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A330 Systems Hawaiian > Mix of Systems > Flashcards

Mix of Systems Flashcards

1
Q

How many prims and secs? purpose?

A

3 PRIMS (FCPC flight control primary computer)
- Normal Alt and direct law
2 SECS (FCSC - secondary)
-Direct law only if all PRIMS are lost

one computer needed for safe flight

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the inner tank split pushbuttons?

A

They were added to the aircraft later so there is no ECAM monitoring and they are not displayed on the main fuel panel.

The purpose it to close the valves that split the inner tank in case of a fuel leak. (These valves are usually open) Fuel from both sides of the inner tank are still accessible by use the main and standby pumps.

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3
Q

When do you use the inner tank split pushbuttons and what do the lights “ON and SHUT” mean?

A

Push when directed by ECAM. Isolates the parts of the inner tank for fuel leak

Amber ON when valve is closing.
Blue SHUT when valve is closed.
Once closed, both ON and SHUT will be illuminated.

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4
Q

We turn the RCDR on manually to record our checklists but when would it start automatically ?

A

turns on after power up for 5 minutes
or at first engine start
or in flight

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5
Q

Max wiper speed? max widow open?

A

230kts

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6
Q

What happens when you press the APU Master Pb?

A

If it says fault, means the APU has shut down automatically
when pressed it functions as a reset. Resets ECB

Norm ops: turns on ECB
pulls up the APU page on the SD
opens the intake flap

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7
Q

What happens when you press the APU Master Pb?

A

If it says fault, means the APU has shut down automatically
when pressed it functions as a reset. Resets ECB

Norm ops: turns on ECB
pulls up the APU page on the SD
opens the intake flap

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8
Q

Apu start switch illuminates AVAIL means?

A

Electricity and or Air is available

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9
Q

How long after turning off the APU master can you expect to see the AVAIL light illuminated?

A

up to 2 mins during cool down

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10
Q

When will the ECB shut down the APU automatically?

A

on the ground for multiple reasons.. if fire it will automatically discharge the dedicated apu halon extinguisher as well.

In the air will only shut down automatically for overspeed and critical ECB failures.

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11
Q

When the Emergency Exit light switch is armed when will the lights come on automatically?

A

-Normal aircraft electrical power fails
-AC BUS 1 fails
-DC ESS BUS fails - only overhead lighting comes on for minimum lighting.
-Cabin altitude of 9550ft - exit signs will come on.

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12
Q

When the ditching Pb is selected on what happens?

A

O- Outflow valves close (if press mode selector is in AUTO)
C- Cargo Isolation valves close
R- Ram air inlets close
A - Avionics ventilation overboard valve closes
P- Pack Flow control valves close

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13
Q

What are the ditching Pb functions?

A

De icing and ditching

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14
Q

How does the aircraft automatically manage cabin pressure?

A

2 CPCs that alternate turns each flight.
1 FWD and 1 AFT outflow valves each with 2 main motors.
They each have a third standby motor when in MANUAL mode. (Pilot as CPC)

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15
Q

How can the pilot manually manage cabin pressure?

A

Manual mode.
Target Cabin pressures are in the FCOM and also on the ECAM
Pilot manipulates the outflow valve positions via their standby motors. (each toggle of the V/S CTL is about 150-200FPM)

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16
Q

Probe/Window Heat in auto?

A

Window and probe heat comes on when in flight, or on the ground when first engine is started. (TAT will not turn on on the ground) - The system provides low heat on the ground and hight heat in flight.

When the Pb is pressed to on, the window and probe heat turns on (except TAT probes when on ground)

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17
Q

When the Engine A/I is selected on, will the ignition turn on automatically?

A

No it will not. Unless there is an EIU failure.

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18
Q

What happens when the Wing AI is turned on while on the ground?

A

The wings will be heated for 30 seconds while the system runs a test, it will then turn on once in flight. The wind AI valves fail closed while the engine valves fail open.

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19
Q

Min battery voltage for power up. What if below this limit?

