mixed subjects cbt questions Flashcards
Q1-4 - Lighting fam // Q5-8 - Communications // Q9-21 - Elec system // Q22-26 - Emer equipment // Q27-34 - Fire protection // Q35-38 - APU // Q39-47 - Flight Instruments // Q48-55 - Air conditioning // Q56-58 - Fuel // Q59-65 - Hydraulics // Q66 - Ice and Rain protection // Q67-78 - Landing Gear // Q79-86 - Flight Controls // Q87-112 - Autoflight // Q113 - Bleed Air // Q114-131 - Warning Systems // Q132-164 - Navigation & FMS (164 cards)
1
Q
When the wing landing lights are on, what controls their intensity?
A
Landing gear lever position
2
Q
When are the seatbelt signs extinguished? (Seatbelts Auto)
A
Gear and Flaps selected up
3
Q
When are the seatbelt signs illuminated? (Seatbelts Auto)
A
Flaps selected down
4
Q
When are the “NO SMOKING” signs illuminated?
A
Gear selected down
5
Q
Which radio receiver is being monitored?
A
Left VHF only
6
Q
Which Navigation receiver is being monitored?
A
Right ILS receiver
7
Q
What HF radio and mode have been selected?
A
Left HF AM
8
Q
Normally, the right Radio Tuning Panel will have what radios selected?
A
Right VHF and Right HF
9
Q
What does this condition indicate?
A
Generator Control Breaker 2 is open
10
Q
What condition is indicated?
A
Bus Tie Breaker 2 is open
11
Q
What will result if APU Generator 1 fails?
A
The SSB will close and power the entire synchronous bus
12
Q
What does this indicate?
A
Left Utility Busses are not powered
13
Q
Which is indicated?
A
Generator 3 drive has low oil pressure or high oil pressure
14
Q
What is indicated?
A
At least 1 ELCU on the right side has disconnected its bus due to a fault
15
Q
With no AC power on the airplane and the battery switch ON, what is powered?
A
Main Bus Battery and APU Battery Bus
16
Q
What source normally powers the Main Battery Bus and APU Bus?
A
DC Bus 3
17
Q
Which bus normally powers the Main Standby Bus?
A
AC Bus 3
18
Q
With no AC Power sources connected, what source provides power to the Main Standby Bus?
A
Main Battery
19
Q
Which bus cannot provide power to the Captains or First Officers Transfer Busses?
A
AC Bus 4
20
Q
When is the Ground Handling Bus powered?
A
When external power is available
21
Q
When is the Main deck cargo handling bus powered?
A
When either external power 2 or APU generator 2 is available
22
Q
What is the proper way to remove a flight deck oxygen mask from stowage?
A
Squeeze the red release levers with thumb and forefinger
23
Q
What is the condition of the flight deck oxygen at this station?
A
Available to the regulator
24
Q
How can you restore oxygen flow to the mask/regulator?
A
Open the left door on the stowage box
25
When does the supernumerary oxygen flow control valve open?
Cabin altitude reaches approximately fourteen thousand feet
26
The Armed position of the Emergency switch allows automatic illumination of emergency lights when?
DC power fails or is turned off
27
Pulling the APU Fire Switch will:
Arm the discharge squib and shut down the APU
28
What should you do if the APU Fire Switch cannot be pulled during an APU fire?
Push the fire override release while pulling the switch
29
When is this message no longer displayed?
When the fire condition no longer exists
30
What do these messages indicate?
Bottle A has been discharged and the fire condition still exists
31
Does engine 3 have fire extinguishing available if two bottles are discharged to exthinguish a fire on engine 4?
NO
32
Where will the cargo fire extinguishers discharge?
FWD compartment
33
In what order will the bottles discharge?
A and B immediately bottles, C and D after brief delay
34
What is beeing tested?
The Engine Fire/Overheat detection systems and The Cargo and APU Fire detection systems
35
What is needed to start the APU?
APU Battery and Main Battery
36
Which of the following correctly describes the START position of the APU Selector?
Initiates an automatic APU start sequence
Momentary position, springg-loaded to ON
37
If securing the airplane:
How much time should be allowed for the APU to shutdown before turning the battery switch off?
2 minutes
38
An APU fault results in:
APU shuts down immediately
39
What is the current vertical velocity?
Descent at 700 feet per minute
40
What is the current heading?
120° Magnetic
41
What can be displayed in the lower corners of the ND?
VOR or ADF information
42
What is the current Ground Speed?
453 kts
43
What is the active waypoint? A,B or C?
B
44
What is the active waypoint?
GRH
45
What is the current Groundspeed?
338 kts
46
The EIU source selector selects the EIU for the:
PFD and ND Displays
47
48
What happens if the "B" controller fails?
Pack controller "A" controls the pack
49
What does TRIM AIR do?
Heats conditioned air to satisfy zone temperature requirements
50
What does the RESET switch on the Cabin Temperature Panel do?
