder B.Panic disorder C.Illness anxiety disorder D.Somatic symptom disorder

Answer 98

The answer to this question is B because the symptom pattern described in the stem is best explained by the diagnosis of panic disorder.

Question 99

Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely: A.have difficulty falling asleep. B.have more REM sleep than usual. C.have less REM sleep than usual. D.have the same sleep pattern as before the study.

Answer 99

The answer to this question is B because after being REM-deprived the night before, the volunteer is going to exhibit “REM rebound.”

Question 100

What are the 3 main components of socioeconomic status?

Answer 100

The three main components of SES are occupation, income, and education

Question 101

In response to stress, what part of the brain initiates signals to the endocrine system? A.Hippocampus B.Medulla oblongata C.Hypothalamus D.Pons

Answer 101

The answer to this question is C because the hypothalamus is the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response.

Question 102

The standard version of a dichotic listening task involves: A.presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear. B.presenting two different auditory stimuli to the same ear. C.requiring participants to identify two subthreshold sounds. D.requiring participants to dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

Answer 102

The answer to this question is A because it provides the operational definition of dichotic listening. Each distractor mentions something about presenting two auditory stimuli, but none specifies that the two different stimuli are presented to different ears.

Question 103

The frequency with which students completed problems decreased after their teacher stopped rewarding completed problems with candy. This observation is an example of which phenomenon? A.Extinction B.Shaping C.Stimulus discrimination D.Stimulus generalization

Answer 103

The answer to this question is A because without continued reinforcement of an established operant behavior, the frequency of the behavior decreases.

Question 104

A life course perspective

Answer 104

A life course is defined as "a sequence of socially defined events and roles that the individual enacts over time". In particular, the approach focuses on the connection between individuals and the historical and socioeconomic context in which these individuals lived.

Question 105

A transient shortage of oxygen (global ischemia) releases excess glutamate into the extracellular fluid of the brain. This causes neuronal death by hyperexcitation to a greater extent in the hippocampus than in the cortex. Which reason best explains why the hippocampus is selectively vulnerable during global ischemia? A.The magnitude of action potentials is greater in hippocampal than cortical neurons. B.The expression of NMDA receptors is more abundant in hippocampal than cortical neurons. C.Hippocampal neurons generate a more negative postsynaptic potential than cortical neurons. D.Hippocampal synapses have faster neurotransmitter diffusion rates compared to cortical synapses.

Answer 105

The answer to this question is B because NMDA receptors are a subtype of glutamate receptor. Higher expression of NDMA receptors in the hippocampus than the cortex would render the hippocampus more vulnerable to the excess release of extracellular glutamate.

Question 106

Urine from inbred strain (Strain A) male mice was swabbed every day for one week on the nostrils of female mice of inbred strain (Strain B). Compared to unswabbed, female Strain B mice, uterine weight, but not total body weight, increased in the swabbed mice. Strain A male urine had no effect on uterine weight or body weight of inbred, female Strain C mice. Which statement best explains these results? A.Conserved evolution of pheromones preserves the ability of male mice to elicit pheromone-mediated behaviors in female mice. B.The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains. C.Pheromone-mediated stimulation causes accelerated female reproductive development in Strain C mice compared to Strain B mice. D.Genetic variation between Strain A male mice resulted in inconsistent pheromone concentration in the urine applied to the female groups of mice.

Answer 106

The answer to this question is B because there was most likely a difference in the receptiveness of the two inbred strains of mice, as the same signal applied to two separate strains produced opposing results. The pheromone would be detected by chemosensory neurons.

Question 107

Pairs of research participants interacted for 10 min. They rated themselves and their partners on personality traits and then rated the accuracy of their partners’ ratings of them. The partners’ ratings were rated as more accurate if they were close to participants’ own self-ratings. This finding illustrates: A.the self-fulfilling prophecy. B.self-verification. C.the self-serving bias. D.self-efficacy.

Answer 107

The answer to this question is B because self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept.

Question 108

Five factor model

Answer 108

The primary factors of personality are ``` Extroversion. Agreeableness. Conscientiousness. Neuroticism. Openness to experience. ```

Question 109

Which neurotransmitter is associated with hunger, drive, mood, and aggressive behavior?

Answer 109

Serotonin

Question 110

GABA

Answer 110

is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the developmentally mature mammalian central nervous system. Its principal role is reducing neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system.

Question 111

When studying education as a social institution, the hidden curriculum constitutes: A.a manifest function of schools. B.an equalizing function of schools. C.a latent function of schools. D.a discriminatory function of schools.

Answer 111

The answer to this question is C because the hidden curriculum refers to the subtle lessons that are taught in school that reinforce broader social norms. The hidden curriculum can be combined with the concept of latent functions (aspects of a social institution that may serve an unacknowledged purpose), in order to better understand how education functions as an institution.

Question 112

In order to balance on one foot, many people need to have their eyes open. This is an example of: A.motion parallax. B.sensory interaction. C.vestibular sense. D.perceptual maladaptation.

Answer 112

the answer to this question is B because sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance).

Question 113

Which stage of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles?

Answer 113

Stage 2

Question 114

Place theory

Answer 114

place theory posits that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane.

Question 115

Social stigma is commonly associated with what?

Answer 115

An attribute that is devalued Social stigmas is derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval. Often the disapproval is associated with behavior, identity or other attribute that is considered deviant by others.

Question 116

Which concept describes the self concept as a product of social interaction, emerging out of the way an individual perceives other to view him or her?

Answer 116

The looking glass self

Question 117

Ethnographic study

Answer 117

Involves observing social interactions in real social settings.

Question 118

Social epidemioogy

Answer 118

Focuses on how social factors, such as class or race/ethnicity, affect the distribution of health and disease

Question 119

Demographic transition

Answer 119

Theory of economic development and population change.Suggests that economic changes, specifically industrialization, affect the relationship between fertility and mortality rates in society.

Question 120

Labeling theory

Answer 120

Perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behavior