A

25.5V - represents 50% batt power.
If below this, charge off of external power for 20 mins and check again.
If 23.5V or less the APU risks an aborted start during power up

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20
Q

Which batteries supply power for APU fire protection?

A

If the Main batteries are low during APU power up on batt power, the APU fire protection may not be available.

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21
Q

Galley PB in auto?
Commercial PB?

A

Galley in auto means that the galley will be shed if certain failures occur. Commercial turns off all lights other than flight deck.

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22
Q

What controls the fuel pumps?

A

2 FCMC - Fuel control and monitoring computers

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23
Q

Fuel tank filling order?

A

order of importance
Inner and outers first
Once around 80,500lbs, fuel starts to go to the trim tank
Around 166,500lbs, fuel starts to go to the center tank

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24
Q

Fuel burn tank order?

A

Engines get fuel from the inner collector tanks.
As fuel is burnt off, the remainder of the tanks fuel the inners:
Center to inners
Trim to inners
Outer to inners

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25
Q

When is fuel transferred to/from the trim tank in flight?

A

TT FEED auto position:
Climbing through 25,500 fuel begins to be transferred to the trim tank. During flight, fuel transferred forward to feed the inner tanks and to optimize CG. When 24,500 or 35 mins from destination the remaining fuel is sent from the trim to the inners, leaving some in the trim so that the trim pipe has fuel for APU start.

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26
Q

What sources of fuel does the APU draw from?

A

Left inner collector tank, Trim pipe, trim tank

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27
Q

TT feed switch open position?
ISOL position

A

Allows the trim tank to gravity drain into the center tank. Will result in complete draining of the trim tank. The APU will not operate if the trim pipe is completely drained.

ISOL stops all trim tank transfers.

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28
Q

CTR TANK XFR pb?

A

Manually transfers fuel from the center to the inner tanks. If the center tank transfer pumps are inop, this leaves 33,000lbs of fuel unusable due to gravity and wing dihedral.

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29
Q

OUTR TK XFR

A

This opens the valves to gravity feed fuel from the outer to the inner tanks.

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30
Q

Can the engines get fuel if the main collector tank pumps fail?

A

Yes, they can suction the fuel from the inner collector tanks.

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31
Q

What risks are there with manual fuel Xfers?

A

Always uses only when ECAM/QRH directed. Overfill protection is lost. If tanks are overfilled, fuel could be lost overboard.

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32
Q

When does the Wing XFEED valve open?

A

Opens when during fuel jettison, or during electrical emergency.

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33
Q

When should a fuel imbalance be concerning?

A

When around 3,200lbs of imbalance, start checking the limitation chart.
6,600lbs of imbalance generates an advisory.
The aircraft may be flown and landed with any imbalance scenarios.

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34
Q

Two ways to power the FADEC?

A
  1. FADEC Pbs - used during preflight to check engine oil level (15 qts min)
  2. Turning the ENG start selector to IGN/START. (this will also close the pack valves for engine start, they reopen when selected back to norm)
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35
Q

What powers the FADEC?

A

They have their own magnetic alternators. They don’t rely on normal aircraft power.

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36
Q

CVR pannel test

A

one or more green lights must illuminate during a test

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37
Q

ACP 3 uses?

A

We select PA volume at 12 o clock for the CVR to record
Also can be used as a backup radio via the switching pannel.

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38
Q

Cargo compartment ISOL valves - Pb functions and automatic closing scenarios.

A

When an ISOL valve pb is pressed, it closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and turns off the extraction fan.

With the ISOL pb in the on position this will automatically occur if smoke is detected or if the ditching pb is pressed.

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39
Q

What does the FWD cargo temp selector knob control? (the knob below the cooling knob)

A

This controls the trim valve on the hot air 1 system feeding air to the cargo compartment. The cooling knob is air from pack 2.

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40
Q

When is the FWD cargo cooling knob turned to Norm?

A

When there are livestock, plants, or dry ice

41
Q

How many Fire extinguishers for the cargo compartment?

