Missed Details Flashcards
This a deck of the missed details in the powerpoints (128 cards)
1
Q
What are the weeks for the embryonic period?
A
Weeks 1-8
2
Q
When does the fetal period start and long does it go for?
A
Begins on week 9 and goes until birth
3
Q
What is the embryonic period characterized by?
A
The development of structures/organs
4
Q
What is the fetal period characterized by?
A
Growth of structures/organs
5
Q
When do the Primordial germ cells appear?
A
In the yolk sac in the 4th week of interuterine life and migrate to indifferent gonads
6
Q
How many sperm do males produce per ejaculate?
A
300-600 million sperm
7
Q
Why does meiosis take longer to complete than mitosis?
A
Synapsis occurs at prophase I (diplotene)
8
Q
What occurs at the 5th month of female fetal life?
A
The primary oocytes are formed and arrested in prophase of meiosis I until puberty
9
Q
What is the conditioning of sperm in the female reproductive tract which lasts 7 hours?
A
Capacitation
10
Q
When does the acrosome reaction occur?
A
After binding to the zona pellucida, induced by zona proteins?
11
Q
What does the zona pellucida secrete during the acrosome reaction?
A
Acrosin and trypsin like substance
12
Q
What is the order for spermatozoon penetration?
A
- Corona Radiata
- Zona Pellucida
- Oocyte Cell Membrane
13
Q
What must degenerate for implantation to occur?
A
The Zona Pellucida
14
Q
Where does the blastocyst implant?
A
Within the posterior or anterior of the functional layer of the endometrium
15
Q
Where are the most common sites for ectopic pregnancy?
A
Ampulla of the Uterine Tube
Rectouterine Pouch
16
Q
What implants first in the uterus?
A
Embryonic Pole of the blastocyst
17
Q
A mutiple pregnancy, hydatidiform mole, or gestational trophoblastic disease can be predicted by what?
A
High hCG levels
18
Q
A spontaneous abortion or ectopic pregnancy can be predicted by what?
A
Low hCG levels
19
Q
What is a partial mole?
A
When one oocyte is fertilized by 2 sperm; triploidy sex chromosome (69XXY)
Has an abnormal small placenta and vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester
20
Q
Fertilization of enucleate ovum (no female pronucleus) by normal sperm (no embryo)
The tissue appear as a cluster of grapes
A
A complete mole
21
Q
Moles produce ___ levels of hCG
A
High
22
Q
Moles may produce ___ tumors
A
benign/malignant tumors (choriocarcinoma)
23
Q
What induces forebrain development?
A
Prechordal plate
24
Q
What will give rise to the future opening of the oral cavity?
A
Oropharyngeal membrane
25
What does the caudal end of the embryonic disc form?
Cloacal membrane
26
Tumor associated with gastrulation? What is it derived from?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Tumor at the base of coccyx, derived from remnants of primitive streak
27
Tumor associated with notochord? What is it derived from?
Chordoma
Slow growing tumor arising from cellular remnant of notochord
28
When gastrulation itself is disrupted by genetic abnormalities what may this result in? What kind of appearance does this have?
Sirenomelia/ caudal dysgenesis
Insufficient mesoderm is formed in the causal most region of the embryo. Results in a mermaid appearance because this mesoderm contributes to the formation of the lower limb, urogenital system, lumbrosacral vertebrae failure.
29
What disappears in the placenta from the 3rd month to birth?
Cytotrophoblast
30
What do lipophilic hormones usually end in?
-ol or -one
They are usually alcohols or ketones
31
What do hydrophilic hormone usually end in?
-ine or -in
These are usually amino acid and peptide hormones
32
What type of response is faster ion channel or G-Protein Coupled?
Ion Channel
33
What type of response is slower: ion channel or G-Protein Coupled?
G-Protein Coupled
34
Caffeine, Theophylline, and theobromine, which are all found in coffee, tea, and cocoa respectively all ___ neuron excitability
Increase
35
This agent found in Coffee increases neuron excitability
Caffeine
36
This agent found in tea increases neuron excitability
Theophylline
37
This agent found in cocoa increases neuron excitability
Theobromine
38
What drugs inhibit transcription?
Actinomycin D
-binds to the DNA double helix
Rifampin
-binds to the beta subunit
39
___ identifies and binds to the promoter cite
TFIID
40
___ recruits RNA pol II
TFIIF
41
___ uses its helices activity to unwind DNA
TFIIH
42
This disease results from a nucleotide change at an exon-intron junction, precluding removal of the intron and therefore leading to diminished or absent synthesis of the B-globin chain protein
Presents with hemolytic anemia
B-thalassemia
43
Which biological technique can alternative splicing can be detected by?
Northern blot
44
What is the major site of purine and pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis?
Liver
45
In what places is the purine salvage pathway important to save energy?
Brain and lymphocytes
46
This autosomal recessive genetic disorder in purine catabolism affects T-cell immunity, while B-cell immunity is more or less normal. This disorder is less severe to ADA deficiency, but has recurrent mild to moderate infections
Purine Nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency
47
How can you treat ADA deficiency?
