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1
Q

What happens when a pilot moves the anti torque control?

A

Change in pitch of the tail rotor, increased thrust turns in the direction of MR rotation, change in heading.

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2
Q

How does a helicopter generate lift?

A

Rotating main rotors.

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3
Q

In the hover, what happens when the cyclic pitch control is moved forward?

A

Swash plate moves and the aircraft moves forward.

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4
Q

What is an advancing blade?

A

The blade that generates the most lift, blade moving forward.

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5
Q

When the pilot is not commanding a maneuver, which part of the SAS sends a signal directly to the computer?

A

Rate Gyro.

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6
Q

What happens when back beam is selected?

A

150hz tone is left, 90hz is right and the deflection of indication goes the opposite way.

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7
Q

What are the FD modes?

A

FD ONLY, AP/FD, FD MONITOR.

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8
Q

How is N1 error signal in the ATS in N1 limit computer calculated?

A

It is used to drive the servo to change the throttle position - N1 = TAT + actual aircraft altitude + actual airspeed + actual bleed load - compares N1 limit to highest calculated N1.

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9
Q

What is Versine signal?

A

Lift compensation signal. Supplies elevator up signal during a turn, 1-Cos Theta, increases with roll angle.

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10
Q

Where does the SPD error from Auto Throttle mode come from?

A

The difference between actual IAS and selected speed.

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11
Q

What can be said about series yaw dampers?

A

No feedback.

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12
Q

During auto trim, how is the elevator moved to its neutral position?

A

Trim computer trims the stabiliser after a deflection of more than a few seconds.

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13
Q

Question about the roll bar?

A

Split cue is vertical and disappears with a fault in the roll channel, integrated cue turns during roll, 30 degree limit.

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14
Q

When does ‘Stabiliser out of trim’ warning light come on?

A

If the elevator stays deflected for a period of time.

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15
Q

What happens if AP engage switch is engaged?

A

System synchronises before it engages.

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16
Q

With the yaw damper operational, what is rudder deflection during a 90 degree turn on the taxi way?

A

The rudder deflects in the opposite direction of the turn and then back.

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17
Q

How is altitude error produced whilst AP is in altitude hold mode?

A

By a difference between actual barometric height and selected barometric height.

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18
Q

Which signal does the yaw damper need and which sensor produces it?

A

The yaw rate (Z axis), produced by the rate gyro.

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the mach trim system?

A

Keeps the nose from pitching down due to Mach Tuck, moves the leading edge down as mach number increases.

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20
Q

What is the control value of ATS if the level change mode is active?

A

Calibrated air speed or Mach number.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of fail operational auto flight system?

A

At any failure below the.

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

What is the purpose of fail operational auto flight system?

A

At any failure below the Alert Height (AH) a fail operational flight control system will continue the approach, flare, land, and roll out automatically. After a failure has occurred the automatic landing system will be fail-passive.

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24
Q

Which signal is yaw roll out based on?

A

Localiser deviation signal and heading error.