A

Two, one rapid (discharges within 60 seconds) and one slow rate (260mins). For ETOPS requirement (195 mins). The slow rate is released through a restrictor valve. Both will be sent to the same cargo. Either just forward, or aft and bulk. Aft and Bulk are on the same pb. “AFT”

42
Q

When does the DISCH light turn off? (Cargo Pb)

A

260 mins, once the bottle is completely empty.

43
Q

Do we press the test button for cargo fire?

A

No, this is a MX function only.

44
Q

What is the Extract Pb on the ventilation panel?

Functions pressed and not pressed?

A

In auto, the avionics are cooled by the extract fan. Before engine start, the air is exhausted via the extract overboard valve. When one engine is started this valve closes and the underfloor extract valve opens. This directs the flow of air under the forward Cargo compartment and out of the fwd outflow valve.

When this button is pressed (Extract pb to OVRD), this partially opens the overboard extract valve. There is a small separate door that opens.
This is pressed when directed by ECAM. Most likely done because of vent extract fault or vent OVBD valve fault.

45
Q

How does the avionics bay detect fire?

A

Optical sensor

46
Q

What is MAN START?

A

Used when automatic start is not available. Directed by Supplementary procedures. Limited FADEC functions. Pilots must manually abort start if there is an issue.

47
Q

What are the N1 mode pbs for?

A

FADEC usually controls the engines via the EPR. If inputs to FADEC inhibit it from computing EPR, N1 Rated or Degraded mode will be triggered. If only one engine is effected, the pbs allow for the other engine to be placed into N1 mode so that they are both referencing N1.

48
Q

Is A/THR available in N1 mode? Is alpha floor protection available?

A

Initially A THR disengages but can be regained if no more than one engine is in degraded mode. Alpha floor remains available if no more than one engine is in degraded mode.

49
Q

Are Flex takeoffs allowed when in N1 mode?

A

Flex takeoffs are prohibited when dispatched in N1 mode.

50
Q

What is N1 Rated and N1 Degraded modes?

A

N1 Rated mode:
FADEC will display N1 limits on the upper right of the E/WD
Normal engine protections are still available

N1 Degraded mode:
Protections are lost
A red line will be shown. This represents the full forward position of the thrust levers. This position is above actual N1 limits and may exceed EGT limits as well.

51
Q

If one engine goes into N1 degraded mode, what mode will the other engine go into if the N1 mode pb is pressed?

A

The good engine should go into N1 rated mode. In which case the N1 limits displayed on the N1 rated mode engine can be used for reference when adjusting the thrust on the N1 degraded engine. When operating in N1 degraded mode, use the N1 Thrust control chart in the FCOM.

52
Q

How many autothrust computers are there?

A

There is 1 autothrust computer with 2 channels. 1 channel per FMGEC. Switching between channels is accomplished by switching between autopilots.

53
Q

What happens if you hold the instinctive disconnect push button for too long?

A

If held for 15 seconds the autothrust will disconnect for the remainder of the flight. This will result in no alpha floor protection.

54
Q

What happens if you press the autothrust button on the FCU to disengage?

A

This will result in a thrust lock condition until the thrust levers are moved.

55
Q

When is autothrust armed and engaged during takeoff?

A

Autothrust is armed when thrust levers are placed in flexed or toga position.

At THR RED altitude LVR CLB flashes on the FMA.

Autothrust becomes active when thrust is reduced to climb detent.

56
Q

What happens when both pilots activate the sidestick?

A

The audio warning dual input will be heard. The green “CAPT” and “FO” lights will illuminate on the SIDE STICK PRIORITY Lights

57
Q

How do you take control of the sidesticks from the other pilot?

A

To take control, press and hold the red push button. The last pilot to press and hold has priority. The red sidestick priority light illuminates for the pilot who is no longer in control. Audio message “priority left” or “priority right” is heard as appropriate.

58
Q

How do you lock out the other pilot’s sidestick for the remainder of the flight due to incapacitation, etc.?

A

Hold the red push button for greater than 40 seconds. The deactivated sidestick can be activated again if its red push button is pressed.

