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BDS4 past papers > Mock past papers > Flashcards

Mock past papers Flashcards

1
Q

2 ways to drain a abscess

A

Incise and drain

Drain through periodontal pocket

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2
Q

What are 4 potential reasons for the debonding of a bridge clinically

A

Unfavourable occlusion

Insufficient coverage with adhesive wing for bonding

Poor enamel quality of abutments

Inadequate moisture control during cementation

Caries

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3
Q

Cite 4 methods of checking of bridge debonding clinically

A

Pressing on the pontic and looking for movement of adhesive wings

Pressing on the adhesive wings and looking for bubbling of saliva at the wing/tooth interface

Explore the margins with a probe looking for defects, and place probe under pontic and apply coronal pressure, looking for movement in adhesive wings

Try and pass floss underneath the adhesive wings

Radiograph

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4
Q

2 General and local factors that should be considered before implants

A

General
-Any head and neck cancer treatment (radiotherapy), –Any bisphosphonates, diabetes

Local
-Bone height
-space available between existing teeth
-any rotations or drifting of teeth
-smoking status
-OH

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5
Q

State 2 potential complications of extracting a tooth that is in close proximity to the Inferior alveolar canal

A

IAN paraesthesia

IAN dyaesthesia

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6
Q

Name 2 scenarios where there would be an increased risk of bleeding for a patient and 2 post- operative methods of achieving haemostasis

A

-Anticoagulant/antiplatelet therapy
-Alcoholic liver disease

-Damp gauze and pressure
-Surgicel and suturing margins
-LA with vasoconstrictor
-Diathermy

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7
Q

List 6 signs/symptoms of TMD

A

Pain

MoM hypertrophy

MoM tenderness

Clicking, popping, crepitus at TMJ

Linea alba

Tongue scalloping

Tooth wear (attrition)

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8
Q

5 points of conservative advice you would give to a pt with TMD

A

Stop any parafunctional habits

No chewing gum

Cut foods into small pieces

Do not incise foods

Avoid hard and sticky foods

Chew bilaterally

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9
Q

Define indirect retention

A

Use of supportive components to resist rotational forces, components are placed at 90º to the clasp axis and on opposite side from dislodging force

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10
Q

Describe Desquamative gingivitis

A

A clinically descriptive term to describe severely erythematous and ulcerated gingiva caused a number of conditions or allergies, inflammation can extend beyond the mucogingival junction

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11
Q

Name three conditions that you would see Desquamative gingivitis

A

Lichen planus
Pemphigus
Pemphigoid

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12
Q

Describe how you would manage Desquamative gingivits

A

Biopsy an area of mucosa and use immunofluorescence and histological analysis to determine the cause

6PPC where indicated, OHI

Diet advice and SLS free toothpaste

Betamethasone mouth rinse

Tacrolimus ointment

Systemic corticosteroids to prevent any new lesions from forming (prednisalone)

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13
Q

A patient presents at your practice with a large discoloured swelling
Name 3 local and 3 generalised causes of pigmentation

A

Local
-Malignant melanoma
-Melanocytic neavus
-Amalgam tattoo
-Haemangioma

Generalised
-Racial pigmentation
-Addison’s/cushings disease
-Smoking

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14
Q

Name 2 types of haemangioma and give 2 histological differences between the two

A

Types
-Capillary
-Cavernous

Cavernous is encapsulated and capillary is not

Cavernous is dilated vascular space and capillary is thin walled capillaries

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15
Q

Name 4 key personnel involved in the Decontamination process and give a description of each of their roles

A

Operator
-Responsible for day to day operations, recording machine readings

User
-Responsible for daily testing and maintenance of records

Manager
-Ultimately responsible for running of LDU and release of instruments fit for use

Engineer
-Annual and quarterly testing of the machines and any maintenance

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16
Q

What type of water is used for the final rinse cycle and why use this as opposed to mains water

A

Deionised

Mains water has minerals present in it which can
Damage instruments
Cause limescale build up
Give a roughened surface for bacteria to adhere to

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17
Q

Describe the appearance of dental fluorosis

A

Diffuse chalky discolouration, symmetrical

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18
Q

What is the local action of fluoride in the oral cavity

A

Promotes remineralisation of any demineralised enamel and forms fluoroapetite which has a higher erosion resistance

Inhibits bacterial metabolism and acid production

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19
Q

Give the best treatment option for fluorosis and 2 advantages of this treatment

A

Microabrasion
-Conservative, only removing 100 microns of enamel
-Results are permanent

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20
Q

Name 4 pre-disposing factors for Pseudomembranous candidosis, 2 local and 2 medical

A

Local
-Use of a corticosteroid inhaler
-Removable prosthesis (ie URA for this patient)

Systemic
-Diabetes
-Systemic immunosuppressive treatment
-Immunosuppression side effect of treatment (ie chemotherapy)

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21
Q

You take an oral swab and an oral rinse; give an advantage and disadvantage of each

A

Swab
-Site specific
-Not quantitative

Rinse
-Quantitative
-Not site specific

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22
Q

Name you first-line medication for Pseudomembranous candidosis, state 2 drugs that it interacts with and the nature of
their interaction

A

Fluconazole
-Warfarin will interact to cause an increased risk of bleeding
-Statins can cause muscle death and rhabdomyolysis

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23
Q

Describe how Porcelain is treated to improve its retention

A

Sandblasting of fitting surface and hydrofluoric acid to etch the surface and then silane coupling agent applied

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24
Q

Name 2 luting cements, other than resin based, that could be used to bond this crown should you proceed with her request

