missed questions, review Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
if your E. coli culture looks blue after Gram staining, what did you most likely do wrong?
A
failure to decolorize with alcohol
(it’s not failure to counter-stain with safranin because the culture would be colorless in that case, assuming you did prior steps correctly)
2
Q
for each of these technical errors of Gram staining, predict what would happen:
a. failure to use fresh culture
b. failure to heat fix
c. failure to stain with Gentian violet
d. failure to apply iodine
e. failure to decolorize with alcohol
f. failure to counter-stain with safranin
(assume all other steps were done correctly)
A
a. failure to use fresh culture = dead cells
b. failure to heat fix = no cells
c. failure to stain with Gentian violet = all pink cells
d. failure to apply iodine = all pink cells
e. failure to decolorize with alcohol = all blue cells
f. failure to counter-stain with safranin = colorless Gram(-)
3
Q
what part of the envelope of Shigella (Gram-) contributes most to its toxicity?
A
Lipid A endotoxin of outer membrane (contained in LPS, lipopolysaccharide)
*remember Lipid A can cause toxicity whether bacteria is dead or alive
4
Q
what is the structure of Lipid A, the part of LPS responsible for causing toxicity?
A
disaccharide substituted with saturated fatty acids
5
Q
R-factor (resistance genes) are usually transferred via a ____
A
plasmid, via conjugation
6
Q
what needs to happen for stable maintenance of a transferred antibiotic resistance gene?
A
plasma genes need to integrate into a chromosome (DNA which replicates)
requires homologous recombination
7
Q
which of these processes is NOT involved in moving genes from one cell to another?
a. conjugation
b. homologous recombination
c. transduction
d. transformation
e. movement of a transposon
A
e. movement of a transposon - moving DNA from one plasmid to another or to the chromosome (within a cell)
8
Q
which of these processes of genetic transfer in bacteria requires homologous recombination?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
A
a. transformation (uptake of genetic material from environment)
9
Q
A culture of Salmonella is found to have a mixture of cells expressing different H (flagellar) antigens. What genetic process accounts for this?
A
inversion of DNA segment which contains the promoter for the flagellin gene
10
Q
where in the body does Neisseria meningitidis establish asymptotic carrier state?
A
nasopharynx
11
Q
which of the following is essential for the generation of antibodies against bacterial surface proteins?
a. B lymphocytes are stimulated in a “T-independent” fashion
b. CD8+ lymphocytes proliferate
c. DC cells phagocytose and digest bacterial proteins
d. peptides from bacterial proteins are presented by Class I MHC
A
c. DC cells phagocytose and digest bacterial proteins
12
Q
on what kind of plate and what conditions can Neisseria meningitidis be cultured?
A
Thayer-Martin agar and elevated CO2: chocolate agar containing antibiotics to inhibit normal flora
13
Q
what component of Neisseria meningitidis causes septic shock?
A
LOS (lipo-oligosaccharide) - contains Lipid A endotoxin
[remember that septic shock is due to endotoxins, while toxic shock is due to exotoxin superantigens]
14
Q
what does it mean when a bacteria is catalase positive? (what does this enzyme do?)
A
catalase = hydrogen peroxidase
catalyzes H2O2 —> H2O + O2
protective against ROS
15
Q
contrast the causes of septic shock and toxic shock syndrome
A
septic shock: due to endotoxins that cause inflammatory response
toxic shock syndrome: due to superantigen exotoxins that cause polyclonal T cell activation
16
Q
match the pathogen with the more likely mode of infection:
staphylococcus or streptococcus
a. contamination of a needle or injection site with oral flora
b. entry of skin flora through a needle-stick site
A
staph.: skin flora
strep.: oral flora (alpha-hemolytic)
17
Q
which Gram+ coccus is uniformly sensitive to penicillin G?
a. staph. aureus
b. staph. epidermidis
c. strep. pneumoniae
d. strep. pyogenes
A
d. strep. pyogenes
18
Q
You are culturing a bacteria which you suspect to be Strep. pyogenes, Group A streptococcus that is beta-hemolytic. To confirm your suspicion, you do a bacitracin test. What do you expect the result to be?
A
Bacitracin sensitive
19
Q
antibodies to which antigen of Streptococcus pneumoniae are most important for effective immunity?
a. teichoic acid
b. peptidoglycan
c. C-carbohydrate
d. Type III system
e. polysaccharide capsule
A
e. polysaccharide capsule - most important virulence factor of Strep. pneumoniae (no capsule = non-infectious)
20
Q
which is more likely to be highly antibiotic resistant, Enterococcus or Group D Streptococcus?
