Missed Modern Flashcards

Question

Which of the following is the best example of constant error? a) A subject consistently provides wrong answers to every test question b) A psychometrician consistently underestimates IQ scores by 10 points c) a test item is answered incorrectly by every student in a given class d) a test-retest reliability coefficient is low for several samples

Answer 1

b) A psychometrician consistently underestimates IQ scores by 10 points

Answer 2

b) Expert and referent

Answer 3

-- Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don't really affect a person's long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person's well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.

Answer 4

Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.

Answer 5

In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.

Answer 6

In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.

Answer 7

Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk for eating disorders, and more so for Bulimia and Binge eating disorders.

Answer 8

The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.

Answer 9

The term “capitation” refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response “D,” providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.

Answer 10

To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

Answer 11

Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.

Answer 12

According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.

Answer 13

The term "paresis" means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or "general paresis") has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term's literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.

Answer 14

Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities (T.J. Crow, The two syndrome concept: Origins and current status, Schizophrenia Bulletin, 1992, 11, 471-486).

Answer 15

If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you'd find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as "the best predictor of (some disorder)" is "family history of that disorder." You won't be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.

Answer 16

Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn't have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement. The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee's ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).

Answer 17

Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).

Answer 18

Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.

Answer 19

68. C-- You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.

Answer 20

The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that "professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology." Choice "B" is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice "C", a second Ph.D. would not be necessary -- doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement.

Answer 21

This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05). Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.

Answer 22

One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al., 1989).

Answer 23

81. C-- The ethical standards say that psychologists cannot make false, deceptive, fraudulent, or misleading statements. Unless the psychologist's endorsements were based on sound expertise and her honest opinion of the publications in question, these standards would be violated.

Answer 24

Hispanics are an ethnic group like African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Native Americans. Unlike these groups, Hispanics are not a specific race. According to the 1998 Census Bureau, the total Hispanic population of the US accounts for 11% of the total population. Sixty-three percent are of Mexican origin, 14.4% are of Central and South American origin, 10.6% of mainland Puerto Rican origin, 4.2% of Cuban origin, and 7.4% other (Alfredo Ardilis, Testing Hispanic Populations, Texas Psychologist, Winter 2000).

Answer 25

86. A-- In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs, which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.

Answer 26

89. D-- According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity.

Answer 27

A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.

Answer 28

The substantia nigra is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson's disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson's disease -- the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quantity of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson's disease.

Answer 29

100. D-- Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias (c.). If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect (b.). A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.

Answer 30

109. D-- Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others -- the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy's view of introjection.

Answer 31

110. C-- The research is far from consistent on this issue. However, lack of parental supervision is frequently found as a correlate of delinquency along with a hostile relationship between parent and adolescent and parental rejection. Low SES, low IQ score, single-parent homes, and harsh discipline have weaker relationships with delinquency.

Answer 32

111. B-- Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill. (See: Engelhorn, R. (1997). Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills, Perceptual and Motor Skills, 85, 1011-1017.)

Answer 33

C: There are a variety of approaches to the treatment of aggression in children; the cognitive-behavioral approach is probably most common. In children who are older or developmentally advanced enough to understand, cognitive approaches tend to focus on helping the person accurately interpret external cues, so that he or she does not respond inappropriately with aggression. In younger children, the goal is often to identify the child's goals, the negative consequences of using aggression to meet those goals, and alternatives to aggression. The other choices are not as likely to be helpful: consistent discipline is good, but contrary to choice A, overly harsh discipline can serve to increase the child's aggression. Reinforcement for alternative behaviors is not a proven method of directly addressing aggression. And the notion that aggression is something that can be released through venting it on a safe target (or, by the way, watching it on TV) has not been supported -- apparently, engaging in aggressive behavior only leads to more of the same.

Answer 34

115. A-- Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.

Answer 35

118. A-- Pharmacotherapy (specifically, Lithium therapy in most cases) is the treatment of choice for manic-depressive illnesses such as Bipolar I Disorder. Pharmacotherapy may be supplemented with adjunctive psychotherapy (e.g., to provide support and coping skills). However, psychotherapy is not considered that useful in treating the core symptoms of Bipolar I Disorder. By contrast, although the disorders in the other choices are commonly treated with medication, they also respond to psychotherapy.

Answer 36

124. D-- Choice D describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.

Answer 37

132. B-- This is one of the many areas where the results of research are contradictory and somewhat controversial. However, the most recent meta-analyses of research in this area have found that across treatment approaches, girls respond better than boys, with adolescent girls responding best of all. This is somewhat contradictory to earlier research, which found that younger children respond better than older children. Because the findings of research sometimes contradict each other, it can be frustrating to decide which is the best answer to questions such as these. Of course, you'd want to find an answer that is consistent (or not inconsistent, at least) with the results of all the research. However, if such a response is not available, you should go with the results of more recent research.

Answer 38

137. C-- The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 1992, 49, 681-689). The reticular activating system (answer A), which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.

Answer 39

142. D-- The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.

Answer 40

B--AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.

Answer 41

150. C-- Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity ("A") refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination ("B") occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

Answer 42

199. A-- A behavioral assessment identifies “contingencies,” which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response “B”) or interventions (response ”D"), and therefore the correct answer.

Answer 43

198. B-- The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.

Answer 44

193. D-- One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.

Answer 45

184. C-- Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J. Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].

Answer 46

181. A-- This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.

Answer 47

179. C-- Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.

Answer 48

175. B-- Panic attacks are characterized by at least four of ten symptoms. These may include derealization or depersonalization, which are types of perceptual disturbances.

Answer 49

170. A-- While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (See: Tang, L., et al., (2001), Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA).

Answer 50

163. D-- Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.

Answer 51

161. B-- The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions – the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

Answer 52

Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Answer 53

Acetylcholine (ACh) is important for the control of the skeletal (voluntary) muscles, and disruption of ACh activity at neuromuscular junctions has been linked to myasthenia gravis and several other disorders. ACh also plays a role in learning, memory, attention, and mood.

Answer 54

Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Answer 55

Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.

Answer 56

Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Answer 57

Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Answer 58

Answer B is correct. Consistent with other studies, C. E. Grella, L. Greenwell, V. M. Mays, and S. D. Cochran found that lesbian and bisexual women were most likely to report seeking treatment for substance use and mental health disorders, followed by gay and bisexual men, heterosexual women, and heterosexual men (Influence of gender, sexual orientation, and need on treatment utilization for substance use and mental disorders: Findings from the California quality of life survey, BMC Psychiatry, 9(52), 2009, retrieved from https://bmcpsychiatry.biomedcentral.com/articles/ 10.1186/1471-244X-9-52).

Answer 59

Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Answer 60

Answer C is correct. Gale’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder. This diagnosis requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or substantial disruption of daily activities accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Answer 61

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-165 Answer C is correct. Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.

Answer 62

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.

Answer 63

A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp

Answer 64

A is correct. One of the structural elements of interest to structural family therapists are the boundaries between family members, and they distinguish between overly rigid and overly permeable boundaries: Overly rigid boundaries lead to disengagement (a lack of connection and excessive independence between family members), while overly permeable boundaries lead to enmeshment (excessive closeness and dependence between family members).

Answer 65

EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-053 Answer A is correct. Mowrer’s two-factor theory of learning proposes that some behaviors are the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning because it combines classical conditioning and negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). For example, a rat may learn that it can escape (stop) an electric shock by pressing a bar, which is the negative reinforcement component. Then, if a flashing light signals that the shock is about to occur, the light becomes paired with the shock so that the light elicits anticipatory fear, which is the classical conditioning component. The rat then avoids the shock by pressing the bar as soon as the light starts flashing.

Answer 66

B. kinetic EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).

Answer 67

D. positioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-149 Answer D is correct. When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.

