MLA paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the audiogram show:

A
  1. Is there anything below 20dB

yes = move to step 2
no = normal hearing

  1. If there a gap

yes = conductive or mixed
no = sensorineural hearing loss

  1. One below or both below 20db line

one = conductive
both = mixed

Left mixed hearing loss.
- air bone gap in left ear = conductive component
- decrease in bone conduction thresholds suggests a sensorineural component too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methotrexate prescribing:

A
  1. weekly rather than daily
  2. Monitor: FBC, U&Es and LFTs (weekly until therapy stabilised then 2-3 months thereafter)
  3. Folic acid 5mg weekly co-prescribed
  4. starting dose = 7.5mg weekly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Methotrexate: interactions

A

Avoid trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole –> increase risk of marrow aplasia

High dose aspirin increases risk of methotrexate toxicity

Tx of methotrexate toxicity = FOLINIC ACID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the classical presentation of this condition involves:

abdominal: abdominal pain, vomiting
neurological: motor neuropathy
psychiatric: e.g. depression
hypertension and tachycardia common

A

Acute intermitten porphyria

  • rare
  • autosomal dominant
  • defect in enzyme involved in biosythesis of haem
  • toxic accumulation of delat aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen

Management:
- avoid triggers
- IV haematin/haem arginate
- IV GLUCOSE if the above not immediately available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Polycythaemia vera: management

A
  1. Myeloproliferative disorder (clonal proliferation of marrow stem cell –> increase in red cell volume)

Key features
- hyperviscosity
- pruritus
- splenomegaly

Management
1. Aspirin: reduce VTE risk
2. Venesection
3. Chemotherapy
a) hydroxyurea
b) phosphorus 32 therapy

Prognosis
1. Thrombotic event
–> 5-15% of patients progress to myelofibrosis
–> 5-15% of patients progress to acute myeloid leukaemia

JAK 2 mutatio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lower back pain: prolapsd disc management

A
  1. physio
  2. NSAIDS + PPI

If symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks then referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate

Site of compression and features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bite and blister cells are typical of the blood film in

A

G6PD deficiency

Associations of G6PD deficiency:

Have a Bite of Heinz Fava beans.
=>
Bite cells. Heinz bodies. Fava beans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Absent or weak femoral pulses are suggestive of a major defect such as

A

coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cancer patients with VTE mx

A

6 months of a DOAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia

A

tamoxifen

Management of endometrial hyperplasia: high dose progestogens w/ repeat samply in 3-4 months.

IUS

Atypia: hysterectomy advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

this is the most effective antipsychotic for dealing with negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

CLOZAPINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

drug used for prophylaxis of sickle cell crises

A

hydroxycarbamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sickle cell crisis management

A

oxygen with IV analgesia and IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cervical cancer screening: if 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still hrHPV +ve →

A

repeat smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months)

Referred to colposcopy if still HrHPV positive at 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is a suitable method for contraception in breastfeeding mothers from 4 weeks and is the most appropriate option in this case.

A

The progesterone-only pill

Breast feeding is an absolute UKMEC contraindication for combined hormonal contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nerve damage and clinical features

  • femoral
  • lumbosacral
  • sciatic
  • obturator
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Glue ear treatment options

otitis media with an effusion

A

If child w/ first presentation of otitis media w/ effusion –> active observation for 3 months , no intervention required

or
–> grommet insertion (allow air to pass through middle ear)
–> majority stop functioning after 10 months
–> adenoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cervical cancer management based on staging

A

Stage 1A tumours
–> gold standard = hysterectomy +/- lymph node clearance
–> fertility maintained? cone biopsy w/ negative margins

Stage A2
–> nodal clearance
–> radical trachelectomy

Management of stage IB tumours
–> radiotherapy (brachy or external beam) w/ concurrent chemo (cisplatin)

B2 tumours
–> radical hysterectomy w/ pelvic node dissection

Stage II and III tumours
–> radiation w/ concurrent chemo
–> Hydronephrosis? nephrostomy consideration

Management stage IV
–> radiation and/or chemo

Stage IVB
–> palliative chemo

Management of recurrent disease
–> surgical: chemo or radiotherapy
–> radiation: surgical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SSRI discontinuation syndrome

A
  • increased mood change
  • restlessness
  • difficulty sleeping
  • unsteadiness
  • sweating
  • gastrointestinal symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting
  • paraesthesia

Paroxetine increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Surgery / diabetes:

these drugs can be continud on day of surgery

A

DPP IV inhibitors (-gliptins)

and GLP-1 analogues (-tides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum: management

A

1st line:
–> antihistamines: oral cyclizine or promethazine
–> phenothriazine: prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine
–> combination: doxylamine/ pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

2nd line
–> odansetron: CLEFT/LIP palate risk
–> oral metoclopramide or domperidone: EPSe w/ metoclopramide not more than 5 days

ADMISSION –> IV HYDRATION

22
Q

typically involves loss of motor or sensory function

A

Functional neurological disorder (conversion disorder)

the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering)

23
Q

present with a shortened and internally rotated leg

Posterior dislocation (everything goes INto the hip) - internally rotated, adducted, flexed and shortened

Anterior dislocation (everything goes out of the hip) - Externally rotated, abducted, normal/lengthened leg

Femoral neck fracture (the muscles of the hip pull the shaft of the femur up and out) - Externally rotated, and shortened limb

A

Posterior hip dislocations

24
Q

ECLAMPSIA: management

A

Magnesium sulphate!