A
Enterococcus
21
Q
Which test result would best distinguish Strep. pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic Streptococci?
a. sensitivity to bacitracin
b. sensitivity to optochin
c. sensitivity to penicillin G
d. sensitivity to methicillin
e. sensitivity to rifampin
A
b. sensitivity to optochin
recall that other alpha-hemolytic Strep, Viridans group, is optochin resistant
22
Q
What bacterial component defines the Lancefield Groups?
A
cell-associated or C-carbohydrate
23
Q
what does it mean when colonies on MacConkey agar plates turn dark pink?
A
strain ferments lactose, which causes pH to drop and pH indicator dye turns pink
24
Q
what does it means when a TSI (Triple Sugar Iron) agar slant turns yellow?
A
TSI slants contain pH indicator that turns yellow if pH drops because of fermentation of either/both lactose or sucrose
25
what is the clinical outcome of the heat stable toxin of E. coli stimulating guanyl cyclase?
stabile toxin: structural analogue of gut peptide hormone which stimulates guanyl cyclase coupled receptor
*increase in either cAMP (labile toxin, resembles cholera toxin) or cGMP causes salt/osmotic outflow into gut lumen and watery diarrhea
26
Verotoxin =
Shiga-like toxin
27
where would a young child most likely contract *Shigella*?
a. reptile such as snake or iguana
b. dog or cat
c. cow, horse, sheep
d. parakeet or other bird
e. another child
f. spores present in soil
e. another child - *Shigella* found only in humans, transmitted via fecal oral route
*note that Shigella is resistant to stomach acid and has a low infectious dose
28
*Yersinia enterocolitica* and *Yersinia pseudotuberculosis* both use a Type III secretion system to prevent:
a. phagocytosis by neutrophils
b. fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes
c. processing and presentation of antigens
a. phagocytosis by neutrophils
[remember that *Yersinia enterocolitica* and *Yersinia pseudotuberculosis* are acquired from animals or ingestion of contaminated meat or dairy]
29
what is the antigenic component of *Haemophilus influenzae* vaccine?
Hib conjugate vaccine: purified capsular polysaccharide covalently bound to diphtheria toxoid
30
severe projectile vomiting a few hours after eating contaminated food is a hallmark of food poisoning caused by
*Staphylococcus aureus*
31
primary mechanism for *Enterococcal* resistance to vancomycin is via expression of
VanHAX operon (D-Ala-D-Ala —> D-Ala-D-Lac)
32
when a person living in a closed community (military, college) presents with severe headache + neck stiffness + fever, your first thought should be
*Neisseria meningitidis*
33
increased production of endogenous metabolite PABA (p-aminobenzoic acid) causes resistance to
sulfamethoxazole - sulfonamides are anti-metabolite antibiotics that block the first enzyme in folate synthesis, which uses PABA as a reactant
therefore, resistance works by overwhelming drug with increased PABA
34
the most important virulence factor for the development of UTIs
pili (adhesins): necessary for adhesion to urethra
35
name the toxin which:
a. induces adenylate cyclase
b. inhibits protein synthesis on 60s ribosomal subunit
c. ribosylates EF-2 (elongation factor 2)
a. induces adenylate cyclase —> Cholera toxin and labile toxin of E. coli
b. inhibits protein synthesis on 60s ribosomal subunit —> Shiga toxin (and Shiga-like toxin)
c. ribosylates EF-2 (elongation factor 2) —> pseudomonas exotoxin A and diphtheria toxin
36
what bacterial infection will cause copious amounts of watery diarrhea but no fever
*Vibrio cholerae*
37
endotoxins are only found in Gram(+/-)
endotoxins only found in Gram (-), in LPS
exotoxins found in both Gram+/-
38
how do beta-lactamases inactivate penicillin?
transient covalent linkage
39
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is typically caused by ____ toxin, produced by ______ bacteria
HUS: caused by Shiga toxin produced by *Shigella or STEC E. coli*
40
what would you expect to see after an acid-fast stain of tuberculosis sputum?
red-staining bacilli
41
what is the purpose of culturing *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* on Lowenstein-Jensen agar and in the BACTEC system?