Answer 68

EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-049 Answer A is correct. A test’s standard error of measurement equals its standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. A test’s reliability coefficient can range from 0 to 1.0, so the standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 10 ranges from 0 when the reliability coefficient is 1.0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 1 equals 0) to 10 when the reliability coefficient is 0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 0 equals 10).

Answer 69

EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-029 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides four types of composite scores that have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15: Full Scale IQ score, Factor Index scores, Verbal and Nonverbal Domain scores, and Abbreviated Battery IQ score.

Answer 70

The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.

Answer 71

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-143 Answer A is correct. Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Answer 72

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-032 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. An alternative would be to make a referral (answer C), but that’s not required in this situation since Dr. Axelrod specializes in treating depression and wants to expand his scope of practice.

Answer 73

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-128 Answer C is correct. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.

Answer 74

EPPP-D1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-06 Answer B is correct. Externalizing the problem is a core strategy of narrative family therapy and involves “reframing the problem from an internal deficiency or pathological condition in the individual to an objectified external and unwelcome narrative with a will of its own to dominate their lives” [H. Goldenberg and I. Goldenberg, Family therapy: An overview (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, 2012, p. 403]. Of the questions listed in the answers, a narrative family therapist is most likely to ask how long the man’s anger has been controlling his life since this would help externalize and objectify the anger.

Answer 75

EPPP-D1-ORG-Organizational Theories-10 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.

Answer 76

EPPP-D1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-07 Answer B is correct. Monocular cues depend on one eye and include the relative size of objects, the overlap (interposition) of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, and the relative motion of objects (motion parallax). Binocular cues depend on both eyes and include retinal disparity and convergence.

Answer 77

EPPP-D1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-05 Answer C is correct. The combination of symptoms listed in this question is caused by bilateral lesions in the temporal lobes, amygdala, and hippocampus and is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

Answer 78

EPPP-D1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-05 Answer A is correct. Decreased REM latency (shortened latency from sleep onset to REM sleep), reduced slow-wave (stages 3 and 4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency (a longer time to fall asleep), and increased REM density (more rapid eye movements per unit of time) have been linked to major depressive disorder, especially in adults.

Answer 79

EPPP-D1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-05 Answer C is correct. The ultimate attribution error applies to attributions made about members of an entire group. It occurs when members of an in-group consistently attribute negative outcomes for out-group members to dispositional factors and positive outcomes to situational factors.

Answer 80

EPPP-D1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-02 Answer C is correct. For the exam, keep in mind that a factor loading is interpreted by squaring it to determine the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ONE factor, while a communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ALL of the identified factors: When a test’s communality is .30, this means that the identified factors explain 30% of variability in test scores.

Answer 81

EPPP-D1-LIF-Cognitive Development-04 Answer B is correct. Secondary memory is another name for recent long-term memory and is associated with the greatest age-related decline. In contrast, primary memory (which is the storage aspect of short-term memory) and tertiary memory (which is another name for remote long-term memory) are relatively unaffected by increasing age.

Answer 82

EPPP-D1-PHY-Other Psychoactive Drugs-21B_81 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) does so by regulating glutamate activity.

Answer 83

EPPP-D1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer C is correct. The SB5 provides scores on five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.

Answer 84

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-21B_77 Answer B is correct. Self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.

Answer 85

EPPP-D1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-02 Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For about 50% of infants, this first occurs when they’re 18 months of age. See, e.g., M. Nielsen, T. Suddendorf, and V. Slaughter, Mirror self-recognition beyond the face, Child Development, 77(1), 176-185, 2006.

Answer 86

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-03 Answer A is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.06 states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current clients/patients … [and they] do not terminate therapy to circumvent this standard.” The Codes do not prohibit becoming sexually involved with relatives of former clients, although a psychologist would want to consider the potential impact of doing so. However, because none of the answers address this responsibility, answer A is the best answer of those given.

Answer 87

EPPP-D1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-21B_94 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s mission, values, goals, and strategies.

Answer 88

EPPP-D1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-07 Answer C is correct. Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which presentation of the conditioned stimulus precedes and overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. Of the methods for presenting the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, delay conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of the conditioned response.

Answer 89

Affection for your job ("affective commitment"). Fear of loss ("continuance commitment"). Sense of obligation to stay ("normative commitment"). EPPP-D1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-21B_94 Answer B is correct. Of the three main types of organizational commitment (normative, affective, and continuance), J. P. Meyer, D. J. Stanley, L. Herscovitch, and L. Topolnytsky found affective commitment to have the strongest and most favorable correlations with a variety of organization- and employee-relevant outcomes [Affective, continuance, and normative commitment to the organization: A meta-analysis of antecedents, correlates, and consequences. Journal of Vocational Behavior, 61(1), 20-52, 2002].

Answer 90

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-21B_91 Answer B is correct. Denial of access to protected health information is addressed in 45 CFR 164.524(a)(2)-(4), and the language of this answer is most similar to Section (a)(3)(i). It states that a licensed health care professional can deny an individual access to his/her protected health information, when the “professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgment, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person.” Note that, in this situation, the patient has the right to have the denial reviewed by another designated licensed health care professional.

Answer 91

EPPP-D1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-21B_74 Answer D is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results but suggests that factors that contribute to the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ: One theory is that positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions of the brain (especially certain striatal areas), while negative symptoms are due to dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions (especially the prefrontal cortex). See, e.g., R. Kuepper, M. Skinbjerg, and A. Abi-Dargham, The dopamine dysfunction in schizophrenia revisited: New insights into topography and course, in G. Gross and M. A. Geyer (Eds.), Current antipsychotics (pp. 1-26), New York, Springer, 2012.

Answer 92

EPPP-D1-PAS-Clinical Tests-03 Answer A is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain impairment and ranges from 0 to 1.0, with higher scores indicating greater impairment. The recommended cutoff score for brain impairment depends on the individual’s IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.

Answer 93

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21B_89 Answer B is correct. Debriefing is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and in Principles III.16 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.08(a) requires psychologists to promptly debrief research participants “about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research.” However, Standard 8.08(b) states that “if scientific or humane values justify delaying or withholding this information, psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.” Answer D is not the best answer because it’s not true that participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when the study involved deception.

Answer 94

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-10 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Principle III.28).

Answer 95

EPPP-D1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-05 Answer D is correct. The items included in the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) assess the 15 manifest needs identified in Murray’s theory of needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation, dominance). Myers-Briggs Type Indicator: MBTI Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)

Answer 96

EPPP-D1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-21B_99 Answer D is correct. A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability. (Note that answers A and B can be eliminated because, while behavior observation scales are often susceptible to rater biases, this question is asking about percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability, not about behavior observation scales.)

Answer 97

EPPP-D1-PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-21B_73 Answer B is correct. Estimates of peripartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat: The DSM-5 states that “between 3% and 6% of women will experience the onset of a major depressive episode during pregnancy or in the weeks or months following delivery.” In contrast, other sources usually report higher rates, often in the 10 to 20% range.

Answer 98

EPPP-D1-CLI-Brief Therapies-05 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation and self-liberation are useful strategies for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because they help them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and then from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages identified by the transtheoretical model.

Answer 99

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-21B_80 Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model of family therapy specifically for African American families. It consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which the components can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, church, community).

Answer 100

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-10 Answer B is correct. Sue and Sue describe worldview in terms of two dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. They note that an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of Western approaches to psychotherapy. They also state that White therapists with this worldview are likely to have the most problems when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups who have an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility because these clients are most likely to challenge the therapist’s credibility and trustworthiness.

Answer 101

EPPP-D1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-09 Answer A is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of drugs that increase dopamine levels.

Answer 102

EPPP-D1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-21B_75 Answer A is correct. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in the DSM-5 as a neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. It’s caused by a slow-acting virus that has a long latency period; however, once symptoms appear, deterioration in functioning is rapid.