Gene therapy
Bone marrow stem cell transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy
48
Deposits called tophi are present in which disorder.
Gout
The deposits of uric acid in the kidney lead to stone formation (urolithiasis)
49
What can be seen is the diseases listed below:
- mutant hyperactive PRPP synthetase
- HGPRT deficiency
- Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
- Inherited fructose intolerance
- Increase degradation/turnover of cells
Overproduction of Uric acid
50
What can be seen in the defects listed below:
- Renal failure
- Lactic acidosis
- Alcoholism
Retention of Uric Acid
Lactic acid interferes with the excretion of uric acid -> hyperuricemia
alcoholism leads to lactic acidosis
Increased blood uric acid level may lead to gout
51
___ catabolism produces ammonia, CO2, B-alanine, and B-aminoisobutyrate
Pyrimidine
52
___ deficiency is associated with MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of Young)
Glucokinase
53
___ inhibits enolase in glycolysis
Fluoride
54
In the presence of ___ the production of ATP does not take place in the first substrate level phosphorylation step of glycolysis
Arsenate (pentavalent arsenic)
55
Myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, uncontrolled hemorrhage, alcohol toxicity, PDH deficiency, severe muscular exercise, Von Gierke's disease, and MELAS can all cause what?
Lactic Acidosis
56
TCA cycle inhibitors
Fluoroacetate inhibits:
Arsenite inhibits:
Malonate inhibits:
Aconitase; a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; succinate dehydrogenase
57
Defects in this metabolic pathway leads to low blood glucose levels and the absence of ketone bodies in the blood
Beta Oxidation
58
___-oxidation generates dicarboxylic acids, which are water soluble and excreted out. When does this become important?
Omega
It is important in the conditions that limit beta oxidation
59
Which receptor causes:
- mydriasis
- vasoconstriction
- increases blood pressure
- increases volume return to the heart
Where is it located?
Alpha-1
Located in vascular smooth muscle, gastrointestinal tract, and the eye
60
What receptor causes:
- decreased motility
- decreased NE release
- decreased aqueous humor production
Where is this located?
Alpha-2
Found in the GI tract
61
What receptor causes:
- increased HR
- increased Renin
- increased contractility
Where is it located?
Beta-1
Located in the heart, kidney, and fat cells
62
What receptor causes:
- vasodilation
- brochodialation
- increased aqueous humor production
Where is it found?
Beta-2
Found in the bronchioles and vascular smooth muscle
63
What receptor is responsible for actions in the CNS?
Where is it found?
M1 receptor
CNS
64
What receptor causes:
- decreased HR
- decreased contractility
Where is it located?
M2
Heart
65
What receptor causes
- miosis
- lens accommodation
- increased lacrimation
- bronchoconstriction
- increased Gastric acid secretion
- increased salivation
- increased peristalsis
- bladder contraction
- sweating (sympathetic)
Where is it found?
M3 receptor
Found in the GI tract, bronchioles, eye, and bladder
66
Which group of amino acids serve as an attachment for phosphate group in proteins?
Hydroxyl group
Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine
67
Which group of amino acids participate in hydrogen bonding in protein structure?
Hydroxyl group
Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine
68
Which group of amino acids serve as an attachment of carbohydrate moiety in glycoproteins?
Hydroxyl group: Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine
Amide group: Asparagine, Glutamine
69
Which group of amino acids participate in hydrogen bonding in protein structure at alkaline pH?
Sulfhydryl group
Cysteine
70
Which group of amino acids are a component of the active site of many enzymes?
Sulfhydryl group
Cysteine
71
Which group of amino acids serve as stabilization of tertiary structure of proteins?
Sulfhydryl group
Cysteine
72
Which amino acid’s unique geometry contributes to the formation of the fibrous structure of collagen?
Proline
73
Which group of amino acids tend to cluster in the interior of the protein molecule in an aqueous medium known as the hydrophobic effect?
Nonpolar amino acids
74
Which group of amino acids are found on the outside surface of integral proteins, interacting with the lipid environment?
Nonpolar amino acids
75
Which groups of amino acids stabilize tertiary and quaternary structures of protein by forming ionic bonds?
Charged polar amino acids
76
Which group of amino acids are proton donors?
Amino acids with acidic side chains
Aspartic acid, Glutamic Acids
77
Which group of amino acids are proton acceptors?
Amino acids with basic side chains
Lysine, Arginine, Histidine
78
At physiologic pH, the R groups of Lysine and Arginine are ___
Fully ionized and positively charged
79
At physiologic pH, the side chains of Aspartic Acid and Glutamic Acid are ___
Fully ionized containing a negative charge
80
Amino acids are fully protonated at ___ pH
Very low
81
Amino acids are fully deprotonated at ___ pH
Very High
82
Heat, vigorous mixing, X-Rays, UV-Radiation, etc, are all forms of what type of denaturation?
Physical
83
Acids, alkali, organic solvents, salts of heavy metals, etc, are all example of what kind of denaturation?
