Mock exam Flashcards

1
Q

what are the organelles surrounded by a lipid membrane

A
  • nucleus
  • endoplasmic reticulum
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
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2
Q

what is the difference between cytosol and cytoplasm?

A

cytosol: fluid contained within the cytoplasm
cytoplasm: entire content within the cell membrane except the nucleus

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3
Q

elaborate on the asymmetry of the plasma membrane

A
  • composition of membrane leaflets is highly uneven
  • maintained by flippases and floppases
  • extracellular leaflet: phosphatidylcholine, SM, phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylethanolamine
  • CHL resides in cytoplasmic leaflet
  • asymmetry creates a difference in orientation and positioning of proteins
  • difference in lipids/protein/carb composition
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4
Q

what types of lipids and proteins are found in plasma membrane?

A

lipids: glycolipids/cholesterol/phospholipids
proteins: intrinsic (integral) /extrinsic (peripheral)

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5
Q

classify plasma membrane proteins based on their function

A
  • structural proteins
  • enzymes
  • transport proteins
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6
Q

what is endocytosis and what are the different endocytic pathways?

A

endocytosis: process by which cells take in substances from outside of the cell by engulfing them in a vesicle

endocytic pathways

  1. pinocytosis
  2. receptor mediated endocytosis
  3. phagocytosis
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7
Q

what’s the difference between each endocytic pathway?

A

phagocytosis: engulfment of large particles that pinch off from the membrane to form a vacuole that surrouds the particle

receptor mediated endocytosis: ligands bind to cell surface receptors on membrane

pinocytosis: small vesicles dissolve small material in liquid

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8
Q

what are the general steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. engulfment
  2. phagosome formation
  3. phagolysosome digestion
  4. expulsion of undigested material
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9
Q

what cells are capable of phagocytosis?

A
  • neutrophils
  • monocytes
  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages
  • mast cells
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10
Q

what enzymes are found in lysosomes?

A

hydrolytic enzymes

e.g. proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, phosphatases, sulfatases

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11
Q

what is the role of iron in cells?

A
  • electron transport chain of the mitochondria depends on iron as an electron acceptor/donor
  • many enzymes of electron transport chain are iron dependent (cytochrome c/cytochrome oxidase/succinate dehydrogenase)
  • it helps oxygenate blood cells and haemoglobin by binding oxygen thus aiding oxygen transport to tissues
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12
Q

what genes are critical for cancer?

A

oncogenes

tumor suppressor genes

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13
Q

what are apolipoproteins and what do they do?

A

proteins that bind lipids to form lipoproteins

they transport lipids in blood, CSF, and lymph

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14
Q

what diseases are caused by apolipoproteins?

A
  • alzeheimer → amyloid beta peptide (APO E)
  • parkinson’s → alpha synuclein (APO D)
  • spongiform encephalopathies → prion proteins (APO E)
  • familial amyloiditic polyneuropathy → transthyretin (APO A)
  • huntington’s → polyQ
  • familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis → superoxide dismutase 1
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15
Q

define autophagy

A

destruction of damaged cellular components occuring in vacuoles within the cell

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16
Q

what is the role of the cytoskeleton in membrane traffic?

A

provides support and directionality

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17
Q

compare and contrast:

prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A
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18
Q

compare and contrast:

gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A
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19
Q

what are the different bacterial structures and what are their functions?

A
  • pili → genetic exchange (conjugation)
  • fimbrae → adhesins (attachment)/biofilm formation/hemagglutination
  • flagella → motor movement/flagellin protein
  • S-layer → increase robust/permeability barrier
  • capsule/slime → barrier against antibacterials/dessication-phagocyte protection
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20
Q

what is the extracellular polysaccharide in

(1) pseudomonas aueriginosa
(2) leuconostoc mesateronides

A
  1. alginate
  2. dextran
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21
Q

what is the function of dextran

A

provides protection against external environment

enhances adhesion to solid surfaces

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22
Q

how do bacteria divide and grow?