Answer 103

EPPP-D1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-21B_76 Answer C is correct. When using positioning, a therapist aligns with a client’s position but exaggerates it to make it less desirable to the client. Prescribing (answer D) is not the correct answer because it involves telling the client to deliberately engage in the undesirable behavior, often in an exaggerated way. In the situation described in this question, Maxine describes the undesirable behavior as her husband’s making decisions without consulting her, and the therapist is not asking him to continue doing this.

Answer 104

EPPP-D1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-06 Answer B is correct. Donn Byrne’s law of attraction states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates one’s views and produces good feelings.

Answer 105

EPPP-D1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-01 Answer A is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model describes working memory as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is responsible for integrating new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).

Answer 106

EPPP-D1-SOC-Persuasion-04 Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

Answer 107

Parental Alienation Syndrome (PAS) is a distinctive form of high conflict divorce in which the child becomes aligned with one parent and preoccupied with unjustified and/or exaggerated denigration of the other, target parent. EPPP-D1-PAS-MMPI-2-01 Answer B is correct. Several studies have found that parents undergoing child custody evaluations who have symptoms of parental alienation syndrome are more likely than those without symptoms to respond defensively to the MMPI-2 as evidenced by their higher-than-normal scores on the L and K scales and lower-than-normal scores on the F scale.

Answer 108

EPPP-D1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-01 Answer D is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and affects the non-dominant hemisphere. The symptoms listed in answer C are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and affects the dominant hemisphere; the symptoms listed in answer A are caused by a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery; and the symptoms listed in answer B are caused by a stroke involving the posterior cerebral artery.

Answer 109

EPPP-D1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-07 Answer D is correct. Data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions indicate that the prevalence of alcohol use disorder is highest among native-born Americans, slightly lower among second-generation immigrants, and markedly lower among first-generation immigrants. In addition, among first-generation immigrants, individuals who emigrated to the United States as children have higher rates than those who emigrated as adolescents or adults [C. P. Salas-Wright et al., Substance use disorders among first- and second-generation immigrant adults in the United States: Evidence of an immigrant paradox?, Journal of Studies on Alcohol and Drugs, 75(6), 958-967, 2014].

Answer 110

EPPP-D1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-21B_100 Answer C is correct. Tajfel and Turner’s social identity theory is based on the assumption that people have a natural tendency to categorize people into groups, to identify with one or more groups, and to favor in-groups and disparage out-groups.

Answer 111

EPPP-D1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-02 Answer D is correct. The symptoms of gender dysphoria differ somewhat for children and for adolescents and adults, but the DSM-5 requires a minimum duration of symptoms of six months for individuals of all ages.

Answer 112

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-21B_78 Answer D is correct. Helms’s White racial identity development model distinguishes between six stages (statuses). In order, these are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, people in the initial contact stage have little awareness of racial or cultural issues, are satisfied with the racial status quo, and have adopted a race- or culture-neutral perspective.

Answer 113

EPPP-D1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-04 Answer D is correct. According to Schachter and Singer’s (1962) two-factor theory, emotions are the consequence of physiological arousal plus cognitive interpretation of that arousal. An important assumption of their theory is that the physiological responses associated with different emotions are essentially the same and what differs is the cognitive interpretation of those responses.

Answer 114

EPPP-D1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-05 Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

Answer 115

Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation: unoccupied behavior, solitary play, onlooker behavior, parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play.

Answer 116

EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-146 Answer B is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.

Answer 117

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-076 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s most similar to the language of Standard 4.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that, “unless it is not feasible or is contraindicated, the discussion of confidentiality occurs at the outset of the relationship and thereafter as new circumstances may warrant.” This answer is also consistent with Standard I.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which notes that informed consent may “need to be obtained more than once (e.g., if significant new information becomes available).”

Answer 118

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-080 Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.

Answer 119

EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-094 Answer A is correct. The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable from scores on the dependent variable so that it’s easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. When using the ANCOVA, the extraneous variable is the “covariate.”

Answer 120

EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-036 Answer C is correct. Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes. See e.g., C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010.

Answer 121

EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-225 Answer A is correct. Data collected by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention on suicide rates in 1999 and 2014 show that rates increased for most age groups but that the age groups with the highest rates remained the same: In 1999 and 2014, females aged 45 to 64 had the highest rate and males aged 75 and over had the highest rate. See, S. C. Curtin, M. Warner, and H. Hedegaard, Suicide rates for females and males by race and ethnicity: United States, 1999 and 2014, NCHS Health E-Stat. National Center for Health Statistics, April 2016. Retrieved from https://wwate.net/publicd_States_1999_and_2014

Answer 122

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Answer 123

EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-177 Answer B is correct. The basal ganglia are responsible for voluntary motor control, and the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease have been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus and putamen.

Answer 124

EPPP-P1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-126 Answer D is correct. Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.

Answer 125

EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-046 Answer B is correct. The cerebellum is involved in the coordination of movement and is responsible for regulating muscle tone, posture, and balance. Damage produces symptoms associated with alcohol intoxication, including ataxia (uncoordinated, clumsy movements), slurred speech, reduced muscle tone and reflexes, and nystagmus (jerky eye movements).

Answer 126

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-060 Answer C is correct. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method for evaluating a test’s construct validity and is important for tests that are designed to assess a hypothetical trait (construct). When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, the test being validated is administered to a sample of examinees along with tests known to measure the same or a related trait and tests known to measure unrelated traits. When scores on the test being validated have high correlations with scores on tests that measure the same or a related trait, this provides evidence of the test’s convergent validity. And, when scores on the test have low correlations with scores on tests that measure unrelated traits, this provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity. Adequate convergent and divergent validity provide evidence of the test’s construct validity.

Answer 127

EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer D is correct. Of the descriptions given in the answers, “physically challenged adults” is least consistent with guidelines presented in the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association: Ordinarily, when describing people with a disorder or other condition, people-first language should be used (e.g., adults with physical challenges), but there are exceptions to this general rule. For example, when describing a research study and different groups are distinguished, it would be acceptable to refer to a group as “the autism spectrum disorder group” (answer C).

Answer 128

EPPP-P1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-129 Answer A is correct. The full-scope evaluation model (Dessinger & Moseley, 2010) distinguishes between four types of training program evaluation – formative, summative, confirmative, and meta. A summative evaluation is conducted immediately after a training program has been delivered to assess trainee reactions to the program and its effectiveness for meeting its goals.

Answer 129

EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-082 Answer B is correct. Evaluating a selection test’s criterion-related validity is important when scores on the test (the predictor) will be used to estimate or predict scores on a measure of performance (the criterion). There are two types of criterion-related validity: Concurrent validity is most important when the selection test will be used to estimate an applicant’s current status on the criterion, while predictive validity is most important when the selection test will be used to predict future status on the criterion.

Answer 130

EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-144 Answer C is correct. The keyword method involves creating an image that links two words or links a word and its definition and is particularly useful for foreign (second) language learning.

Answer 131

EPPP-P1-PAS-MMPI-2-084 Answer A is correct. The L, F, and K scales are three of the MMPI-2’s validity scales and the L-F-K profile indicates an attempt to “fake good” when it is V-shaped (low F scale score and high L and K scale scores) and an attempt to “fake bad” when it has an inverted-V shape (high F scale score and low L and K scale scores).

Answer 132

EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-081 Answer C is correct. MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Answer 133

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-170 Answer B is correct. In their meta-analysis of the research, Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002) found that, of the Big Five personality traits, extraversion and conscientiousness had the largest correlation coefficients with measures of leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively).

Answer 134

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-111 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.

Answer 135

EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-218 Answer C is correct. As described by S. Sue and N. Zane, gift giving involves ensuring that clients feel they have received immediate benefits from therapy and includes normalizing the client’s feelings and experiences, providing reassurance, instilling hope, teaching coping skills, and helping the client set goals for therapy (The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987). Note that Sue and Zane identify credibility as an important treatment issue when working with non-Western clients, but they describe it as a separate issue and not a factor that contributes to gift giving.

