Mock 3 Flashcards
(66 cards)
1
Q
What are complications of nephrotic syndrome
A
- Frequent relapses
- Hypercholesterolemia
- Hypovolemia
- Infection
- Thrombosis
2
Q
What are common features of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura ?
A
- Abdominal pain
- Arthralgia
- Fever
- Glomerulonephritis
- Rash on buttocks, extensor surface of arms , legs and ankles
3
Q
What is ranitidine and how does it work ?
A
- H2 receptor antagonist
- Suppresses acid production and can reduce the volume of gastric contents
4
Q
What would a fever pain score of 2 indicate ?
A
- Consider a delayed prescription for antibiotics
5
Q
What would a fever pain score of 4 or 5 indicate
A
- Immediate Phenoxymethylpenicillin prescription
6
Q
What would indicate hospital admission for a child with tonsilitis ?
A
- Unable to swallow liquids and solids
- IV fluid and analgesia
7
Q
What is Naevus flammeus ?
A
- Port wine stain
- Due to the vascular malformation of capillaries in the dermis
8
Q
How does Hirschsprung’s disease present ?
A
- Failure to pass meconium within first 24 hours
- Distended abdomen
- Bile stained vomiting
9
Q
- How is Hirschsprung’s disease diagnosed ?
A
- Suction rectal biopsy
10
Q
- What is 1st line for treating faecal impaction in paeds ?
A
- Macrogol laxatives
11
Q
- How is ITP in paeds managed ?
A
- Safety net and explain it typically runs a benign course and the majority of cases will have resolved spontaneously after 6-8
12
Q
- How is bilateral acute otitis media managed ?
A
- 5 day course of amoxicillin
13
Q
- What condition will show the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus ?
A
- Hirschsprung’s disease
14
Q
- What is the name of the surgical procedure used to treat Hirschsprung’s disease ?
A
- Swenson procedure
15
Q
- What is the surgical management for pyloric stenosis ?
A
- Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
16
Q
- Cyanotic Heart Defects
A
- Truncus Arteriosus
- Transposition of the great arteries
- Tricuspid atresia
- Tetralogy of Fallot
- Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
17
Q
- Features of Tetralogy of Fallot
A
- Large VSD
- Overriding of the aorta
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Right ventricular outflow obstruction
18
Q
Heart murmur heard with ventricular septal defects
A
- Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the lower-left sternal border
19
Q
- Heart murmur heard with atrial septal defect
A
- Ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the upper-left sternal edge
20
Q
- Heart murmur heard with Tetralogy of Fallot
A
- Harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest over the upper-left sternal angle
21
Q
- Which congenital condition is polydactyly associated with ?
A
- Patau’s
22
Q
- When does peak incidence of delirium tremens occur ?
A
- 48-72 hours
23
Q
- When is the peak onset of seizures in alcohol withdrawal ?
A
- 36 hours
24
Q
- Clinical features of pre-eclampsia
A
- Epigastric pain
- Facial oedema
- Hypertension
- Hyperreflexia
- Papilloedema
25
25. What is the defining triad of pre-eclampsia
- HTN (>140/90)
- Proteinuria
- Oedema
26
26. When is the booking visit ?
- 8-12 weeks
27
27. What conditions are screened for at the booking visit ?
- Anaemia
- FBC, blood group
- Rhesus status
- Red cell alloantibodies
- Haemoglobinopathies
- Hep B, syphilis and HIV
28
28. Which of these investigations is used to detect feto-maternal haemorrhage in a suspected sensitising event to ensure enough anti-D immunoglobulin has been given to the mother?
- Kleinhauer Test
29
29. What is a direct coombs test used for ?
- Blood test used to diagnose haemolytic anaemia in a newborn
30
By how much should fetal baseline rate measure on CTG ?
110-160
31
What is defined as bradycardia on CTG ?
110bpm
32
What is defined as fetal tachycardia on CTG ?
160bpm
33
By how much should fetal HR vary ?