58
Q

When do the autoland lights become active?

A

The autoland lights become active below 200 feet RA in LAND mode.

If the autoland lights begin flashing, go around.

59
Q

When do autobrakes engage during a rejected takeoff?

A

Automatic breaking is activated based on ground spoiler deployment.

On takeoff, if an RTO occurs, and the speed is below 72 kts, the autobrakes will not engage due to the ground spoilers not deploying until 72 kts.

60
Q

When do the autobreaks activate during landing in the low setting?

A

Gear touchdown and thrust levers idle.
Ground spoilers deploy.
Autobrakes activate one second after ground spoilers deploy.

61
Q

When do autobreaks activate when in the medium setting?

A

Gear touchdown and thrust levers idle, ground spoilers deploy, autobrakes activate.

62
Q

Why are the auto brakes set after the flight control check during the taxi flow?

A

If you set auto brake max and then move the flight controls, the autobrakes might activate.

63
Q

What does the DECEL light indicate on the autobrake pbs?

A

This indicates that the aircraft is slowing at the programed rate. This does not mean that the brakes are actually slowing it.

64
Q

When are autobreak settings used? Low? Medium? Max?

A

Autobrakes low is the normal landing setting
Autobrakes medium should be used for short or contaminated runways
Autobrakes max are only used for takeoff

65
Q

What happens when the antiskid and nosewheel steering switch is turned off?

A

When switched off, the brake system switches from GREEN to BLUE hydraulics.
Antiskid is deactivated.
Nosewheel steering is lost.
Braking pressure is displayed on the tripple monitor.

*remember this is a reset switch

66
Q

When do the brakes system switch from green to blue or blue to green automatically?

A

At first engine start the brakes switch from blue to green.
Once engines are running, if there is a failure of the green hyd system, the brakes should automatically switch to the blue system. Even if the A/SKID NW/STRG switch is not turned off.

67
Q

What are the 4 methods of braking on the aircraft?

A

Normal w/ anti skid - green system
Alternate with anti skid - Blue
Alternate no anti skid - Blue
Parking brake - Powered by the blue system and/or accumulator pressure

68
Q

Why is engine 1 usually started first?

A

Engine 1 powers the blue hydraulic system. Turning it on recharges the accumulator pressure for the parking brake.

69
Q

How do you know the parking brake will hold the aircraft?

A

Check the accumulator gauge. must be in green band. turn on blue elec pump to recharge.

70
Q

What can be done if one of the MCDUs goes blank or locks up?

A

Refer to the QRH reset table.
The MCDU can be turned off by holding down the dim key.
This allows MCDU 3 to be used.

71
Q

Where are the speedbrakes displayed? What surfaces are used for ground spoilers/speedbrakes/roll control?

A

They are displayed on the SD flight control page.
All surfaces are used as spoilers or ground spoilers.
Only some of the surfaces are used for roll control.

72
Q

Can speedbrakes be used with full flaps, until what altitude?

A

Speed brakes may be used with full flaps. Airbus says they plane may be landed with speed brakes extended.

73
Q

When will the spoilers deploy during RTO?

A

The spoilers will deploy during an RTO once the thrust is brought to idle if the speed is greater than 72KTS.

74
Q

When will the spoilers deploy during landing?

A

If armed, spoilers will deploy when main gear is compressed and thrust at idle.
If not armed, they will deploy with gear compression and at least one engine in reverse.

75
Q

What will happen to the spoilers if only 1 gear touches down and at least 1 engine is in reverse?

A

Partial spoiler deployment will allow a smoother touchdown until both main gear are compressed, then the rest will extend.

76
Q

How does the parking brake valve work? How long can the accumulator store pressure?

A

The parking brake valve is either open or closed. There is no in between setting. The accumulator can hold pressure for 12 hours. No brake peddle pressure is needed to set the brake.

77
Q

What should be taken into consideration when accomplishing the LOSS OF BRAKING memory procedure?