Answer 136

EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-040 Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.

Answer 137

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-165 Answer C is correct. Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.

Answer 138

EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-080 Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.

Answer 139

Designed for children aged 5 through 11 years-of-age, the elderly, and mentally and physically impaired individuals. shorter

Answer 140

These items are appropriate for adults and adolescents of above-average intelligence.

Answer 141

EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-12 Answer B is correct. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.

Answer 142

expands Scriven’s dichotomy by distinguishing between four types of evaluation: (a) Formative evaluation is conducted during the development of a training program to determine what changes are needed for the program to achieve its goals. It may include having experts review the content of each component of the program to determine if it adequately addresses program goals and administering measures of attitudes and learning to a sample of trainees after each component is delivered. (b) Summative evaluation is conducted soon after the entire training program has been delivered to determine its immediate effects. It involves administering measures that assess trainees’ reactions to training and the effectiveness of training for meeting its goals. (c) Confirmative evaluation is conducted at a later time to evaluate the long-term effects of training and involves administering measures similar to those administered as part of the summative evaluation. (d) Meta-evaluation is an ongoing process that’s conducted during and after the formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations for the purpose of assessing their reliability and validity.

Answer 143

(a) The General Occupational Themes (GOTs) provide scores on Holland’s six occupational themes: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. (b) The Basic Interest Scales (BISs) provide scores on 30 specific interests that represent the six occupational themes. For instance, the basic interests for the social theme are social sciences, counseling and helping, religion and spirituality, human resources and training, healthcare services, and teaching and education. (c) The Occupational Scales (OSs) provide information on the extent to which the examinee’s interests are similar to interests of people of the same gender who are employed in 130 different occupations. (d) The Personal Styles Scales (PSSs) provide scores on the examinee’s preferences with regard to five personal styles: work style, leadership style, learning environment, risk taking, and team orientation.

Answer 144

(a) Scores on the Occupational Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of satisfied workers in 109 occupations. (b) Scores on the College Major Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of students who have chosen one of 40 college majors. (c) The Vocational Interest Estimates (VIE’s) indicate the examinee’s preferences for ten interest areas: outdoor, mechanical, computational, scientific, persuasive, artistic, literary, musical, social services, and clerical. (d) The Dependability Indices provide information that’s used to determine the validity of an examinee’s responses.

Answer 145

EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer D is correct. The onset and duration of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported ages for its onset and duration vary somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 8 and 10 months and the decline to begin at about 24 months of age.

Answer 146

EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. When asked to recall the words immediately, a person is likely to exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., to recall more words at the beginning and end of the list than words in the middle of the list. In contrast, when asked to recall the words after a brief delay, the person will exhibit only a primacy effect.

Answer 147

EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-06 Answer C is correct. For the exam, keep in mind that a factor loading is interpreted by squaring it to determine the amount of variability in test scores that is explained by ONE factor, while a communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability explained by ALL of the identified factors: When a test’s communality is .40, this means that the identified factors explain 40% of the variability in test scores.