A

most bacteria reproduce by binary fission

bacterial growth: change in population rather than size or mass

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23
Q

what is binary fission?

A

division into two identical daughter cells

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24
Q

what are the growth requirements for bacteria?

A
  • warmth
  • moist (water)
  • proteins
  • neutral or slightly acidic pH
  • oxygen
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25
what is microbial enumeration test?
quantative test that determines the total aerobic microbial count and total yeast and mold count present in test product
26
what are the methods available for microorganism enumeration?
* direct * indirect * viable * total cell count * **_RMM:_** * growth based * direct measurement * cell component analysis
27
what bacterial classes are there
1. spherical (cocci) 2. rod (bacilli) 3. spiral (spirilla) 4. coma (vibrois) 5. corkscrew (spirochaetes)
28
why is bacterial identification important
because it is essential for correct diagnosis and treatment and trace back of disease outbreaks
29
what are some traditional and modern identification methods?
**traditionals:** * cultivation (growth requirement) * cultivation (selective agar) * biochemical profiling **New/rapid:** * serological testing * nucleic acid techniques * MALDI TOF
30
draw a bacterial spore structure
31
how do sporulation and germination occur?
Spore is metabolically dormant structure produced during unfavorable condition by the process called sporulation. Sporulation occur during late log phase or early stationary phase. Under favorable condition spores germinate to give vegetative cell.
32
why are spores resistant to antimicrobials?
because they are highly dehydrated with no metabolic activity and their constituents of small acid soluble proteins dipicolinic acid and their multilayered structure
33
true or false most spore forming bacteria are gram positive
true
34
define sterilization
process that kills all microorganisms including spores
35
which antibiotics are most likely to cause c.diff?
broad spectrum antibiotics like: cephalosporins/fluoroquinolones/ampicillin/amoxicillin/clindamycin
36
explain the cell cycle of chlamydia
* they alternate between infectious extracellular elementary body and reticulate body * elementary bodies enter mucosal cells and differentiate to reticulate bodies in membrane bound compartment * replication occurs, reticulate bodies redifferentiate into elementary bodies and released from host cell to infect other cells
37
what are the features of mycobacteria?
* hydrophobic cell wall, peptidoglycan linked to arabinogalactan esterfied to mycolic acid * lipids 25% of dry weight * mycolic acid, high molecular weight (3 hydroxy fatty acid) * cord factor, parallel alignment of rows of bacilli
38
what treatments are available for TB
* isoniazid * rifampicin * pyrazinamide * ethambutol
39
what are the common routes of infection?
* direct contact * fomites * aerosols * oral * vector borne
40
what is the normal flora?
microbes that are both helpful and potentially harmful occupying the a habitat (human)
41
what is a virulence factor?
microbial product that contributes to virulence
42
what is virulence?
intensity of pathogenicity of an organism
43
what are toxins?
substance of organisms that damage the host
44
what is an opportunistic pathogen?
organism that becomes pathogenic following a perturbation to a host / disruption of microflora
45
what is the difference between endotoxin and exotoxins?
endotoxins are toxic at high doses whereas exotoxins are can be extremely toxic at low doses. endotoxins are released when bacterial cell dies exotoxins produced during growth/division
46
what exotoxins are there?
neurotoxins enterotoxins cytotoxins
47
what is the toxic molecule of gram negative?
lipopolysaccharide molecule (Lipid A)
48
what's the difference between DNA and RNA
49
what's the difference between DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase
50
what factors affect antimicrobial treatment?
* bacterial status (resistance/biofilm/susceptibility) * antimicrobial concentration and subinhibitory concentration * host factors (serum effect/gut impact)
51
what are mycoses?
infections caused by fungus invading tissues and causing, superficial/subcutaneuous/systemic infections
52
where is candida present in the normal flora?
mouth skin intestine
53
draw the structure of a yeast cell
54
draw a yeast/fungi cell wall
55