culture allows testing for antibiotic sensitivity/resistance
42
what characteristic of M. tuberculosis is most essential for its transmission?
impermeable lipid-rich envelope
43
A first-year resident tests tuberculin-positive and requires *prophylactic* treatment - which drug should be given?
a. streptomycin (aminoglycoside)
b. ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolone)
c. isoniazid
d. rifampin
e. ethambutol
c. isoniazid
44
what is the most important type of immune defense against M. tuberculosis?
killing by macrophages activated by TH1 cells via gamma interferon
45
in what kind of immunodeficient patient might a PPD test produce a false-negative?
patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity may produce false-negative PPD because immune response to tuberculosis is TH1 mediated (activate macrophages via IFNy)
46
if cells infected with *Chlamydia trachomatis* were examined by staining and light microscopy, what would be observed?
membrane-bounded inclusion body within the cytoplasm
47
what property of Rickettsia (causing RMSF) prevents its recovery by culture?
it can only be grown in living mammalian cells
48
if cells infected with *Rickettsia* were examined by electron microscopy, what would be observed?
small rod-shaped bacilli free in the cytosol (intracellular)
49
what structural feature is unique to bacteria such as *Borrelia burgdorferi* and *Treponema pallidum*?
a. outer membrane with porins
b. pili for tight adherence
c. flagella within the outer membrane
d. high-affinity iron-transport systems in the cell envelope
c. flagella within the outer membrane - endoflagella
50
A 25yo pregnant woman develops chorioamnionitis from *Bacteroides fragilis* - how did the organism reach the fetal membranes?
*Bacteroids fragilis* is normal intestinal flora - spread from endogenous source to her genitourinary tract
51
which bacteria is most likely to be acquired from home-canned foods?
*Clostridium botulinum* - produces spores not easily killed by boiling
52
Your patient presents with a lesion they said began as a small red swelling which enlarged and then ulcerated. A swab of the ulcer contains large Gram+ rods and aerobic culture on sheep blood agar produces non-hemolytic colonies. When the ulcer heals, it produces a thick black scab.
What is most likely going on?
*Bacillus anthracis* cutaneous infection
53
*Bacteroides fragilis* is isolated from your patient’s abscess - what condition most likely facilitated the infection?
a. treatment with sulfonamide
b. tissue ischemia
c. antibiotic treatment for another bacterial infection
d. colonization of the large intestine with spores of this organism
tissue ischemia - *Bacteroides fragilis* is anaerobic
54
to what do neutralizing antibodies for Polio virus bind?
a. matrix protein
b. nucleocapsid protein
c. membrane glycoproteins
d. non-structural proteins
nucleocapsid protein
55
which of these steps only occurs in “early” phase of viral replication?
a. production of virion structural proteins
b. synthesis of viral-encoded enzymes
c. transcription of viral genes
d. production of new viral genome
b. synthesis of virus-encoded enzymes
56
which of the following will detect only infectious virions?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. hemagglutination
d. plaque assay
e. western blot
plaque assay - non-infectious viruses will not be able to lyse cells
57
where does variation that differentiates serotypes occur?
a. structural variation of proteins at viral surface
b. variation in symmetry of nucleocapsid
c. presence or absence of particular proteins in virions
d. structural variations of viral internal proteins
structural variation of proteins at virus surface
58
some viruses spread through inducing fusion of uninfected cells with infected cells - what mode of immune defense does this escape?
neutralization of virions by antibody
59
what kind of immunity do viruses escape by inhibiting synthesis of MHC I?
CD8+ CTL
60
what is required for transfer of DNA from a bacteriophage from one bacterium to another?
a. direct contact between donor and recipient cells
b. excision of the bacteriophage from the bacterial chromosome, replication, and new virus formation
c. replication of a conjugative plasmid
b. excision of the bacteriophage from the bacterial chromosome, replication, and new virus formation
DNA from bacteriophages integrate into chromosome - need to pop out and replicate to spread
61
some isolated resistance genes are found to lie close to each other in DNA and are adjacent to a gene with transposase sequence motifs. This group of genes is flanked by inverted DNA repeats - what is this whole thing called?
transposon
62
what does N. meningitidis have that N. gonorrhoeae doesn’t have that helps it evade immunity?