Answer 148

``` EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer A is correct. The primary emphases of TQM are: continuous improvement total employee involvement customer satisfaction data-driven decision-making. ```

Answer 149

EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of its reliability coefficient. When the predictor’s reliability coefficient is .64, this means it’s validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of .64, which is .80. Note that, on the EPPP, if you have to determine the square root of a number, it will be an “easy” number like .81, .64, or .49. You do NOT have to know how to calculate a square root.

Answer 150

Stress inoculation training (Meichenbaum, 1996) focuses on improving the ability of clients to deal better with ongoing and future stressful situations by teaching them effective coping skills. It consists of three phases. conceptualization/education phase, skills acquisition and consolidation phase, application and follow-through phase,

Answer 151

increase psychological flexibility, ``` six core processes: Experiential acceptance Cognitive defusion Being present Awareness of self-as-context Values-based actions ```

Answer 152

is to “enable clients to become self-aware, so they can learn to de-centre from distressing thoughts, feelings, bodily sensations and behaviours”

Answer 153

three phases that, as described by Bryan (2019), have emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, or relapse prevention as their primary targets.

Answer 154

amygdala can produce a fear or rage response, and bilateral lesions can cause a loss of the fear response without a loss of other emotional responses

Answer 155

“the brain is the key organ of stress". amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex as the primary mediators of these functions. - Allostasis refers to processes that allow the body to achieve stability by adapting to change for a limited period of time without having adverse consequences. allostatic load: wear-and-tear on the body and brain, allostatic overload: allostatic load continues, adverse effects on the person’s physical and psychological health.

Answer 156

Answer D is correct. The locus coeruleus is located in the brain stem and produces much of the brain’s norepinephrine. A loss of norepinephrine neurons in this area of the brain has been linked to several of the non-motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease including depression, cognitive deficits, and sleep disturbances.

Answer 157

Note that a blockage of an artery for less than five minutes that causes temporary symptoms is referred to as a transient ischemic stroke (TIA).

Answer 158

(a) The middle cerebral artery: "most common" contralateral sensory loss, contralateral hemiparesis (weakness) or hemiplegia (paralysis), contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (visual field loss), dysarthria (slurred speech), and aphasia when the dominant hemisphere is affected or apraxia and contralateral neglect when the nondominant hemisphere is affected. (b) posterior cerebral artery include contralateral sensory loss and hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopsia or other visual impairment, dysarthria, nausea and vomiting, and memory loss. (c) anterior cerebral artery include contralateral sensory loss and hemiparesis (especially in the leg), impaired insight and judgment, mutism, apathy, confusion, and urinary incontinence.

Answer 159

Anterograde amnesia is also known as post-traumatic amnesia when it’s due to TBI, and its duration is a good predictor of recovery from other symptoms. Most recovery during the first three months with substantial additional improvement during the first year

Answer 160

Primary hypertension accounts for up to 90% of all cases and is referred to as the “silent killer” because it’s often asymptomatic.

Answer 161

antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is also known as vasopressin and is responsible for the amount of water excreted in the urine. A low level of ADH due to a tumor, infection, stroke, pituitary surgery, or other factor can cause central diabetes insipidus. Its symptoms include frequent and excessive urination, extreme thirst, dehydration, constipation, weight loss, and low blood pressure. (When diabetes insipidus is caused by a failure of the kidneys to respond to ADH, it’s referred to as nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.)

Answer 162

Neuropsychiatric EEG-Based Assessment Aid (NEBA) has been approved by the FDA as a diagnostic tool that can be used in conjunction with medical and psychological exams to diagnose ADHD in individuals 6 to 17 years of age.

Answer 163

These drugs alleviate positive symptoms primarily by blocking dopamine (especially D3 and D4) receptors and alleviate negative and cognitive symptoms primarily by blocking serotonin receptors. The SGAs are less likely than the FGAs to cause extrapyramidal side effects; however, they can cause anticholinergic effects, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and metabolic syndrome

Answer 164

with twelve-step facilitation having a slight advantage over the other two treatments. The results also provided some support for the matching hypothesis. For example, at the three-year follow-up, clients whose social networks were supportive of drinking benefited most from twelve-step facilitation, while clients who were high in anger benefited most from motivational enhancement therapy

Answer 165

both alcohol and sedative, hypnotic anxiolytics intoxication | both have transient hallucinations too

Answer 166

The average duration of Alzheimer’s disease from symptom onset until death varies from person to person but is usually about 8 to 10 years. The progression of symptoms also varies somewhat but can be described as involving three stages (Cohan, 2012; Hammond, 2012; Turkington & Mitchell, 2010): The early stage lasts for about 2 to 4 years and involves short-term memory loss (which is usually the first symptom), anomia (difficulty recalling names of familiar people and objects), personality changes (often indifference and loss of spontaneity), anxiety or depression, impaired attention and concentration, poor judgment, and disorientation to time and space. The middle stage lasts for 2 to 10 years and is characterized by increasing short-term memory loss, long-term memory loss, labile mood, irritability, increasing disorientation, delusions and hallucinations, wandering and pacing, perseveration (repetitive speech and actions), loss of impulse control, impaired speech, disrupted sleep patterns, problems with normal daily activities (e.g., bathing, grooming, dressing), and sundowning (increased confusion, agitation, and restlessness in the late afternoon or evening). The late stage lasts for 1 to 3 years and involves severely deteriorated cognitive functioning, severe disorientation, apathy, severely impaired communication, agitation and aggression, decreased appetite, urinary and fecal incontinence, loss of basic motor skills and most or all self-care skills, abnormal reflexes, seizures, and frequent infections.

Answer 167

memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and regulates glutamate activity.

Answer 168

The core features are fluctuating cognition with variations in attention and alertness, recurrent visual hallucinations, and symptoms of parkinsonism that develop after the cognitive symptoms. Suggestive features are symptoms of rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder and severe neuroleptic sensitivity. For probable NCD, the person must have at least two core features or one core feature and one suggestive feature; for possible NCD, the person must have one core feature or one or both suggestive features.

Answer 169

is that, in the former, the prominent early cognitive symptoms are deficits in complex attention and visuospatial and executive functions while, in the latter, the prominent early cognitive symptoms are deficits in learning and memory.

Answer 170

Symptoms are characteristic of those associated with damage to subcortical areas of the brain and include forgetfulness, impaired attention and concentration, cognitive slowing, psychomotor retardation, clumsiness, tremors, apathy, and social withdrawal.

Answer 171

insidious onset followed (in most cases) by a very rapid progression of impairment, and symptoms include motor features associated with prion disease or there’s biomarker evidence of the disease (e.g., characteristic lesions on an MRI). The most common type is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). It’s characterized by a rapid progression of symptoms that often meet the criteria for major NCD in as few as six months. Symptoms include confusion and disorientation, impaired memory and judgment, and other neurocognitive deficits; ataxia, myoclonus, chorea, and other prominent motor symptoms; and psychiatric symptoms that may include apathy, anxiety, and/or mood swings. There are several types of CJD: Sporadic CJD is most common and has an unknown etiology, familial CJD is inherited, and acquired CJD can be due to consuming infected meat (variant CJD) or transmission during a blood transfusion or other medical procedure (iatrogenic CJD).

Answer 172

do not include a significant impact on learning and memory or perceptual-motor functioning, especially in the early stages; and (d) meet the criteria for the behavioral or language variant. The behavioral variant is most common and involves prominent declines in social cognition and/or executive abilities (e.g., socially inappropriate behaviors, deficits in organizing and planning) plus three or more of the following behavioral and personality symptoms: behavioral disinhibition; apathy and inertia; loss of sympathy or empathy; perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behaviors; hyperorality and dietary changes (e.g., overeating, preference for sweet foods). The language variant is characterized by a prominent decline in language that involves deficits in speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar, or word comprehension. [Note that the language variant is often referred to in the literature as primary progressive aphasia (PPA), which consists of three subtypes: semantic (impaired comprehension of written and spoken language), agrammatic/nonfluent (incorrect grammar and effortful, hesitant speech), and logopenic (impaired repetition of phrases and sentences and difficulty finding the right word).]

Answer 173

Level 1: Level III: preliminary evidence of their effectiveness but have not been replicated for specific populations or problems Level III: systematic high-quality research that shows they are effective for the clinical problems they are designed to treat - Category 1: absolute efficacy and effectiveness - vategory 2: relative efficacy and effectiveness - category 3: mechanism of action efficacy and effectiveness - category 4 contexual efficacy and effectiveness

Answer 174

Haley’s strategic family therapy is based on the assumptions that struggles for power and control in relationships are core features of family functioning and that “a symptom is a strategy that is adaptive to a current social situation for controlling a relationship when all other strategies have failed (Goldenberg & Goldenberg, 2013, p. 317). It also assumes that power and control are determined primarily by hierarchies within a family and that maladaptive family functioning is often related to unclear or inappropriate hierarchies. The primary goal of therapy is to alter family interactions that are maintaining its symptoms. To achieve this goal, strategic family therapists assume an active role and use a variety of strategies that are aimed at changing behavior rather than instilling insight. The initial session is highly structured and consists of four stages: During a brief social stage, the therapist welcomes the family and observes the family’s interactions. Next is the problem stage, in which the therapist elicits each family member’s view of the family problem and its causes. In the interactional stage, family members discuss their different views of the family’s problem, and the therapist observes how family members interact when addressing the problem. In the final goal-setting stage, the therapist helps family members agree on a definition of the family’s problem and concrete therapy goals that target the problem.

Answer 175

“the family as a whole protects itself from change through homeostatic rules and patterns of communication”. is distinguished from other family therapies by its use of a therapeutic team and five-part therapy sessions (pre-session, session, intersession, intervention, and post-session)

Answer 176

``` when balance is maintained by unrealistic expectations, inappropriate rules and roles, and dysfunctional communication. - Placating involves - Blaming - Computing involves taking an overly intellectual and rational (super-reasonable) - Distracting Satir also identified a congruent (or leveling) style, which is a functional style that’s characterized by congruence between verbal and nonverbal messages, directness and authenticity, and emotional engagement with others. ``` ``` “use of the self” as the most important therapeutic tool family sculpting family reconstruction (which is a type of psychodrama that involves role-playing three generations of the family to explore unresolved family issues and events). ```

Answer 177

- a low level of dopamine in the substantia nigra has been linked to Parkinson’s disease, while an excessive level in the caudate nucleus has been linked to Tourette’s disorder. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway: begins in the ventral tegmental area and ends in the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens). “reward circuit” mesocortical dopaminergic pathway: begins in the ventral tegmental area and ends in the prefrontal cortex. It’s involved in emotion, motivation, and executive cognitive functions. tuberoinfundibular dopaminergic pathway: begins in hypothalamus and ends in the pituitary gland and plays a role in hormone regulation nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway begins in the substantia nigra and ends in the dorsal striatum (caudate nucleus and putamen). It plays a key role in the production of purposeful movement.

Answer 178

is weakness or the inability to move on one side of the body

Answer 179

Athetosis involves nonrhythmic, slow, writhing movements,

Answer 180

involve tingling, numbness, pain, and other abnormal sensations; feelings of movement (e.g., floating); and distortions in body image (e.g., feeling that a body part is enlarged, shrunken, or absent).

Answer 181

is most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15. Its symptoms vary but often include a narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet; hypotonia (poor muscle tone); global developmental delays; hyperphagia (chronic overeating) and obesity; hypogonadism; intellectual disabilities; and skin-picking and other self-injurious behaviors

Answer 182

is caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Its symptoms range from mild to severe depending on the extent and location of the deletion and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, intellectual disability, developmental delays, microcephaly, low birth weight, weak muscle tone, and characteristic facial features (e.g., widely set eyes, low-set ears, round face).