how do yeast cells reproduce?
budding, whereby mother cell grows a protrusion (bud) until it's the same size as the mother cell and splits from it
56
what antifungal drugs are there?
polyene: nyastatin + amphoterecin B azole: itraconazole + ketoconazole echinocandins: caspofungin/micafungin/anudiulafungin synthetic: flucytosine
57
what are dermatomycoses?
fungal skin, hair, or nail infections by dermatophytes (ringworm)
58
what is aspergillosis?
fungal infection caused by aspergillus a common mold that lives both indoors and outdoors
59
describe the structure if mold and draw it
long branched thread-like filaments of hyphae that form mycelium
60
explain how mold reproduces sexually and asexually
molds reproduce sexually when they are starved, in which 4 haploid cells fuse into two and further into one (increase genetic diversity/survival) they reproduce asexually when there's plentiful food supply, producing 2 identical daughter diploid cells
61
give examples of viruses that use the following transmission means direct contact airborne food/water arthropod
direct contact → aids/hiv/hsv/hpv/leukemia/hepatitis b/c airborne → chickenpox/influenza/measles/mumps/rubella/corona food/water → gastroenteritis/norovirus/hepatitis A/poliomyelitis arthropod → yellow fever
62
describe the basic structure of viruses
nucleic acid covered by capsid forming the nucleocapsid, with an envelope covering it along with viral receptors
63
what are the general steps of viral replication?
1. attachment and penetration 2. macromolecular synthesis 3. assembly of progeny virions and release from host cell
64
describe structure of influenza
spherical with an outer lipid membrane (envelope) derived from host cell
65
what are the spike like protrusions on influenza virus
hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA)
66
what is the difference in antigenic drift and antigenic shift?
antigenic drift: two virus strains infect the same cell and mix during assembly of new viruses e.g. h3n2+h5n1=h5n2 antigenic drift: small changes in the virus over a period of time, producing new strains not recognized by immune system and are difficult to treat/vaccinate
67
how does influenza replicate inside host cell
influenza is a single stranded negative sense RNA virus, they have genomes which consist of more than 1 RNA viruses, transcription results in unique mRNA for each protein rather than a single polycistemic mRNA
68
define reassortment
process by which influenza viruses swap gene segments
69
how do herpes viruses replicate
herpes viruses are DNA containing viruses, which means they make mRNA using strategies similar to host cell replication, in which DNA is transcribed into mRNA in the host cell nucleus with host cell enzymes resulting in early and late transcripts that encode for structural proteins and those required for replication
70
what is herpes latent and productive infection?
**_productive infection:_** Following primary infection, the virus replicates productively within mucosal epithelial cells and enters sensory neurones via nerve termini **_latent infection:_** e virus is then transported to neuronal cell bodies where latency can be established (it can reactivate and generate new virus progeny when transported back to periphery)
71
explain how herpes viruses reactivate
* initiation of viral lytic gene expression * newly formed capsids are transported to axonal termini * infectious virus released from axon and infects epithelial cell resulting in recurrent infection and virus shedding
72
what type of viruses are corona viruses
single stranded positive sense RNA
73
what enzymes does corona use in replication
RNA dependent RNA polymerase
74
what causes RNA-RNA recombination in corona
high intrinsic error rate, introducing multiple nucleotide changes, jump across templates
75
what mediates RNA proofreading
viral RNA exonuclease
76
what accounts for the highly diverse populations in viruses like corona?
the combination of RNA recombination due to high polymerase error and regulated replication fidelity favors the generation of recombinant and highly diverse viruses
77
how is SARS-COV-2 transmitted?
close contact
78
what is viral shedding?
release of virus progeny after assembly in host cell
79
what is SARS and what are the subtypes?
it stands for severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) that is a viral respiratory disease caused by coronaviruses
80
what type of virus is corona?
enveloped, positive sense RNA virus
81
how do antivirals affect viral processes in HIV?
