Mixed practice 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of pneumonia can cause hyponatraemia

A

Legionella pneumonia

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2
Q

Symptoms associated with:
Posterior vitreous detachment

A

Flashes of light (photopsia) - in the peripheral field of vision
Floaters, often on the temporal side of the central vision

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3
Q

Symptoms associated with:
Retinal detachment

A

Dense shadow that starts peripherally progresses towards the central vision
A veil or curtain over the field of vision
Straight lines appear curved
Central visual loss

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4
Q

Symptoms associated with:
Vitreous haemorrhage

A

Large bleeds cause sudden visual loss
Moderate bleeds may be described as numerous dark spots
Small bleeds may cause floaters

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5
Q

Acne vulgaris in pregnancy treatment:

A

Erythromycin

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6
Q

Chvostek sign and trousseau sign are positive in which electrolyte disturbance

Eye problem associated:

A

HYPOcalcaemia

Cataracts

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7
Q

Diagnostic criteria for AKI:

In young adults/children

A

Absolute rise of creatine >26mmol/l in 48 hours

Absolute increase in creatinine >50% in 7 days

Urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours

> = 25% fall in eGFR in children / young adults in 7 days

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8
Q

Which two commonly prescribed medications/supplements can cause malabsorption of thyroxine?

A

Iron
Calcium carbonate

Should be given 4 hours apart

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9
Q

Which common anti-hypertensive may exacerbate gout and thus, is contraindicated

A

Bendroflumethiazide

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10
Q

Which drugs may trigger an exacerbation of psoriasis

A

drugs: beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, infliximab
withdrawal of systemic steroids
Alcohol

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11
Q

Suspected orbital cellulitis: Order of treatment

A

IV antibiotics
THEN arrange for urgent CT head

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12
Q

What will arterial gas show in pulmonary embolism?

A

RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS

Secondary to hyperventilation

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13
Q

When should ACEis be stopped before surgery:

A

1 day usually. Is sometimes continued up until surgery

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14
Q

Anal fissure treatment step up:

A

soften stool
dietary advice: high-fibre diet with high fluid intake
bulk-forming laxatives are first-line - if not tolerated then lactulose should be tried

lubricants such as petroleum jelly may be tried before defecation

topical anaesthetics,analgesia

GTN

Botoxm sphincterotomy last line - if GTN not effective after 8 weeks

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15
Q

Normal lithium level:

Which drugs may precipitate toxicity:

A

0.4-1.0
toxicity occurs when >1.5

Diuretics (especially thiazides)

ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers

NSAIDs and metronidazole.

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16
Q

What type of urinary incontinence may Amitriptyline precipitate:

A

Overflow incontinence

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17
Q

Management of acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis

A

IM or oral corticosteroids

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18
Q

Peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes:

1) Management:

2) What can be used as rescue therapy

A

1) Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

2) Tramadol

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19
Q

Symptomatic aortic stenosis management:

Older person

Younger person

patients who are too high-risk for surgical intervention or as a bridge to definitive treatment

A

Bioprosthetic valve

Mechanical valve (tends to last longer)

Balloon valvuloplasty

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20
Q

Most common cause of primary headache in children:

A

Migraines

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21
Q

Decreasing vision over months with metamorphopsia, well-demarcated red patches on the retina and a central scotoma should cause high suspicion of

A

wet age-related macular degeneration

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22
Q

Main investigation required prior to starting herceptin:

A

Echocardiogram

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23
Q

Which disease is associated with Anti-jo1 antibodies:

What disease is associated with

Anti-scl antbodies:

Anti-centromere:

A

Polymyositis

Diffuse systemic sclerosis

Limited systemic sclerosis

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24
Q

Neuropathic drug to avoid in BPH:

A

Amitriptyline - increased risk of retention

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25
Define syringomyelia M/C cause: Investigation:
Collection of fluid within spinal cord. Results in spinothalmic loss in cape-like distribution - > loss of pain reception but preserved light touch, proprioception and vibration Chiari formation MRI spine - may need brain too to investigate Chiari formations
26
What is irradiated blood requested for:
Usually in states of immunocompromise -> lymphoma Reduces incidence of graft versus host disease
27
Pain 4-6 cm down from lateral epicondyle: symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm
Radial tunnel syndrome
28
Other name for chondromalacia patellae: Pattern of pain:
Runner's knee Anterior knee pain in adolescents and young adults. -> cartilage on the underside of the patella (kneecap) becomes softened and irritated, often due to overuse or poor alignment of the patella. The pain worsens with activities that involve bending the knee.
29
Likely disease process for these symptoms: Pruritis history of peptic ulcer Gout 'Ruddy' complexion
Polycythaemia
30
Which cancer is BRCA mutation also associated with in men:
Prostate cancer
31
Most common haemophilia Factors affected in Haem A and Haem B
Haemophillia A A = VIII (8) B = IX (9)
32
Which anti-depressant should NOT be prescribed with warfarin
SSRIs Can have Mirtazapine
33
When should SUs be stopped prior to surgery.
Omitted on day of surgery prior to op -> can have after If afternoon operation and SU is taken twice per day, omit both doses
34
If a woman has a 'higher chance' results regarding Down-syndrome on her 11-13+6 week tests (combined test - NT, PAPPA, BCG etc.) , what are the further investigations?
Offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test (e.g. amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
35
Dose of rectal diazepam in adults for refractory seizure:
10 mg
36
Common causes of drug induced lupus:
Hydralazine Procainamide
37
Herpes causing cold-sores Herpes causing genital herpes
HSV-1 (cold sores - 1 mouth) HSV-2 (genital herpes - 2 balls)
38
If presenting with pre-eclampsia and greater 37 weeks gestation, what should be done ->
Plan for emergency delivery
39
Drugs causing acute interstitial nephritis
Penicillin Rifampicin NSAIDs allopurinol furosemide
40
What is there increased risk of when prescribing SSRI with a triptan
Serotonin syndrome
41
What term defines maternal mortality
Any death in pregnancy, during labour till, till 6 weeks post-partum
42
COPD severity scale: FEV/FVC1 threshold
Mild - FEV1 > 80% (symptoms must be present to diagnose) Moderate - FEV1 = 50-79% Severe = FEV1 30-49% Very severe = < 30% <0.7 post-bronchodilator
43
Any person being considered for the BCG vaccine must first be given what ? At what age is BCG vaccine given up till
Tuberculin skin test- > The only exceptions are children < 6 years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis 35 years - no evidence that it works past this age group
44
What investigation is important to start during phenytoin infusion
cardiac monitoring - arrhythmogenic
45
Further investigation to order in the diagnosis of staph aureus discitis
Echocardiogram -> Looking for endocarditis as primary disease process
46
Duct dependent congenital heart disease: what should be given prior to corrective surgery
Prostaglandin E2 (or 1) to maintain duct patency
47
Ophthalmia neonatorum: What is it? Infective organisms: Management:
Conjunctivitis type symptoms at LESS THAN 30 days old. Chlamydia Gonorrhoea Should be seen same day by Ophthalmology
48
MODY: Define ->] C-peptide? Inherited?
Diagnosis of T2DM in a person <25 years Normal C-peptide Autosomal dominant inheritance
49
Describe discharge and cervix in trichomonas vaginalis
offensive yellow/green discharge, strawberry cervix
50
Flexural psoriasis management:
Differs to normal plaque psoriasis -> Mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks
51
Acute otitis media: When should antibiotics be prescribed? Which antibiotic?
If unwell for more than 4 days Systemically unwell but not requiring admission Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canal Amoxicillin
52
Osteosarcoma: appearance on XR Ewing's sarcoma: appearance on XR
most common primary malignant bone tumour: sunburst pattern Onion-skin
53
When is Men B vaccine given:
2, 4 12 months
54
What is in 6 in 1 vaccine
Diptheria, tetnus, whooping, polio, HiB, Hepatitis B
55
When is oral rotavirus vaccine given:
Months 2 and 3
56
SSRI of choice post myocardial infarction ->
Sertraline
57
Gestation to refer if fetal movements have not been felt
24 weeks
58
Components of Bishop score Bishop score meaning labour is unlikely to start without induction NICE guidelines when to induce: Score greater than X suggests high chance of spontaneous labour
Cervical position Cervical consistency Cervical effacement Cervical dilation Fetal station <5 <6 >8
59
Methods of inducing labour NICE guidelines for inducing labour Complication of inducing labour
Membrane sweep Vaginal or oral Prostaglandins E1 Maternal oxytocin infusion Amniotomy Cervical ripening balloon If <6 -> PO/PV PGLs or oral misoprostol If > 6 -> Oxytocin infusion or amniotomy Hyperstimulation -> remove any PGLs
60
Medical management of miscarriage
Mifepristone followed by misoprostol 48 hours later
61
2 common drugs contraindicated with sildenafil
Nicorandil and nitrates
62
Scarlet fever organism: M/C complication: Treatment:
Group A strep - Strep pyogenes Otitis media Penicillin V for 10 days
63
Difference between paroxysmal and persistent AF:
Paroxysmal self temrinates typically after 1-2 days -> persistent AF requires flecainide
64
Treatment for non-gonococcal urethritis
azithromycin or doxycycline