5-25bpm
34
What counts as an accelerations on CTG ?
A rise in HR of at least 15bpm lasting for 15 seconds or more
35
When should accelerations occur on fetal CTG ?
- 2 accelerations every 15 mins
- Typically occur with contractions
36
What is a deceleration on fetal CTG ?
- A reduction in fetal heart rate by 15 beats or more for the at least 15 seconds
- Generally abnormal
37
30. What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia ?
- Labetalol
38
31. What is first line for a women with pre-eclampsia with asthma ?
- Nifedipine
39
32. What is the most common type of breast cancer ?
- Invasive ductal carcinoma in situ
40
33. Risk Factors of Pre-Eclampsia
- High BMI
- Maternal antiphospholipid syndrome
- Multiple pregnancy
- Previous MHx of PE
- Long birth interval (>10 years)
41
34. What is 1st line management for heavy menstrual bleeding
- Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
42
35. Risk factors for obstetric cholestasis
- Hep C
- Multiple pregnancy
- Obstetric cholestasis in previous pregnancy
- Gallstones
43
What should a patient on ramipril be switched to during pregnancy ?
- Nifedipine
44
37. Risk factors for placenta accreta
- IVF
- Maternal Age >35
- Previous C-section
- Previous uterine surgery
45
38. 1st line management of obstetric cholestasis
- Ursodeoxycholic acid
46
39. Risk Factors for abnormal foetal lie
- Multiple pregnancy
- Placenta previa
- Prematurity
- Uterine leiomyoma (fibroids)
47
40. How long does a section 5(4) last ?
- 6 hours
48
41. Who can use section 5(4)
- Nurses
49
42. A 19-year-old woman attends the termination of pregnancy clinic asking to have an abortion. Her pregnancy is subsequently terminated at 9 weeks gestation. When is the administration of anti-D prophylaxis indicated in women undergoing a TOP?
- Rhesus negative and after 10 weeks
50
43. What is an error of inherited thinking ?
- When a working diagnosis is handed over and accepted without pause for consideration and determining whether it has been substantially proven or whether it matches the overall clinical picture
51
44. What is an error due to failure to consider alternatives ?
- When one abnormality is found that fits a particular diagnosis and so you stop searching for other potential clues that may change your differentials
52
45. What is error of overattachment ?
- Conducting tests to confirm what we expect or want to see and not ruling out other causes
53
46. What is error of bravado ?
- Typically working above competence in a show of over confidence that is not safe
54
47. What is error of ignorance ?
- Defined as unconscious incompetence
55
48. How long does a section 136 last ?
- 72 hours and the pt should be seen by a doctor or AMHP
56
49. What is a section 135 ?
- When a person can be sectioned within their own home and removed to a place of safety
57
50. What symptoms would a lesion of the left 7th cranial nerve LMN cause ?
- Left sided facial weakness including the forehead and eyelid with normal pupillary response and retained sensation
58
51. Why do upper motor neuron facial palsy need immediate management ?
- Palsy is likely due to a stroke
59
52. Why can a patient with a UMN lesion still move their forehead on the affected side ?
- Upper motor neuron innervation is by both sides of the brain
- The forehead has only LMN innervation from one side of the brain
60
53. What is Bell’s Palsy ?
- An idiopathic condition which presents with unilateral lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy
- Symptoms include inability to move forehead on affected side as well as drooping of the eyelid exposing the eye and loss of nasolabial fold
61
54. Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Triad
- Encephalopathy
- Ophthalmoplegia
- Ataxia
62
55. Korsakoff Syndrome
- Retrograde amnesia
- Anterograde amnesia
- Confabulation
63
56. What does myopia mean ?
- Short sightedness
64
57. What does hypermetropia mean ?
- Long sightedness
- (Associated with squints)
65
58. Indications for Heparin prescription
- Angina
- PE
- DVT
- Peripheral artery occlusion
66
59. Causes of finger clubbing
- Endocarditis
- IBD
- CF
- Bronchial carcinoma
- IDF