Answer 183

is an X-linked dominant disorder that is usually caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene and almost exclusively affects females. Infants with this disorder appear to develop normally during the first 6 to 18 months of life but then develop characteristic symptoms that include slowed head and brain growth, loss of speech and motor skills, abnormal hand movements, sleep disturbances, breathing abnormalities, and seizures. Children with Rett syndrome may also have autistic-like symptoms (e.g., deficits in social interactions) during the early stages of the disorder

Answer 184

``` There are three types of Down syndrome: trisomy 21 (95%): all cell contains 47 . Mosaic trisomy 21 (1%) some cells 47: 46 chromosomes in all cells of the body with some cells having a full or partial chromosome 21 attached (translocated) to another chromosome. ``` trisomy 21 and mosaic: error during cell division and maternal age translocation trisomy 21 is not affected by maternal age, and it can be due to an error during cell division or can be inherited from a parent carrier:

Answer 185

- Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) - Partial fetal alcohol syndrome (pFAS) has the same central nervous system dysfunction as FAS, but facial anomalies are less severe and retarded physical growth may or may not be present. - Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND) involves central nervous system dysfunction without prominent facial anomalies, retarded physical growth, or physical defects. - Alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD) is characterized by heart, kidney, vision, and other physical defects without other prominent symptoms.

Answer 186

Low birthweight infants: 5-1/2 pounds at birth. Preterm infants are born before the 37th week of gestation. the highest preterm birth rate was for non-Hispanic Black mothers, while the lowest rate was for non-Hispanic Asian mothers. Small-for-date infants: birthweight that’s below the 10th percentile. greater risk for problems, They’re more likely to die during the 12 months after birth, to have brain damage, and to be at increased risk for infections

Answer 187

All three of these disorders are due to a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15. Its symptoms vary but often include a narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet; hypotonia (poor muscle tone); global developmental delays; hyperphagia (chronic overeating) and obesity; hypogonadism; intellectual disabilities; and skin-picking and other self-injurious behaviors. Angelman syndrome is usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15. Its symptoms also vary and may include microcephaly (small head and brain), a wide jaw and pointed chin, severe developmental delays, communication and intellectual disabilities, hyperactivity, a tendency to be unnaturally happy, ataxia, seizures, and hand-flapping. Finally, cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Its symptoms range from mild to severe depending on the extent and location of the deletion and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, intellectual disability, developmental delays, microcephaly, low birth weight, weak muscle tone, and characteristic facial features (e.g., widely set eyes, low-set ears, round face).

Answer 188

Rett syndrome (RTT) is an X-linked dominant disorder

Answer 189

Answer B is correct. The adolescent growth spurt usually begins at 10 or 11 years of age for girls and 12 or 13 years of age for boys.

Answer 190

Synaptogenesis peaks at two to three years of age, and synapses that are used most often are subsequently strengthened and become more efficient while those that are unused atrophy and disappear. This loss of synapses is referred to as synaptic pruning, and it continues through adolescence.

Answer 191

- by about 7 or 8 months of age, their visual acuity is similar to that of normal adults - three or four weeks of age, infants rely on kinetic (motion) cues, which are based on the movement of objects. Between two and three months of age, they begin using binocular (stereoscopic) cues, which are derived from the integration of images received by each eye. Then, by about five or six months of age, babies begin using pictorial (static-monocular) cues, which can be perceived with only one eye, create the impression of depth, and include size, texture gradients, shadows, and linear perspective. - Immediately after birth, newborns are somewhat less sensitive than adults to sound, especially high-frequency sounds, but their sensitivity to high-frequency sounds develops quickly and comes close to adult levels by six months of age. - There’s evidence that the severity of age-related hearing loss is related to the risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease and other neurocognitive disorders

Answer 192

is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.

Answer 193

the core competencies (attributes) that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and that are linked to the organization’s values, goals, and strategies.

Answer 194

Schmidt and Hunter (1998) reported an average validity coefficient for work samples that was slightly higher than the coefficient for general mental ability tests. However, the more recent meta-analysis by Schmidt, Oh, & Shaffer (2016) found a lower validity coefficient for work samples than for general mental ability tests

Answer 195

- replace the procedure with another procedure, - modify the procedure - demonstrate that there is no alternative procedure - show that use of the procedure is job-related. Job-relatedness is established by showing that the procedure is valid, a business necessity (safe efficient), or a bona fide occupational qualification (normal business operations)

Answer 196

A formative evaluation is conducted to assist with: - development - improvement of a program summative evaluation is conducted to determine - program outcomes

Answer 197

(a) Formative evaluation (b) Summative evaluation (c) Confirmative evaluation is conducted at a later time to evaluate the long-term effects of training (d) Meta-evaluation is an ongoing process that’s conducted during and after the formative, summative, and confirmative evaluations for the purpose of assessing their reliability and validity.

Answer 198

a low-pitched rhythmic cry that signals hunger or discomfort; a shrill, less regular cry that signals anger or frustration; loud high-pitched cry followed by silence (which is due to breath-holding) that signals pain. “If a parent responds quickly to severe distress but less promptly to minor upset, the infant may learn to regulate the latter type of distress on his or her own and hence end up crying less overall”

Answer 199

1. Cooing: six to eight weeks repeating vowel-like sounds (e.g., “ooo” and “aaaeeeooo”). 2. Babbling: three to six months of age: single consonant-vowel combinations such as “ba, canonical (reduplicated) babbling “mamamama”, variegated babbling “bamagubu.” 3. Echolalia begins at about 9 months of age 4. Children are able to understand words by about 8-9 months of age 5. say their first words to express meaning until 10 to 15 months of age. 6. Beginning at about 18 months of age, children exhibit a rapid increase in vocabulary, which is referred to as the vocabulary spurt. 7. Children begin to use holophrastic speech between 12 and 15 months of age. 8. Children begin to use telegraphic speech between 18 and 24 months of age. complete sentences.

Answer 200

“is the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults” - both positive and negative - strong interpersonal skills and high levels of self-confidence and academic self-efficacy; negative effects include elevated levels of anxiety, frustration, and embarrassment. - role reversals within the family that force parents to become overly dependent on the child and, in high-frequency language-brokering families, with greater parent-child conflict

Answer 201

``` growth (birth to 14), exploration (15 to 24), establishment (25 to 44), maintenance (45 to 64) disengagement (65+). ``` Self-concept is a central concept in Super’s theory and refers to how people perceive themselves and their situations. It develops over the lifespan and is the result of interactions between internal (personal) factors and external (situational) factors. According to Super, a person’s self-concept influences and is influenced by a person’s career development process and is the major determinant of the person’s career decisions.

Answer 202

that congruence between certain characteristics of a employee and the employee’s work environment predict the person’s job tenure, which they identify as the primary indicator of work adjustment.

Answer 203

vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process Erikson’s psychosocial stages of ego identity development. two phases of career decision-making: (a) anticipation phase: exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages. (b) implementation phase: induction, reformation, and integration stages.

Answer 204

four career concepts that differ in terms of key motives, direction of career movement, and frequency of career change: (a) linear career concept: desire for power and achievement and view careers as involving upward movement with infrequent career changes. (b) expert career concept: job security and develop expertise and view careers as involving a lifelong commitment, with the mastery of skills (c) spiral career concept: personal growth and opportunities to be creative and view careers as involving lateral movements across similar occupations that occur every five to 10 years. (d) transitory career concept are motivated by a desire for variety and independence, lateral movements across different occupations, two to four years. traditional linear and expert concepts are being replaced with situations more consistent with spiral and transitory concepts. They recommend that organizations adopt a pluralistic approach that “provides opportunities for diverse career experiences … [and allows organizations] to meet changing business conditions more effectively” (Brousseau, Driver, Eneroth, & Larsson, 1996, p. 56).

Answer 205

Answer B is correct. Infants first intentionally combine secondary reactions to achieve goals and imitate actions of others that aren’t in their current repertoire (i.e., novel actions) in substage 4 (coordination of secondary circular reactions).