Chemical
84
The biological effects of denaturation include:
- Biological activity is ___
- Viscosity is ___
- Proteins become ___
Lost
Increased
Less soluble
85
Which membrane lipid is:
- major
- located mainly in outer leaflet
- derives from ceramide
Sphingolipids
86
Which membrane lipid is:
- minor but essential; ~2% of membrane lipids
- exclusive time outer leaflet
- most made from ceramide
Glycolipids
87
Which membrane lipid is:
- major
- amphipathic
- interdigitates between phospholipids in inner and outer leaflets
- helps maintain structural integrity of plasma membrane
Cholesterol
88
T/F: The plasma membrane is symmetric
False. The plasma membrane is Asymmetrical
89
Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:
- amobarbital
- rotenone
- piercidine A
Complex 1
90
Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:
- TTFA (Thenoyl trifluoro acetone)
- Carboxin
Complex II
91
Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:
- Antimycin A
- BAL (British anti-Lewisite)
Complex III
92
Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:
- cyanide
- carbon monoxide (CO)
- sodium azide
- hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
Complex IV
93
What is Oligomycin an inhibitor of?
ATP Synthase
94
What is a plant toxin that inhibits ATP transport (adenine nucleotide translocator) from mitochondrial matrix (ATP-ADP exchange) across inner mitochondrial membrane?
Atracyloside
95
Chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22 are ___
Acrocentric
96
Lower motor neurons (Efferent motor fibers) are found where?
The ventral gray of the spinal cord (all 31 segments)
97
Where are parasympathetic nerve fibers found?
Cranial-sacral regions
98
Where are the sympathetic nerve fibers found?
Interomediolateral gray, thoracic and lumbar cord
99
What are intrafusal fibers innervated by?
Gamma motor neuron
100
What are extrafusal fibers innervated by?
Lower Motor Neuron (alpha motor neuron)
101
What are the nuclear bag and nuclear chain receptors on intrafusal fiber innervated by?
Motor afferent fibers (Type Ia)
Chain by Type II
102
Are afferent fibers motor or sensory?
Sensory
103
Are efferent fibers motor or sensory?
Motor
104
What motor afferent fiber is the most rapidly conductive and most myelinated?
Type I
105
What motor afferent fiber is the slowest conductive myelinated fiber?
Type III
106
What motor afferent fiber is unmyelinated?
Type IV
107
What is the myotatic (muscle stretch) reflex innervated by (afferent/efferent)?
Type Ia fiber (afferent)
LMN (efferent)
Pathway:
1. Autogenic contraction (feedback to the same muscle to make it contract back to where it was)
2. Synergistic contraction
3. Reciprocal inhibition to antagonist
4. Renshaw inhibition (stops the reflex before you over correct it)
108
In cystic fibrosis, the trinucleotide deletion causes which amino acid to be removed from the final protein?
Phenylalanine
109
What cardiac glycoside drugs are specific inhibitors of Na+, K+-ATPase?
Ouabain and digitalis
110
What vitamin does Y-carboxylation require? Which amino acid is this performed on?
Vitamin K; glutamic acid in certain Ca2+-binding proteins
111
What is the name of the disease in which patients exhibit sensitivity to damage caused by DNA cross-linking agents and are susceptible to developing acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and exhibit congenital skeletal malformation and progressive aplastic anemia.
Fanconi Anemia
112
What disease is caused by a defect in the ATM gene in which patients exhibit sensitivity to damage caused by X-rays. They have numerous oculocutaneous telangiectasias and have progressive cerebral at ataxia and are relatively immunodeficient.
Ataxia Telangiectasia
113
Ribose, galactose, and glucose are (ketones/aldehydes)?
Aldose sugars
114
Fructose is a (ketone/aldehyde)?
Keto sugar
115
What is the name for a group of diseases that are caused by defective lysosomal degradation of glycosphingolipids?
Sphingolipidoses
116
Where are cerebrosides found?
Brain and Peripheral Nervous Tissue
117
What lipid is a precursor of bile acids, steroid hormones, and vitamin D?
Cholesterol
118
What plasma lipoprotein transports digested and absorbed lipids from the intestine to other body tissues?
Chylomicrons
119
What plasma liproproteins transports TAG from the liver to extra hepatic tissues?
Very Low Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)
120
What plasma lipoproteins transports cholesterol from lice to extra hepatic tissues?
Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL)
121
What plasma lipoprotein transports cholesterol from extra hepatic tissues to the liver?
High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
122
What lipid functions in promoting inflammation, regulation of blood pressure, and control of platelet aggregation?
Eicosanoids
Prostaglandins, prostacyclin, leukotrienes, thromboxanes
123
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin (activate/inhibit) the prostaglandin synthesis?
Inhibit
124
Where do molecules in the VOMIT, ketone bodies, heme, and propionyl CoA enter into the TCA cycle?
Succinyl CoA
125
What amino acid can a-ketoglutarate turn into?
Glutamate
126
What amino acid can pyruvate be synthesized from and turn into?
Alanine
127
What amino acid can oxaloacetate turn into and be synthesized from?
Aspartate
128
What amino acid can fumarate be converted?
Phenylalanine