N. meningitidis has capsule that confers resistance to killing by phagocytes
N. gonorrhoeae is *unencapsulated*
63
An 8mo boy has a history of Gram+ middle ear infection, as well as infections by non-encapsulated H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and a staph. skin infection which responded poorly to antibiotics. Turns out he has an immunodeficiency syndrome - what aspect of his immunity is defective?
antibodies, complement, and neutrophils - predominant immunity against extracellular bacteria
64
mechanism of cholera toxin
stimulates Gs protein that activates adenyl cyclase —> increase in cAMP, more fluids in lumen of GI —> water diarrhea
65
which bacterial toxin causes an increase in cGMP
heat stabile toxin (ST) of ETEC (traveller’s diarrhea) stimulates guanyl cyclase and increase cGMP
ETEC also has labile toxin (LT) which is cholera-like toxin, and increase cAMP
both cause fluid in lumen —> diarrhea
66
which describes the function of ETEC heat-labile exotoxin?
a. enters intestinal epithelial cells, catalyzes synthesis of cGMP in cytosol
b. ADP-ribosylates a large G protein which stimulates adenyl cyclase
c. cleaves ribosomal RNA and inhibits protein synthesis by 80S ribosomes
b. ADP-ribosylates a large G protein which stimulates adenyl cyclase
this is cholera-like toxin —> cAMP —> watery diarrhea
67
Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis cuase intense inflammation in intestinal lymph nodes. A virulence factor aiding infection is their Type III secretion system, which blocks:
a. phagocytosis of Yersinia by neutrophils
b. fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes
c. cytokine synthesis by infected macrophages
a. phagocytosis of Yersinia by neutrophils
68
which phrase best describes the antigenic components of the recommended pertussis vaccine?
a. toxoid plus other purified antigens
b. purified capsular polysaccharides, linked to Diphtheria toxoid
c. live attenuated bacteria
a. toxoid plus other purified antigens
DTap: Diptheria Toxoid, acellular Pertussis
69
what produces the induration and erythema seen with tuberculin skin tests?
a. induction of primary antibody response
b. cytokine production by CD4+ T cells
c. killing of infected human cells by CD8+ CTL
b. cytokine production by CD4+ T cells
CD4+ T —> IFNy —> macrophage
70
in a person with intact immunity, which of the following is most likely to be followed by development of active TB?
a. re-activation of previously dormant bacteria in the lung
b. brief exposure to a person with active TB
a. re-activation of previously dormant bacteria in the lung
71
what is given as prophylactic treatment for TB?
isoniazid (INH)
72
how does Edema Factor of anthrax work? how does Lethal Factor work?
Edema Factor: calmodulin-activated adenyl cyclase —> causes increase in cAMP —> fluid leakage
Lethal Factor: protease that cleaves a MAPK (protein kinase) involved in signal transduction —> tissue necrosis
*recall Protective Antigen is required for these to enter host cell
73
HIV+ patient has pneumonia. Bronchoalveolar fluid is recovered which contains cyst forms of _____
Pneumocystis carinii (P. jirovecii) —> Pneumocystis pneumonia
*this fungus is acquired in childhood and does not affect healthy people
74
what does Coccioides immitis look like when cultured on Saboraud agar + glucose?
hyphal growth - conidia develop in rods looking like bamboo kinda
*in tissue, looks like large spheres with many endospores
*found in SW USA/ Central+South America desert soil
75
what virulence factor is essential for CNS infection by all of these: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, and Cryptococcus neoformans?
these all have polysaccharide capsule that is required for infection!
76
which 2 fungi are associated with bird droppings
1. Histoplasma capsulatum
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
77
contrast what HSV and EBV do in latently-infected cells
HSV: NO protein production in latency, produce *anti-sense transcripts*
EBV: produce only early proteins
78
what virus is associated with retinitis in AIDS patients
cytomegalovirus (CMV)
79
how are VZV and Rubella both transmitted
oropharyngeal secretions and respiratory route
80
what virus causes Roseola infection in infants (fever + rash on neck and trunk)
HHV-6 (also implicated in HIV progression)
via respiratory secretions, latent in peripheral lymphocytes
81
which of these is true of Herpesviridae?
a. formation of syncytia
b. large intra-nuclear inclusions
c. death of infected cells by lysis
b. large intra-nuclear inclusions
dsDNA, icosahedral nucleocapsid, enveloped
82
what family of viruses causes syncytia?