Answer 206

stage 4 of sensorimotor: coordination of secondary circular

Answer 207

transductive (precausal) reasoning: causal relations that are not logical egocentrism.: everyone thin

Answer 208

``` transductive (precausal) reasoning: causal relations that are not logical egocentrism.: everyone thinks like me ENSE magical thinking animisn irreversability centration ``` HENSE lack of conservation

Answer 209

requent use of private speech is associated with more effective problem-solving. The studies have also found that, as predicted by Vygotsky, private speech begins to be replaced by inner (silent) speech by about 7 years of age.

Answer 210

, the largest number of recalled events occurred during the ten-year period prior to being tested and the second largest number of recalled events occurred when they were between the ages of about 15 and 25. identity formation

Answer 211

the greatest age-related decline in recent long-term (secondary) memory, followed by the working memory aspect of short-term memory.

Answer 212

optimal time for successful performance found that the optimal time is related to differences in circadian rhythms and that peak circadian arousal and task performance is in the morning for older adults and in the late afternoon and evening for younger adults

Answer 213

Mathematical Abilities: By adolescence, girls outperform boys on measures of computational skills, while boys outperform girls on measures of mathematical reasoning and have acquired more mathematical problem-solving strategies. 2. Verbal Abilities: Girls obtain higher scores on many measures of verbal ability throughout childhood and adolescence, including speech fluency and reading and writing achievement. However, boys outperform girls on measures of verbal analogies. 3. Visual/Spatial Abilities: Boys obtain higher scores on measures of visual/spatial abilities, especially on tasks requiring mental rotation. Self-Esteem: Boys score slightly higher on measures of global self-esteem, and this difference increases in early adolescence and persists throughout adulthood.

Answer 214

Conservation of number occurs first and is followed, in order, by conservation of length, liquid quantity, mass, weight, and volume.

Answer 215

According to Vygotsky, learning precedes and facilitates cognitive development and learning is most rapid when it occurs within a child’s zone of proximal development,

Answer 216

the storage aspect of short-term memory (also known as primary memory) and remote long-term memory (also known as tertiary memory) are relatively unaffected by increasing age.

Answer 217

constitutional differences in reactivity and self-regulation Reactivity: Extraversion/surgency, negative affectivity Self-Regulation: Effortful control

Answer 218

preattachment attachment-in-the-making, clear-cut attachment reciprocal relationships.

Answer 219

(a) At six to eight months, social referencing (b) Separation anxiety six to eight months, is most intense from 14 to 18 months, and thereafter gradually declines. (c) Stranger anxiety, eight to ten months and begins to decline at about age two.

Answer 220

distressed when she leaves, may be angry and resist her attempts at contact when she returns - mother inconsistent in their caregiving

Answer 221

is fearful of his/her mother and often has a dazed or confused facial expression

Answer 222

there appear to be cultural differences in the relative rates of insecure attachment classifications insecure/avoidant pattern was most prevalent in the United States, Germany, and other individualistic cultures, while the insecure/resistant pattern was most prevalent in Japan, Israel, and other collectivist cultures.

Answer 223

as a result of the development of self-awareness: At 18 to 24 months, they begin to exhibit envy, empathy, and embarrassment which expand at 30 to 36 months to include shame, guilt, and pride.

Answer 224

their preferences for particular emotion expressions by 7 months of age: Prior to this age, they exhibit increased attention to happy facial expressions but this changes at about 7 months to increased attention to fearful facial expressions. One explanation for this “fear bias” is that fearful expressions are unfamiliar to younger infants, which also helps explain why this bias declines at about 12 months of age when infants have had more exposure to fearful expressions

Answer 225

to help stop the coercive family cycle. It involves providing parents with therapy to help them deal better with stress and teaching them effective parenting skills.

Answer 226

six steps and proposes that aggressive behavior in children is due to deficiencies and biases at each step: (a) Encoding of cues: (b) Interpretation of cues: (c) Clarification of goals: Aggressive children identify retaliation as their goal. (d) Response search: (e) Response decision: Aggressive children choose an aggressive response because they believe it will have favorable outcomes. (f) Behavioral enactment: Aggressive children act aggressively.

Answer 227

adolescents and young adults. For example, the APA Task Force on Media Violence (2015) conducted a meta-analysis of the research and found that the studies have found “a consistent relation between violent video game use and increases in aggressive behavior, aggressive cognitions, and aggressive affect and decreases in prosocial behavior, empathy, and sensitivity to aggression” (p. 11). The Task Force concluded that the greater the exposure to violent videogames, the higher the level of aggression

Answer 228

Nonsocial: - unoccupied play - solitary play in which the child plays alone - onlooker play in which the child watches other children play and talks to them but doesn’t participate. Social play: - parallel play - associative play in which the child interacts with other children but without shared goals, - cooperative play in which the child interacts with other children to achieve a common goal. unoccupied and onlooker play occurring at all ages solitary and parallel play declining with increasing age and associative and cooperative play increasing with increasing age

Answer 229

Level 0/Momentary Playmates (3-6 years of age) Level 1/One-Way Assistance (5 to 9 years of age) Level 2/Two-Way, Fair Weather Cooperation (7 to 12 years of age) Level 3/Intimate, Mutually Shared Relationships – (8 to 15 years of age): Level 4/Mature Friendship – (12 years of age and older):

Answer 230

``` 1 Hs – Hypochondriasis preoccupation with physical complaints 2 D – Depression depression and hopelessness 3 Hy – Hysteria stress and conflicts expressed as physical symptoms 4 Pd – Psychopathic Deviate social alienation and disinhibition 5 Mf – Masculinity/Femininity stereotyped gender roles and interests 6 Pa – Paranoia suspiciousness and interpersonal sensitivity 7 Pt – Psychasthenia anxiety and excessive fear and doubt 8 Sc – Schizophrenia psychosis and severe social and emotional alienation 9 Ma – Hypomania unstable mood and hyperarousal 0 Si – Social Introversion social withdrawal and avoidance ```

Answer 231

The MMPI-2-RF is the most recent revision of the MMPI and is a brief alternative to the MMPI-2 for individuals 18 years of age and older. Its 338.

Answer 232

Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF) | NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3)

Answer 233

Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS) | Thematic Apprehension Test

Answer 234

(a) Location: the area in the inkblot that the examinee used to derive his/her response (the whole inkblot, a common detail, or an unusual detail) (b) Determinants: the characteristic(s) of the inkblot that determined the examinee’s response (the inkblot’s form, movement, color, and/or shading) (c) Content: the category of the examinee’s response (human, animal, or nature) (d) Form Quality: the similarity of the examinee’s response to the actual shape of the inkblot (e) Popularity: the extent to which the examinee’s response is given by other examinees

Answer 235

The CHC theory (Flanagan & McGrew, 1997) combines elements of the Horn-Cattell and Carroll theories. It’s continuously modified based on the results of ongoing research, and the most recent version distinguishes between 16 broad cognitive abilities and over 80 narrow cognitive abilities that are each linked to one of the broad abilities.