Cancels all adjustments in all zones it affects
51
If the active cabin altitude controller fails..
Control of the outflow valves switches automatically to the other controller, regardless of the selector position
52
To set Landing Altitude when the EICAS landing altitude display is in AUTO:
Push Landing Altitude Switch and rotate Landing Altitude Control
53
What is indicated?
The left outflow valve is operating in Manual and the right outflow valve is operating in Automatic
54
on the ground
running an engine on each wing
The system is manually reconfigured for flight
55
What is indicated?
Aft Cargo Heat is OFF
and
Aft Cargo Heat has exceeded normal Limits
56
What is indicated?
The pump output pressure is low
57
Which fuel pumps are supplying fuel to engine number one when center wing tanks are empty
Main Tank Two Override / Jettison pumps
58
Prior to takeoff with fuel in all tanks and the flaps in the takeoff position which fuel tank will supply fuel to engine number four?
Center Wing Tank
59
Which hydraulic system is used by the center autopilot?
System One
60
What happens when an Engine Fire Switch is pulled? (Hydraulics)
The Hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes and the engine pump depressurizes
61
When will the demand pumps operate?
To supplement the associated engine pump hydraulic pressure
62
With the airplane on the ground, which pump is supplying System 4 hydraulic pressure?
The electric auxiliary pump
63
What airplane systems are lost?
Nose and body gear steering/center autopilot
64
What conditions cause the system fault lights to illuminate?
Low system pressure, low fluid quantity, excessive fluid temperature
65
Which hydraulic system requires maintenance action prior to departure?
System 2
66
What does this indicate?
Captains windshield heat not powered
67
68
What conditions are required to release the gear lever lock?
Wing and body gear tilted and body gear centered
69
How long is the EICAS gear up indication displayed after all gear are retracted?
10 seconds
70
What is the primary control for the airplane steering?
Tillers
71
When is Body Gear Steering armed?
Speed decreasing through 15kts
72
What does this indicate?
Either body gear is not centered and thrust lever two or three is advanced for takeoff
73
What causes the gear to extend when using alternate gear extension?
Gravity and airload forces
74
Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?
System four
75
What is indicated?
Parking brakes set and throttles 2 or 3 are advanced for takeoff
76
When is automatic braking activated with the selector in RTO?
Retarding all throttles and wheel speed greater than 85 kts
77
Can a new autobrake decceleration rate be selected after landing?
Yes
78
When are the autobrakes available?
With normal brakes only
79
What effect do the ratio changers have as airspeed increases?
Reduce rudder surface deflection in response to pedal inputs
80
What is indicated?
Stabilizer trim indicator is inoperative
81
When does automatic stabilizer trim cutout occur?
When the stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the AUTO position and uncommanded stabilizer trim is detected
82
What does this EICAS message indicate?
The outboard ailerons may be locked out at low speed or the outboard ailerons may be unlocked at high speed
83
Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers?
ALL spoiler panels
84
What flap power sources are used when the FCUs are in the primary mode?
Bleed air for leading edge and hydraulic for trailing edge
85
What are the leading edge flap positions with the flap lever in the flaps one detent?
Midspan and inboard groups are extended
86
What is the maximum extended position the trailing edge flaps will reach using the alternate mode?
25
87
Where are the autopilot modes displayed?
PFD
88
How would you engage the left autopilot?
Disengage the autopilot then push the L CMD switch
89
Where is the Command Speed displayed?
PFDs and IAS/Mach window
90
During FLCH climb or descent, what is the PDF pitch annunciation?
FLCH SPD
91
What is the bank angle limit?
15° to 25° depending on TAS, Flap position and V2
92
This bank angle limit applies to which Mode of operation?
HDG SEL
93
When does the Go-Around function of the TO/GA mode arm?
At G/S capture or flaps out of up
94
Which of the following precents TO/GA Mode engagement?
Airplane below 5 ft RA for 2 secs
95
How do you terminate the TO/GA Mode below 400ft RA?
Push either A/P disengage switch and turn off both FD's
96
With TO/GA mode engaged, A/P roll control maintains:
Ground Track
97
What does this indicate?
Altitude deviation
98
Which action cancels and resets all the above indications and aural warnings?
B
99
Which Flight control computer is driving the FO's FD?
Right
100
What roll attitude is commanded after takeoff in TO/GA mode?
Takeoff Ground Track
101
In FLCH, VNAV, or TO/GA the THRUST Switch will:
Change the thrust limit to the selected climb limit
Not change the current autothrottle mode
102
Which indication confirms the autothrottle is engaged?
PFD flight mode display
103
The Autothrottle can be operated without the autopilot and/or flight director
True
104
When does Throttle HOLD activate?
Airspeed increases above 65 KIAS (take off)
Thrust levers are repositioned manually in Flight Level Change
Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV
105
How is this message reset?
Re-engage Autothrottle mode or push an Autothrottle disconnect switch
106
What is the maximum Thrust the Autothrottle will use to hold speed?