zidovudine, is a reverse transcriptase inhibitors, It inhibits the activity of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase (RT) via DNA chain termination after incorporation of the nucleotide analogue. It competes with the natural substrate dGTP and incorporates itself into viral DNA.
82
how does HIV replicate?
uses CD4+ cells to replicate, The retroviruses, such as HIV, contain single-stranded positive-sense RNA but employ a unique replicative strategy using a DNA intermediate. Viral positive-sense RNA serves as a template for a virion-associated RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase). The DNA is then integrated into host chromosomal DNA, where it resides for the life of the cell. Transcription of the integrated viral DNA, like transcription of host cell genes, is carried out by host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
83
what is HIV and AIDS?
HIV is a retrovirus that primarily infects CD4+ cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells aids: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome that describes life threatening infections occurring due to damaged immune system caused by HIV
84
what is the CD4+ count of AIDS
below 200 cells per microlitre
85
viruses are mainly diagnosed by symptoms and clinical manifestations, what tests can be done to confirm diagnosis?
direct/indirect: isolation (immunofluoroescence)/ antigens/antibodies/PCR biological specimens: nasopharynx swab/throat swab/rectal swab/eye swab/ lesion swab
86
what is malaria
unicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic microorganism that are sometimes parasitic depending on the life stage found in aqueous environments and they are transmitted via arthropod vectors
87
define helminths
parasitic worms such as flukes and tapeworm
88
what diseases are caused by helminths?
schistosomiasis lymphatic filariasis cysticercosis onchocerciases
89
what is the role of microbiome?
metabolism → biochemical pathway for non digestible foods (cellulose/gum/hemicellulose/pectins). synthesize vitamins k and b12 and develop caucum immune development: produce antimicrobials (fatty acids/peroxides) and compete for nutrient sites in sites of attachment in the gut preventing colonization gut-brain-axis → stress influences microbiota composition and integrity of gut epithelium
90
what diseases result from the disruption of normal microflora?
inflammatory bowel syndrome obesity/diabetes 2 atopic eczema and allergies
91
what are probiotics
microorganisms believed to provide health benefits when consumed
92
what are the sources of contamination?
* contaminated manure * irrigation water * soil * livestock/wildlife
93
how can you minimize, control or eliminate contamination?
water → chemical treatment NaCl/membrane filtration/UV irradiation 250nm/heating 80c operator → gloves/good hygiene/cover when sneezing buildings → good ventilation/disinfectant/filtration/floor cleaning/avoid drainage in manufactures/dusting packages → maintain integrity (shelf-life)/safe delivery equipment → sterilizaition/disinfection/disposable (single use) air → filtration (HEPA)/chemical disinfection/UV radiation
94
what are the benefits of microbes
* transform heavy metals like mercury to non toxic form * petroleum biodegradation * xenobiotic degradation
95
how have microorganisms been harnessed for various purposes?
* leuconostoc bacteria can produce dextran from sucrose which is an antithrombotic that improves tissue function * clostridium botilinum produces botilinum toxin that is used in minute amounts in the cosmetic industry to prevent wrinkles and to treat dystonia * bacillus sphaericus produce 51 & 42 kDA which are toxic to larvae and used in waters where larvae develop
96
Describe the stereochemistry of amino acids
Almost all amino acids contain a chiral centre on the alpha carbon. All naturally occurring amino acids have L-stereochemistry, i.e. they have the same configuration as the reference compound glyceraldehyde. D-amino acids are very rare, and are the product of biosynthesis
97
Explain what is unusual about the stereochemistry of glycine. Explain your answer
Glycine has no chiral centre and therefore cannot exist in L/D-forms. The alpha carbon does not have four non-identical groups attached, two are hydrogen (i.e. identical
98
Explain how i) acidic and ii) basic conditions would affect the amino acids shown