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25
What are the functions of the gain programmer in AP pitch and roll channels?
Reduce the deviation signals as the aircraft descend, based on height or time.
26
Which signal controls the flare phase?
Rad Alt, <50 ft AGL. And sink rate?
27
Which input signals are needed for auto throttle speed mode?
ADC speed and selected speed.
28
With AP in APPR or LAND mode - statement about gain signal weakening?
Weakens based on height and sink rate, G/S deviations are modified by a decreasing gain function.
29
What does image frequency mean?
Image frequencies are undesired receiving frequencies which, when mixed with the oscillator frequency, also result in the intermediate frequency.
30
What does the fair child 120 min recorder receive?
Receives the four-cockpit audio signals. Three inputs come from the Audio Management Unit (AMU) and correspond to the audio that the flight crew transmit and receives in their headphones. The 4th input is the general cockpit sounds from the area microphone.
31
What does manual VHF VOR mean?
Difference between the radial the aircraft is located on and a pre-selected radial.
32
What is the freq. range of TVOR and LOC?
108-111.95 LOC -ODD TENTHS, TVOR - EVEN TENTHS.
33
What is the meaning of automatic VOR?
Automatic VOR always indicates the Magnetic Bearing to the selected VOR ground station, QDM.
34
What is the accepted range for speech freq?
300hz-3khz.
35
What are the correct statistics for a superhet receiver?
2-3% improvement in selectivity, increased susceptibility to undesired frequency reception.
36
What does the ephemeris signal of GPS provide?
Precise orbital data (altitude, position, and speed).
37
If an aircraft is on a heading of 300 and course selected is 130, what will be indicated on the EHSI?
The EHSI will give a full scale turn left indication and indicate the aircraft is flying from the VOR station
38
What is the statement about flight interphone?
Limited to communications between flight deck, crew, and ground station.
39
What does single side band transmission mean?
Transmits through 1 side band only, less power loss.
40
What is the new EU regulatory requirement for AC weighing more than 5700kg that operates in IFR?
Mode S Enhanced and ADS-B Out.
41
How is ADS-B OUT facility enabled on board?
By transponders interfaced with the relevant avionics systems (such as GNSS, pressure altimeters).
42
What is the function of the P2 pulse in SSR interrogation?
Side lobe suppression.
43
Why are 2 antennas used in ADF?
To remove ambiguity from the loop antenna.
44
What is the basic principle of VOR?
Bearing measurement by phase comparison (Lighthouse principle).
45
Which information is correct if MAG heading is incorrect?
True Heading.
46
Where is the middle marker located?
3500 ft (1050m).
47
What is the Rad Alt statement?
Height between MLG and AGL, primary radar, 2500ft engaged.
48
Which accuracy of LRRA is expected at 50 ft?
3 ft.
49
Aircraft at 6 NM and 1200 ft, what kind of TCAS target?
Filled white diamond, non-threatening traffic.
50
Where is the operational ILS LOC TX located?
1000 ft past the departure threshold.
51
What type of clock is used for Omega synchronization?
Atomic clock - rubidium.
52
What is the term for errors in a gyro stabilized platform caused by the earth's round shape?
Transport wander
53
What are the main classifications of INS?
Strap down, analytic and Semi analytic system.
54
How does the computer's frame of reference influence INS?
The frame of reference determines which calculation is needed, ie x or Y for position, Z for azimuth
55
What is VHF 3 a backup for?
Voice communications.
56
What type of equipment is ACARS?
Buyer of Furnished Equipment.
57
How does INS output ground speed?
By first stage integration of acceleration data.
58
What effect does Coriolis have on aircraft systems?
Pulls AC clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and interoperates the rotation as a turn.
59
What type of system is ACARS?
Air/ground data link.
60
What is the alignment process of INS?
Enter PPOS, stationary for 6-15 mins, can be sped up by GPS.
61
What is the message priority of the MCDU scratch pad?
Alerting, entry error advisory, readiness advisory, ACARS.
62
What does the Monitor ON/OFF/AUTO statement indicate?
On in the extended position, off in the retracted position.
63
How can the IFE system be powered on and off while retaining functionality?
Power is shut down from the FAP.
64
What is a CMT used for?
To control and monitor the system and to activate other cabin configurations. The CMT is connected with all system components via a Local Area Network.
65
In ARINC 628, which part defines standards for interface between systems?
Part 3.
66
What happens to TV monitors during a power failure?
They retract.
67
How is self-test on an ELT indicated?
"ELT on" indicator illuminates for one blink of more than 10 seconds (the buzzer would also sound).
68
What is the philosophy of cockpit lights out?
Lights are always off unless there is a local warning or when it is not in normal switching state.
69
What is obsolete in EFIS systems?
Analogue instruments and CRT units.
70
Which instrument uses sealed anaerobic bellows?
Altimeter.
71
What is the accuracy required by altimeter data systems at 5000 ft?
25 ft.
72
What is the statement regarding engine vibration monitoring?
2 accelerometers, primary on the fans case.
73
How can a pilot confirm complaints about picture quality?
Select the opposite side symbol generator or test the symbol generator
74
What atmospheric layers relate to civil aviation?
Troposphere and stratosphere.
75
Which component is marked around critical areas?
Static ports.
76
What is not true about QAR?
Not mandatory.
77
How much change in height is 3 hPa in the lower atmosphere?
90 ft.
78
What are the basic T instruments?
Altimeter, VSI, HSI, ASI.
79
Why is a rate gyro limited to 3 degrees/min?
To prevent topple.
80
What is the vertical position of the brightness knob?
Medium brightness setting
81
What kind of alert occurs in the altitude alert system if the AC leaves the selected altitude?
Short chime and flashing amber window around the altitude indication
82
Which system triggers a warning if an AC flies at too low an airspeed?
Stall warning computer
83
What is the bellows position in a VSI as an aircraft increases in altitude?
Bellows expand
84
What are dry vane pumps most sensitive to?
Direction of rotation
85
What does the message 'Check ATT' mean on PFD?
Pitch or roll differ by several degrees in different channels, triggered by instrument warning system
86
What is equivalent airspeed corrected for?
Compressability
87
What happens if 2 CMS are installed and active CMS fails?
The data switch automatically isolates the faulty CMC, the pilot can manually select CMC through the switch in the cockpit
88
What are the components of structural monitoring?
Strain gauge, fatigue meter, intelligent skins
89
How is redundancy achieved in OBMS?
2 CMC's installed, data switch isolates
90
What is intelligent skin?
Constructed with fibre optic sensors, ability to conduct light will change as the fibres are stretched or damaged, control unit will sense changes in the light transmitted, normally limited to composite materials
91
The CB monitoring circuit is hosted by which CPIOM?
CPIOM-E
92
In which area may CPIOMs require alteration to be interchangeable?
CPIOMs are interchangeable but may require a software reconfiguration.
93
If a fault is detected in the LG, which CPIOM monitors the LG BITE?
CPIOM-G
94
What is IOM mirroring?
OM 1/3/5/7 are all mirror IOMs of IOM 2/4/6/8 and vice versa. In case of one IOM loss, the communication between a LRU and an ADCN subscriber is not lost thanks to the mirror IOM.
95
What event causes a ceiling monitor to retract?
Power failure more than 200ms, mechanism gets snagged when extending, rapid chin decompression
96
What is the purpose of CMT when associated with IFE main system?
Used to control and monitor the system and activate other configurations
97
Which decoder/encoder unit is for headset + PA announcements?
DEU B
98
What is the power supply to the CIDS Directors?
28V DC, ground bus or essential services
99
What does the Open World Area consist of?
NSS+OIS (Avionics, Flight Ops, Communications and cabin)
100
Which component is not part of the comms domain?
Parts that are: pax services, communication management, maintenance
101
What data conversion is carried out in central data acquisition mode?
Converts AFDX or ARINC into Ethernet format
102
In modern aircraft how are information systems structured?
Avionics world and Open world, separated by a firewall by a one way diode
103
104
105

Avionics (2 decks)

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