Paramyxoviridae: (-)RNA, enveloped, helical
includes Parainfluenza, measles, mumps, RSV
83
what features determines oncogenic potential of a particular HPV type?
affinity of binding between viral early proteins and host cell growth-regulatory proteins
84
most common cause of tonsilitis
Adenovirus
can also cause keratoconjunctivitis, pharyngitis with fever and cough, and infantile gastroenteritis
85
what virus has large “owl’s-eye” intra-nuclear inclusions, and causes extensive erythematous rash of newborns?
cytomegalovirus (CMV): beta herpesvirus (latent in monocytes)
dsDNA, enveloped, icosahedral
via body fluids, causes cytomegaly but does not kill cells
86
why is it unlikely that a non-toxic drug will be developed that will inhibit replication of Papilloma viruses?
Papilloma (like HPV) use host cell biochemistry for replication, transcription, translation
87
what virus is associated with causing Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) in AIDS patients?
Human Polyoma Virus JC
88
which describes the virions of Vaccinia virus?
a. envelope contains HA and NA
b. lateral bodies are located between the viral core and membrane
c. virions are smaller than the virions of Herpesvirus
b. lateral bodies are located between the viral core and membrane
89
which of these describes SARS virus?
a. long slender enveloped virions with helical nucleocapsids
b. large naked virions with elaborate double-walled protein shells
c. large enveloped virions with prominent club-shaped glycoprotein spikes
c. large enveloped virions with prominent club-shaped glycoprotein spikes
remember these give it the appearance of a corona, or crown
90
what is the most likely outcome following infection with St. Louis encephalitis virus?
a. mild encephalitis
b. asymptomatic or sub clinical infection
b. asymptomatic or sub clinical infection
however in elderly patients severe CNS disease develops (stiff neck, meningitis, coma, disability)
no vaccine
91
what disease is echovirus most significant for causing
echovirus: *meningitis*, Hand/foot/mouth, conjunctivitis, febrile rash
but most importantly meningitis
recall this is naked, icosahedral, +RNA enterovirus (of picornaviridae)
92
how does Polio get to CNS
gut —> viremia —> CNS
93
on Polio virion, where are the epitopes important for neutralization?
proteins on the virion which are protruding and coming to a point
recall Polio is naked, icosahedral, +RNA enterovirus (picornaviridae)
94
what family of viruses have fusion (F) proteins?
paramyxoviruses (-ssRNA): include parainfluenza, measles, mumps, RSV
these also cause syncytia
95
which calicivirus causes outbreaks of diarrhea
Norwalk: naked, icosahedral, +ssRNA
96
how does Amantadine work as a prophylactic drug for Influenza?
inhibits M2 protein, which forms ion channel that lowers pH to allow for uncoating
blocks fusion of viral and endosomal membranes in response to decreased pH
97
what does Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) assay detect in serological diagnosis of Influenza?
antibody to influenza virus
98
Hantavirus is found in southwest US and causes pulmonary infection - how is it transmitted?
inhalation of aerosolized rodent urine/feces, or of material contaminated with these
99
among viruses, what structural feature is unique to the virions of Arenaviruses?
they contain host cell ribosomes ! woah !
*note arenaviruses mostly produce systemic febrile illnesses
100
lactose-fermenting Gram- rod isolated from bloody stool
E. coli
101
young child with loose stools, fever, cramping, muscle aches, but no blood in stool
she has several pet turtles
what is it
Salmonella spp.
102
how does Rickettsia rickettsii rash spread
limbs to trunk
103
which organism would be most likely to be a contamination caused by poor antiseptic technique, rather than true infection?
a. Staph. epidermidis
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Strep. pneumoniae
a. Staph. epidermidis
104
fever and bloody diarrhea, curved Gram- rod
Campylobacter jejuni
105
patient works as tree remover, has lump on left forearm
Gram+ bacteria is isolated that only grows in aerobic culture. It is most likely:
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Aspergillus fumigatus
a. Nocardia asteroides
106
which bacteria causes formation of a tough pseudomembrane that is difficult to remove without causing bleeding?
Corynebacterium diptheriae
107
what is the most common source of rabies infection in the US?
bats
note this is not the only thing bats are associated with
108
which viruses are segmented?