Acidic conditions will protonate the basic side chain of Lys, becoming positively charged. Basic conditions will deprotonate the acidic carboxylic acid group, becoming negatively charged. (You could also, or might be asked, to draw the resulting structures
99
Provide a concise definition of a peptide
A small protein containing 50 or less amino acid residues
100
Briefly describe the nomenclature of peptides
Peptides should be named, using three letter or single letter amino acid abbreviations starting from the N-terminal residue and listing sequentially to the C-terminal. Abbreviations separated by dashes.
101
Consider the decapeptide (below) and answer the following questions: Lys-Ala-Val-Ala-Leu-Ser-Ile-Leu-Val-Asp a) Name the N-terminal amino acid. b) Name the C-terminal amino acid.
a. Lysine b. Aspartic acid
102
Lys-Ala-Val-Ala-Leu-Ser-Ile-Leu-Val-Asp State the side chain property of each amino acid in the peptide
Lys – basic Ala, Val, Leu and Ile – hydrophobic Ser – polar; Asp – Acidic
103
Lys-Ala-Val-Ala-Leu-Ser-Ile-Leu-Val-Asp How you would expect this peptide to fold in an aqueous solution? Fully explain your answer and include a rough sketch of this conformation.
in an aqueous environment, hydrophobic residues e.g. Ala, Val etc would be folded away from water into the interior of the protein. Hydrophilic residues, e.g. Ser, would face the solvent. Charged side chains would form an interaction where possible.
104
Lys-Ala-Val-Ala-Leu-Ser-Ile-Leu-Val-Asp Would you predict this peptide to be water soluble? Briefly explain your answer
Will have some water solubility, although mostly non-polar amino acids there are three polar aa’s, two of which form a salt. OR – will not be soluble in water as 7 non-polar aa’s versus 3 polar.
105
describe the structure of a globular protein
Compact (tightly folded), roughly spherical, structurally complex, comprised of many elements of secondary structure, e.g. alpha helix, beta sheet, often clearly defined active site / cleft, internal bonding to maintain structure, e.g. disulfide bridges
106
give an example of a globular protein
trypsin (all enzymes)
107
Describe the general properties of a globular protein.
Hydrophobic interior, hydrophilic exterior, water soluble, often function as catalysts
108
Describe how the three-dimensional structure of a globular protein is maintained.
ionic interactions, hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic interactions, covalent crosslinks
109
true or false the alpha helix is a double helix
false The alpha helix is a single peptide backbone coiled around itself and stabilised by intra-strand H-bonds. [By contrast, DNA is an example of a double helix – two chains stabilised by inter-strand H-bonds]
110
true or false The native conformation is the biologically active form of a protein.
true All proteins fold spontaneously into a conformation that is biological active
111
true or false The peptide bond usually adopts a trans conformation
true Cis-amide bonds force unfavourable steric interactions between aa side chains and are not commonly found in proteins
112
true or false parallel beta sheets are more stable than antiparallel beta sheets
false Anti-parallel beta sheets are more stable – the network of inter-strand H-bonds are better aligned and more stable in the anti-parallel type.
113
what is Native conformation
Proteins do not exist as a linear conformation of amino acids (the primary sequence) they fold very specifically into a specific conformation called the native conformations. This is generally the biologically active form of the protein
114
what is alpha Helix
. Alpha helix important form of secondary protein structure. Single polypeptide strand coiled in a tight helix excluding water from the centre. + + Describe properties and H-bonding network etc. Some proteins composed exclusively of a-helix, usually as coils of coils, e.g. keratin, collagen. Also common in membrane spanning receptors
115
what is a Non-essential amino acid.
An amino acid that can be biosynthesized with the body and therefore is not essential in the diet. E.g. Ala, Gly, Pro, Ser etc. It requires energy and raw materials to synthesize aa’s so in practice these are obtained from diet whenever possible
116
what is a Cyclic peptide
A polypeptide joined via an amide (peptide) bond between the N and C terminal amino acids creating a continuous cyclic peptide backbone. Have pharmaceutical use. E.g. ciclosporin, a microbial cyclic peptide that contains non-coding biosynthesized amino acids. When non-amino acid groups are incorporated known as a pseudo-peptide
117