Answer 236

``` linguistic, interpersonal musical, bodily-kinesthetic, logical-mathematical, spatial, intrapersonal, naturalistic existential. ```

Answer 237

Analytical, creative practical

Answer 238

based on Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory 2-85 Knowledge, Fluid Reasoning, Quantitative reaosning, visuospatial, working memory

Answer 239

Finally, the four indexes are affected differently by increasing age: The VCI shows the least decline, with scores increasing from adolescence to about 45 to 50 years of age and then slowly declining in subsequent years. WMI remains relatively stable from adolescence to age 50 and thereafter declines, PRI and PSI begin declining by 30 years of age with the PSI having the greatest age-related decline

Answer 240

Specific Learning Disorder - Reading Lowest: WMI Highest: VSI

Answer 241

2 years, 6 months through 3 years, 11 months, the test includes three Primary Scales: Verbal Comprehension, Visual Spatial, and Working Memory. For examinees ages 4 years through 7 years, 7 months, the test provides scores on these three scales plus Fluid Reasoning and Processing Speed Scales

Answer 242

The CAS2 is a measure of cognitive processing abilities for individuals five to 18 years of age. It’s based on the PASS cognitive/neurological theory, which distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria – planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and successive processing. The CogAT7 assesses cognitive abilities in three domains – verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal. It’s appropriate for students in grades K through 12 and is used to predict academic performance and identify gifted/talented and at-risk students.

Answer 243

The KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culturally fair test by minimizing cultural content and verbal instructions and responses. It provides scores on five scales (simultaneous, sequential, planning, learning, and knowledge). Results can be interpreted using the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities or Luria’s neuropsychological processing model when crystallized abilities would not be an appropriate measure of an examinee’s abilities.

Answer 244

reasoning ability children ages 3:6 through 9:11. 92 cards that contain three to five drawings and that require the examinee to indicate the drawing that does not belong with the others. - does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills and was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, but it’s also useful for children with sensory, speech, or other motor impairments or limited English proficiency.

Answer 245

information processing during infancy. 3 to 12 months of age infant’s selective attention and recognition memory. (amount of time he/she spends looking at novel stimuli.)

Answer 246

The Bayley-III is used to assess the current developmental status of infants and toddlers ages one to 42 months. Five separate subtests are provided – cognitive, motor, language, social-emotional, and adaptive behavior.

Answer 247

Versions are available for examinees ages 8 through 12 and 13 and older. All items are scored on a 3-point scale, with a score of 0 indicating normal performance, a score of 1 indicating borderline performance, and a score of 2 indicating impaired performance. Item scores are added to obtain raw scale scores, which are converted to T scores that are interpreted by comparing them to cutoff scores (critical levels), which are determined by the examinee’s age and education level.

Answer 248

There are two versions: one for children 5 to 14 years of age and one for adolescents and adults 15 to 90 years of age.

Answer 249

Adaptive Behavior Composite score, scores for three domains of adaptive functioning (Communication, Daily Living Skills, and Socialization), and scores for optional Motor Skills and Maladaptive Behavior domains.

Answer 250

- General Occupational Themes (GOTs) RIASEC - The Basic Interest Scales (BISs) 30 interests of the general thesemes - Occupational Scales (OSs) 130 occupations

Answer 251

Vocational Interest Estimates (VIE’s) indicate the examinee’s preferences for ten interest areas: outdoor, mechanical, computational, scientific, persuasive, artistic, literary, musical, social services, and clerical. Scores on the Occupational Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of satisfied workers in 109 occupations. Scores on the College Major Scales indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of students who have chosen one of 40 college majors. Online programs: Kuder Galaxy for students in pre-K through grade 5, Kuder Navigator for students in grades 6 through 12, and Kuder Journey for college students and adults.

Answer 252

(a) During the entering and contracting phase (b) The diagnosing (c) The planning and implementing (d) The evaluating and institutionalizing phase

Answer 253

shared with employees to help them understand the organization’s current strengths and weaknesses and identify problems that need to be addressed. Employees then offer recommendations to management for resolving these problems, and management develops an action plan, often with the help of the OD consultant.

Answer 254

“continuous improvement … [through] continuous and incremental changes to all processes” (Nahavandi & Malekzadeh, 1999, p. 497). - top management commitment to quality, - employee involvement, - the use of teams, - a focus on customer satisfaction - data-driven decision-making. Specific techniques used to implement TQM include quality circles, benchmarking, and six sigma (Daft, Kendrick, & Vershinina, 2010):

Answer 255

“4D cycle” and consists of four phases (Ludema, Cooperrider, & Barrett, 2006): discovery (appreciate “what is”), dream (envision “what could be”), design (determine “what should be”), and delivery/destiny (sustain “what will be”).

Answer 256

is the same old administrative model that safices

Answer 257

groups tend to outperform individuals in terms of decision-making when the task is complex and group members have complementary skills, while individuals outperform groups when the task is poorly structured and requires a high degree of creativity

Answer 258

was Hull’s (1943) drive-reduction theory, which is based on the assumption that humans are motivated to maintain a state of equilibrium (homeostasis).

Answer 259

Joining is used by a therapist to establish a therapeutic alliance with the family and relies on three techniques: Mimesis involves adopting the family’s affective, behavioral, and communication style; tracking involves adopting the content of the family’s communications; and maintenance entails providing family members with support.

Answer 260

The initial session is highly structured and consists of four stages: - brief social stage, the therapist welcomes the family and observes the family’s interactions. - problem stage, in which the therapist elicits each family member’s view of the family problem and its causes. - interactional stage, family members discuss their different views of the family’s problem, and the therapist observes how family members interact when addressing the problem. - goal-setting stage, the therapist helps family members agree on a definition of the family’s problem and concrete therapy goals that target the problem.

Answer 261

Family games associated with problematic behaviors are rigid, involve power struggles between family members, and are known as “dirty games

Answer 262

``` Satir viewed the therapist’s “use of the self” as the most important therapeutic tool multiple roles when working with clients, including facilitator, mediator, advocate, educator, and role model. family sculpting (which involves having each family member take a turn positioning other family members in ways that depict his/her view of family relationships) family reconstruction (which is a type of psychodrama that involves role-playing three generations of the family to explore unresolved family issues and events). ```

Answer 263

dominant discourses and unique outcomes, which are also known as “sparkling moments” and are experiences that are not consistent with problem-saturated stories.

Answer 264

opening space questions help family members identify unique outcomes. Asking a family member what his anger tells him to do is an example of an externalizing question, and asking family members if there have ever been times when conflicts didn’t control their lives is an example of an opening space question.

Answer 265

Emotionally focused therapy (EFT) is a brief evidence-based treatment that integrates principles: attachment theory, humanistic-experiential approaches, systems theory.

Answer 266

When a group has less than seven members, interactions are limited; when it has more than 10 members, it’s hard to involve everyone in the session. There’s also evidence that, the larger the size of a therapy group, the lower its cohesiveness and the higher the dropout rate

Answer 267

11 therapeutic factors that are responsible for the effects of group therapy: group cohesiveness, instillation of hope, universality, altruism, imparting information, development of socializing techniques, corrective recapitulation of the primary family group, interpersonal learning, imitative behavior, catharsis, and existential factors.

Answer 268

finding the fit between identified problems and their broader systemic context; focusing on positives and strengths; increasing responsibility; being present-focused, action-oriented, and well-defined; targeting behavior sequences; using developmentally appropriate interventions; encouraging continuous effort; stressing evaluation and accountability; and promoting generalization.

Answer 269

involves 8 to 30 sessions over a 3- to 6-month period, and it consists of three stages (Sexton & Alexander, 2005) : During the engagement and motivation stage, emphasis is on forming a therapeutic alliance with family members and helping family members reduce feelings of hopelessness and negativity, increase positive expectations for change, and develop a family-focused understanding of its presenting problems. Techniques used during this stage include joining and reframing. Once family members are engaged and motivated, the behavior change stage begins. During this stage, immediate and long-term behavioral goals are identified and an individualized treatment plan for the family is implemented. Techniques used during this stage include training in parenting, communication, problem-solving, and coping skills. During the final generalization stage, the focus is on linking family members to community resources and helping them generalize their acquired skills to new problems and situations and identify ways to avoid relapse.

Answer 270

chlorpromazine (Thorazine), haloperidol (Haldol), thioridazine (Mellaril), and fluphenizine (Prolixin)

Answer 271

``` clozapine (Clozaril), risperidone (Risperdal), olanzapine (Zyprexa), quetiapine (Seroquel), aripiprazole (Abilify) ```

Answer 272

``` fluoxetine (Prozac, Sarafem), fluvoxamine (Luvox), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft), and citalopram (Celexa). ```

Answer 273

venlafaxine (Effexor) duloxetine (Cymbalta) desvenlafaxine (Pristiq).

Answer 274

bupropion (Wellbutrin, Zyban)

Answer 275

``` amitriptyline (Elavil), imipramine (Tofranil), clomipramine (Anafranil), nortriptyline (Pamelor), desipramine (Norpramin) doxepin (Sinequan). ```

Answer 276

phenelzine (Nardil), isocarboxazid (Marplan) tranylcypromine (Parnate).

Answer 277

high levels of stress and anxiety, increased sense of entitlement, low levels of autonomy and emotional and behavioral self-regulation, and decreased academic motivation and achievement

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