CLB
107
Which of the following indicates LNAV is engaged?
C
108
During LNAV operation, what happens if the airplane passes over the last route waypoint?
LNAV maintains last Heading
109
What is indicated?
FMC is controlling speed
110
What is the command airspeed?
220 kts
111
What pitch mode is normally maintained by the autopilot during a VNAV climb?
VNAV SPD
112
Which PFD display indicates a VNAV descent?
B
(Thrust levers reach idle in Flight Level Change and VNAV activates HOLD mode)
113
When is the HP Bleed valve open?
When IP Bleed is insufficient to meet Bleed Air requirements
114
What happens if the left EIU fails?
EICAS control switches automatically to the center EIU
115
True or False?
Warning messages are displayed in RED at the top of the EICAS message area.
True
116
What occurs when a Master Warning/Caution reset switch is pushed?
Master Warning Lights extinguish and reset
117
What action is required to view page two?
Push the cancel switch
118
What action is required to view page 2?
Push the cancel switch
119
What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited during a takeoff, at 80knots?
Beeper and Master Caution Lights
120
What EICAS messages, aural alerts, or lights are inhibited for 25s after V1 or until reaching 400' RA?
Only Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights
121
Which of the following flight control positions are shown on the status display?
Rudder, elevators, airlerons and spoilers
122
What is indicated by the STATUS cue?
New status message exists
123
What action is required to display the status messages on page 2?
Push the status switch
124
A controlling EIU is unreliable if:
Any vertical or digital indicator is not displayed
125
Will the ground proximity warning system provide a warning of flight towards vertically sheer terrain?
NO!
126
Which GPWS voice annunciation alerts the crew to an attitde loss after initial takeoff or go-around?
"Don't sink"
127
What is inhibited when this switch is pushed?
The GPWS voice annunciation "TOO LOW FLAP"
128
What inhibits the GPWS voice annunciation GLIDESLOPE?
Pushing the glideslope inhibit switch
129
With the gear not down and locked and the flaps in a landing position, what action silences the warning siren?
Extending the gear
130
TFC must be displayed on the EFIS control panel to:
Display TCAS symbols and data on the ND
131
With TFC selected, a RA provides which of the following?
Voice annunciation and PFD pitch guidance
A display of symbols and data on the ND
132
What inputs are required by the IRS before they can enter the NAV mode from the ALIGN mode?
Airplane longitude and latitude
133
Can the IRSs complete alignment during taxi out?
No
134
Why are the IRS units turned OFF prior to deactivating the AC buses?
To prevent automatic transfer of IRS to battery power and the resultant battery discharge
135
What color indicates the area of heaviest precipitation?
Red
136
True or False?
The Weather and Turbulence mode can be used as the sole means of detecting and avoiding turbulence
False
137
When does VOR/DME and ILS radio control revert to FMS Autotuning?
When detecting a frequency
138
True or False?
The FMS automatically tunes the ADFs.
False
139
Which FMS-CDU tunes the ILS radios if both FMC's fail?
Left, Right and Center
140
When does the FMC combine the three IRS positions?
At all times, except polar navigation
141
True or False?
The Left and Right FMC's are identical.
True
142
Which FMS CDUs can be used to enter information into the FMCs?
Left and Right only
143
What page begins the FMS - CDU preflight?
Identification
144
Which page displays the FMC time?
POS INIT
145
Which key is pushed to display the KBFI departures page?
DEP/ARR
146
Which key is pushed to incorporate the runway and departure into the active route?
EXEC
147
What value will the FMC automatically display after the ZFW is entered?
Gross Weight
148
True or False?
The preflight is complete when PRE-FLT is displayed at the bottom of the TAKEOFF REF Page
False
149
Which key is pushed to select and ILS APP to runway 32R?
1 R Key
150
What is the correct NDB waypoint identifier?
NOLLA
151
Which of the follwing waypoints is identified with a DME ARC procedure?
SEA/20
WPT10
D252X
D252X
152
Which one of the following is a latitude/longitude waypoint identifier?
SEA01
N4738.1W12228.6
N47W122
N47W122
153
What will be displayed in the scratch pad?
Latitude/Longitude
154
Which page is used to make airway modifications?
ROUTE Page
155
What is the maximum allowable route offset distance?
99 NM
156
What action will remove a route offset?
Enter zero on the offset line and execute
157
Which action is used to intercept the 043 leg to EPH?
Push the intercept course line select key and execute
158
What is the direction and distance from VAMPS to RUMOR?
Mag Course 085° and 46 NM
159
What action would bypass QUINT?
Enter EPH over QUINT
160
When will the airplane cross the Holding Fix?
1607z
161
Which indiates an altitude restriciton of at or below 17,000 feet?
C
162
Which indicates a Block Altitude between 12,000 and 17,000 feet?
A
163
The UNABLE NEXT ALT message indicates?
The climb rate is not great enough
164
Which stations are beeing inhibited from autotuning for FMC position updating?
ELN and ALL VOR stations