A

Use short and successive P brake applications. If possible delay until lower speed to avoid blowing the tires. The accumulator can provide 7 full P brake applications.

78
Q

When can the manual rudder trim be adjusted?

A

The rudder trim can only be adjusted when the AP is off. The knob and reset button will not work when the AP is on.

79
Q

How is the landing gear controlled?

A

Electronically controlled via two LGCIUs and hydraulically operated (GREEN)

80
Q

How can the gear be extended if there is a green hydraulic failure?

A

It can be electronically controlled and mechanically operated for extension. This is a gravity extension.

If the gear is extended via gravity and there is green hyd pressure available, the gear may be retracted by normal methods. In this case the gravity extension reset switch must be selected to reset then to off.

81
Q

Landing Gear Indicator Panel facts:

A

Next to the gear handle
Powered by LGCIU 1
Red UNLK means the gear is not in the selected position
Green triangle means down and locked

82
Q

How do you know the gear is down and locked via the SD wheel page?

A

Green triangles indicate each gear. The left triangle is LGCIU1 and the right triangle is LGCIU 2. Only one half for each gear is needed to indicate down and locked.

83
Q

When does the red arrow come on next to the landing gear handle?

A

When below 750ft RA when:
Gear is not down and locked and
Flaps 2,3 or full
There is an ECAM warning for this.

84
Q

ECAM Level 3

A

Warning: requires immediate action
CRC
Master warning lights
ECAM messages in red text

85
Q

ECAM Level 2

A

Caution: Crew awareness not requiring immediate action
Single chime
Master Caution lights
ECAM text amber

86
Q

ECAM Level 1

A

Caution: Crew monitoring items
System failures involving loss of redundancy
No aural alerts or master caution lights
ECAM text displays in amber

87
Q

Advisory messages

A

The system requires crew monitoring
May be indicative of a system failure
No aural or master lights
The system is automatically pulled up on the SD with the effected System parameter pulsing green.
The QRH ECAM advisory conditions chart should be referenced for further information.

88
Q

What is needed for Groundspeed Mini to be active during approach? what is its purpose? is auto thrust required?

A

Managed speed must be selected
Auto Thrust is not required
Designed to protect the aircraft from windshear

89
Q

What does M or R mean on the ND next to the NAVAID freq?

A

M means it was manually tuned via the MCDU
R means it was tuned via the RMP
Manual tuning does not effect auto tuning

90
Q

When are certain warnings and cautions inhibited during takeoff?

A

Inhibited from when the engines are placed in takeoff thrust, until 1500ft or 2 minutes after lift off.

91
Q

What if the N/WS DISC message is not displayed on the E/WD during pushback but the crew verifies the pin is in?

A

If the ground crew verifies the pin is in, you must still wait until after pushback for engine start.

92
Q

What color is the GW CG on the SD if it is out of the flight envelope.

A

Normally in green, will be in red if the FMGEC detects it out of limits.

93
Q

What action is required if messages displayed in white under the heading MAINTENANCE are displayed on the status page.

A

These are class 2 maintenance items and require no crew action.

94
Q

What is the automatic flap retraction system

A

During heavy weight operations the S speed may be near 1+F limit of 215. The aircraft will retract the flaps passing 200kts but not the slats.

95
Q

What is the Flap load relief system- ie go around

A

If you overspeed the flaps by 2.5 kts they will retract 1 position.
(this is only for flap 2,3, or full)
RELIEF is displayed on the slat flap indicator
once 2.5 below flap selected speed the flaps will re-extend

96
Q

What is the Alpha speed lock flap protection?

A

This inhibits slat retraction from 1 to 0 if speed drops below 148 or alpha exceeds 8.5 degrees pitch.
Lock is displayed on the slat flap indicator
If pitch drops below 8.2 and speed is over 154 slats will retract.

97
Q

When do the ailerons droop?

A

on the ground 1+F droop is 5 degrees
Airborne they droop 10 degrees with flaps 2-full selected
They don’t droop airborne with flaps 1 since no flaps are extended.

A330 Systems Hawaiian (10 decks)

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