Very briefly describe how enzymes function as catalysts
…by lowering the activation energy barrier to the reaction. Achieved by precise orientation of the substrate in the active site in a reactive conformation and provide missing functional groups or cofactors for the reaction. Enzymes provide the reaction ‘template’.
118
Briefly describe how enzymes are named and classified. Illustrate your answer with suitable examples
Two methods, trivial and systematic. Trivial – name associated with the function or substrate (or both) is suffixed with –ase. E.g. L-dopa decarboxylase or DNA polymerase. Systematic system (enzyme commission: EC) assigns a unique serial number comprised of 4 digits. First digit is one of the six classes (list them) followed by two sets of sub classes and finally the unique identifier, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase = EC1.1.1.1.
119
Many enzymes require cofactors for their biological function. Discuss this statement using alcohol dehydrogenase and another enzyme of your choice to illustrate your answer.
The 20 amino acids that occur naturally in proteins have limited functional groups / chemistry in their side chains. Co-factors, which can be metal ions or organic molecules (co-enzymes) supply this chemistry. Alcohol dehydrogenase uses two co-factors, a zinc ion and a NAD+ coenzyme. The zinc aligns the substrate in the active site to the –OH group. The NAD+ contains a functional group that accepts a proton (i.e. dehydrogenation). Could also include a sketch? Another example could be L-Dopa decarboxylase. The enzyme uses a co-enzyme (pyridoxal phosphate/vitB6) to facilitate the removal of a carboxylic acid. The co-enzyme contains an aldehyde functional group – not found in amino acids – to form an intermediate (imine) with the substrate etc etc
120
Briefly discuss the importance of metals in protein function. Give one example of a protein that requires a metal atom to function
Proteins containing metal ions are known as metalloproteins or metalloenzymes if they have a catalytic function. The 20 amino acids that occur naturally in proteins have limited functional groups / chemistry in their side chains. Co-factors, which can be metal ions or organic molecules (co-enzymes) supply this chemistry. Metals are important in transport proteins (e.g. haemoglobin, Fe required to bind, store then release O2, four Fe atoms held in 4 prosthetic haem groups etc etc). Alcohol dehydrogenase and Zn etc etc
121
what are the products of the following: glycolysis pyruvate → acetyl coa krebs cycle
glycolysis: 2 pyruvate + 2ATP +2 NADH pyruvate → acetyl coa: 2 NADH per glucose krebs: coa to co2+ 2GTP + 6NADH + 2 FADH2
122
define fatty acid
occur as esters in natural fats and oils and FFA in blood
123
what's the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acid?
saturated: no double bonds in acyl chains, end in anoic e.g butyric acid unsaturated: 1 to several double bonds in acyl chain, end in enoic e.g. oleic acid
124
what's the difference between fat and oil
fats have more/all available bonding sites TAKEN UP by Hydrogen (saturated). whereas, oils have fewer hydrogens on the account of double bonds (unsaturated) they are also liquid at room temperature
125
what is a liposome?
a minute spherical sac of phospholipid molecules enclosing a water droplet, especially as formed artificially to carry drugs or other substances into the tissues.
126
what is a micelle?
ggregate of surfactant phospholipid molecules dispersed in a liquid, forming a colloidal suspension.
127
what is the basic structure of a phospholipid
glycerol phosphate fatty acid side chain
128
briefly describe the following and their funtion cytoplasm/cytosol/mitochondria/peroxisomes/nucleus/lysosomes/ER/Golgi
cytoplasm → contains all cell organelles except nucleus cytosol → densely packed aqueous gel, protein synthesis mitochondria → cellular respiration/apoprosis/oxidative phosphorylation lysosomes → cellular digestion/enzyme function site peroxisomes → site of oxygen utilization nucleus → DNA/RNA synthesis ER → lipid synthesis/protein distribution Golgi → modification/sorting/packaging of proteins + delivery and secretion lysosomes → cellular digestion
129
is oxygen needed to produce ATP
Without oxygen, organisms can split glucose into just two molecules of pyruvate. This releases only enough energy to make two ATP molecules. **With oxygen, organisms can break down glucose all the way to carbon dioxide.** **This releases enough energy to produce up to 38 ATP molecules**