BOAR:
Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus (Influenza)
Arenavirus
Rotavirus
109
inspiratory stidor =
croup (like the cough in parainfluenza virus)
110
what does the fusion protein of parainfluenza, mumps, RSV, and measles do?
fusion protein causes syncytia (multi-nucleated giant cells)
111
which zoonotic bacteria has bipolar staining
Pasteurella
112
which Gram+ rod bacteria has a narrow zone of beta hemolysis
Listeria monocytogenes
113
when does adenovirus vs influenza and RSV cause infection?
adenovirus: year round
influenza and RSV: winter
114
what are the curved rod Gram- bacteria?
campylobacter, vibrio, helicobacter
115
in what cells does Salmonella typhi spread systemically?
monocytes/macrophages
116
what is the mechanism of vancomycin resistance?
expression of 1+ genes encoding enzymes that produce peptidoglycan with D-ala-D-lac termini
via VanHAX operon
this is seen in enterococci
117
are monobactams (aztreonam) cross-reactive with penicillin?
no!
118
_____ are lipopolysaccharides, ______ are proteins
ENDOTOXIN: LPS
EXOTOXIN: protein
only Gram- have LPS (endotoxin) but both Gram+/- have exotoxins
119
what disease is caused by spirochete bacteria and spread by human body louse?
relapsing fever via Borrelia reccurrentis
120
which bacteria, transmitted by a *flea* bite, causes maculopapular rash on trunk, arms, and thighs?
Rickettsia typhi: causes endemic/murine typhus, vector is rat and rat flea
121
what medium is used for culturing M. tuberculosis
Lowenstein-Jensen medium
122
vaginal itching and erythema with thick/white discharge and *foul smell* is most likely caused by…
candida albicans
123
pelvic inflammatory disease is most likely caused by…
Chlamydia trachomatis is most common bacterial STD and most often cause of PID
after that would be N. gonorrhoeae
124
chronic diarrhea in an AIDS patient and a fecal smear that shows acid-fast oocyts
what is the most likely causative organism?
Cryptosporidium
125
which is the only form of plasmodium that causes cerebral involvement?
Plasmodium falciparum (worst one)
126
#1 choice for anthrax prophylaxis
Ciprofloxacin (FQ/fluoroquinolone)
127
what test distinguishes Group B (Strep. agalactiae) from other beta hemolytic strep?
CAMP test: positive result shows arrowhead-shaped area of hemolysis next to bacterial streak on blood agar (due to CAMP factor)
128
which of these is transmitted via an arthropod vector?
a. Bunyavirus
b. arenavirus
c. parvovirus
a. Bunyavirus - arthropod vectors
129
what is the main component of the EBV capsid?
VCA protein: viral capsid antigen !!!
130
all mAbs for Covid are given via what route of administration?
infusion or injection !
131
what type of organism does MacConkey agar select AGAINST
gram+
MAC agar only grows Gram- bacteria !!
132
what color do bacteria that ferment sugars on HE agar appear as?
yellow!!
133
how doe most transforming genes found in DNA viruses cause tumor formation?
inactivation of tumor suppressor gene products such as p53 and Rb
134
What kind of rash is associated with Hand Foot & Mouth Disease when caused by Coxsackievirus?
red vesicular rash
*note that VZV also causes vesicular rash
135
What bacterial species is associated with causing rice water stool?
Cholera - due to *mucus* in the stool
136
the most common source of rabies in the US is…
bats
137
which viral families have segmented DNA?
BOAR:
Bunyaviridae
Orthomyxoviridae
Arenaviridae
Rotavirus
138
what do the anti-influenza drugs Amantadine and Rimantadine target?
M2 protein, which lowers cell pH to facilitate viral uncoating
139
inspiratory stridor =
inspiratory stridor = croup
seen with parainfluenza infection
140
what protein causes the synctia seen with infection by parainfluenza, measles, mumps, and rsv?
fusion protein
141
what is the difference in the rash caused by Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV 2) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)?
both caused red vesicular rash
but HSV2 rash is painful
142
What Gram- bacteria has classic bipolar staining?
Pasteurella
143
Which Gram+ rod grows with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar?
Listeria monocytogenes
144
Contrast when infections by Adenovirus vs Influenza vs RSV are most common
Adenovirus: infections year-round
Influenza/RSV: winter infections
145
What virus is the most common cause of tonsillitis?
Adenovirus
also causes hemorrhagic cervicitis
146
What kind of vaccine is available for Adenovirus, and who is it given to?
live vaccine, military only
147
What are the curved Gram- bacteria? (3)
1. Campylobacter jejuni
2. Vibrio cholerae
3. Helicobacter pylori