Monitor: UO, reflexes, RR, o2

If respiratory depression: calcium gluconate!

Tx continues for 24 hours after last seizure or deliver

> 20 weeks gestation, proteinuria

25
acute otitis media: management
No improvement symptoms w/i 3 days --> medical help Antibiotics prescribed immediately if: --> symptoms more than 4 days --> immunocompromise , neuromuscular disease --> UNDER 2 w/ bilateral OM --> OM w/ perforation and/or discharge 1st Line = 5-7 days AMOXICILLIN if pen allergic: erthromycin / clarithromycin
26
is defined as perforation of the tympanic membrane with otorrhoea for > 6 weeks
chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) ## Footnote **Complications:** * mastoiditis * meningitis * brain abscess * facial nerve paralysis
27
Hand, foot and mouth disease caused by:
Coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71 Clinical features - mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever - oral ulcers Management --> symptomatic: hydration and analgesia --> no school exclusion
28
Developmental milestones: fine motor and vision
Palm, point, pincer: 6,9,12 3 months --> reaches for opens
29
Cervical cancer screening: if two consecutive inadequate samples then →
colposcopy
30
The thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is generally managed with
Propranolol In the hypothyroid phase treated with thyroxine ## Footnote Three stages 1. Thyrotoxicosis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Normal thyroid function (but high recurrence rate in future pregnancies)
31
Shoulder dystocia management
HELPERR Help: call for help e: evaluate for episiotomy l: Legs (hyper flex, abduct hip), also known as mcroberts’ p: pressure (suprapubic pressure) e: enter (rotational manoeuvre), Rubin, woodscrew r: remove posterior arm r: roll patient (all four position) other: zavanelli, symphysiotomy
32
Diagnosis:
Bulging natuer of the tympanic membrane --> acute otitis media ## Footnote Glue ear --> retracted ear drum
33
Post pregnancy: contraception
POP --> breastfeeding and non-breast feeding --> can start POP at any time COCP --> CONTRAINDICATED if breast feeding <6 weeks --> not for first 21 days IUD/IUD --> w/i 48 hrs of birth --> or after 4 weeks
34
Premature rupture of membranes
Confirming PPROM --> speculum (look for pooling of amniotic fluid in posterior vaginal vault) Management * admission * regular observations * oral erythromycin 10 days * antenatal corticosteroids --> reduce foetal RSD * delivery @ 34 weeks !
35
12 Male pc: hip pain , fever and faitgue pain on palpation of R hip, restricted RoM
SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS Management: internal fixation
36
SALTER HARIS FRACTURES
SALTEr 1 S-Straight 2 A-Above 3 L-Lower 4 T-Through (above and below) 5 Er-Everything (Crush)
37
Scaphoid fracture: management
**Initial management** 1) immobilisation with a futuro splint or below-elbow backslab 2) refer to ORTHOPAEDICS Orthopaedic management 1) undisplaced fractures of scaphoid --> cast 6-8 weeks 2) Displaced wait --> surgical fixation 3) Proximal scaphoid pole fracture --> surgical fixation ## Footnote Complications non-union → pain and early osteoarthritis avascular necrosis
38
most common cause of neutropenic sepsis
Staphylococcus epidermidis tx --> piperacillin w/ tazobactam (Tazocin)
39
Woman aged > 30 years with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, enlarged, boggy uterus →
adenomyosis
40
Isolated fever in well patient in first 24 hours following surgery?
physiological systemic inflammatory reaction Isolated fever in well patient in first 24 hours following surgery? Wind: day 1-2 - pneumonia, aspiration, atelectasis Water: day 3-5 - UTI (especially if the pt was catheterised) Wound: day 5-7 - infection at surgical site or abscess formation Walking: day 5+ - DVT, PE
41
Treatment of Ramsay Hunt syndrome
* oral aciclovir * corticosteroids * eye protection House-brackmann classification! - grading facial weakness
42
premature ovarian insufficieny:
Before age of 40. Features --> rasied FSH > 30 Elevaed FSH should be shown on 2 blood samples taken 4-6 weeks apart --> low oestradiol <100 ## Footnote Management 1) HRT or Combined oral contraceptive
43
Measles : key symptoms
Measles = 3cs = Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, koplik spots
44
Slapped cheek syndrome caused by
parvovirus b19 ## Footnote Lethargy, fever, headache 'Slapped-cheek' rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces
45
painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia
vasa praevia
46
Diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis can be best supported by
sacro-ilitis on a pelvic X-ray
47
is a condition characterized by splenomegaly and neutropenia in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis.
Felty's syndrome
48
Hodgkin lymphoma staging system
ANN ARBOUR I: one node II: two nodes, they live together in a semi-detached house on the same side of the diaphragm III: more than 2 nodes but 3 is a crowd so they crowd all around the diaphragm IV: to inVInity and beyond, the lymphoma has spread everywhere
49
chicken pox exposure in pregnancy
IgG: G = Got antibodies IgM: M = Met someone with the virus antivirals day 7-14 post exposure oral aciclovir > 20 weeks & w/i 24 hrs of rash
50