A

RMGIC/GIC

Zinc polycarboxylate

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25
Q

Describe how a resin based luting cement bonds to porcelain

A

Silane coupling agent bonds with the oxides present in the porcelain, it also has a C=C end of the molecule, rendering the surface hydrophobic and allowing the resin based agent to bond to the surface

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26
Q

Name one advantage to placing a crown as a posterior restoration

A

Cuspal coverage to provide support and protection for the remaining tooth tissue

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27
Q

A patient is referred to your practice to have a large MOD amalgam in their 46 replaced you successfully replace it with composite patient attends 5 days later complaining on pain when biting up and down and to transient thermal stimuli

Give 5 potential causes of these symptoms

A

Cracked tooth/cusp syndrome

Residual resin monomer causing pulpal inflammation

Pulpal damage due to excessive heat production during cavity preparation

High restoration causing premature occlusal contact

Uncured HEMA expanding due to moisture

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28
Q

A patient is referred to your practice to have a large MOD amalgam in their 46 replaced you successfully replace it with composite patient attends 5 days later complaining on pain when biting up and down and to transient thermal stimuli

Give 5 restorative features that could prevent this from occurring

A

Low configuration factor to prevent polymerisation shrinkage stresses

Incremental placement to prevent soggy bottom

Ensure bur cooled by water on high speed

Check occlusion after placement using articulating paper

Ensure an appropriate curing regime is used

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29
Q

The mother of one of you young patients phones your practice, stating that her son has ingested fluoride toothpaste and she is worried.

What three questions should you ask mum

A

What is the fluoride strength of the toothpaste

How much of the toothpaste did the child ingest

What is the weight of the child

30
Q

What is the most common cause of fluorosis in the UK

A

Water

31
Q

If the patient is 10 with fluorosis what would you first line of treatment be

A

microabrasion

32
Q

Please provide the fluoride supplement values for the following patients, all living in an area of <0.3ppm fluoridated water

age 1, 4 and 7

A

Age 1- 0.25mg per day

Age 4- 0.5mg per day

Age7- 1mg per day

33
Q

Give 3 diagnostic features of a subluxation

A

Tooth has not been displaced in the socket

Increased mobility of the tooth

Bleeding from the gingival sulcus

34
Q

What type of splint would you place for a subluxation and for how long

A

Flexible splint

2 weeks

35
Q

When would you review a subluxation patient

A

2 weeks for splint removal

1 month

3 months

6 months

6 monthly for 2 years

36
Q

Name 2 features you would be assessing radiographically of a subluxation

A

Forming of any periapical lesion (widening of the PDL)

Initiation of inflammatory resorption

37
Q

How would internal inflammatory root resorption present both clinically, radiographically, what would it indicate about the tooth, what medicament would you place to attempt to halt resorption

A

Asymptomatic

Ballooned, irregular shaped canal

Non setting calcium hydroxide

38
Q

As a member of the dental profession, CPD is one of the standards of practice.
Under clinical Governance, how many hours of CPD are to be done in a 5 year cycle and How many are to be verifiable

A

100 verifiable hours

39
Q

What are the components of Clinical Governance

A

Research and development

Education and training

Clinical effectiveness

Risk management

Openness
Clinical audit

40
Q

What are the dimensions of healthcare quality

A

Patient centred

Safe

Effective

Efficient

Equitable

Timely

41
Q

Name 3 possible complications associated with the extraction of a lone-standing upper molar

A

OAC/OAF

Tuberosity fracture

Root displaced into the maxillary antrum

42
Q

Diagnose OAC/OAF, Tuberosity fracture and Root displaced into the maxillary antrum

A

OAC
-Bubbling of blood in the socket
-Good light and suction, direct vision (echoing of the suction)
-Nose holding and explore with blunt probe (may cause OAC)
-Bone present at the trifurcation of the roots post XLA

Fractured tuberosity
-Crack felt/heard during mobilisation of the tooth
-Tear in the palate
-Mobility of the ridge and tuberosity palpable

Root in antrum
-Good suction and irrigation and visually assess
-Radiograph may show root placed in the antrum
-CBCT

43
Q

Give 3 uses of URA other than tipping and tilting teeth

A

Habit breaker

Retainer

Growth modification

Overbite reduction

44
Q

What 4 risk factors pre-dispose someone to ANUG

A

Smoking

Poor OH

Stress

Malnutrition

45
Q

A patient arrives at your practice with a debonded gold post and core crown

Give three potential reasons why this post and core may have debonded

A

Secondary caries

Poor moisture control during cementation

Root fracture

46
Q

There is a fracture at junction of the post and core, give three reasons why this may have happened

A

Biocorrosion

Lack of sufficient ferrule

Trauma

47
Q

Name 3 ways of retrieving a fractured post

A

Ultrasonic tip
Eggler forceps
Moskito forceps

48
Q

2 alternative Tx to missing teeth besides implants

A

Resin bonded bridge

RPD

Essex retainer

49
Q

3 general factors considered before implants

A

The pt undrstands what is likely to be involved and is willing to comply with tx

Good OH

Smoking

Cost

Lack of viable bone or alternatively availabilty of suitable bone

Perio history

History of contact sports

50
Q

3 factors local to a proposed implant area that should be assessed

A

Bone height

Bone width

Root position

Soft tissue adequacy

Smile line

Gingival biotype

Local perio health

51
Q

3 potentional complications to warn patients about implants

A

Implant failure

Peri-implantitis

Peri-implant mucositis

Screw failure

Recession

52
Q

Why are lower incisors more ar risk of gingival recession

A

Think gingival biotype

Thin buccal plate

53
Q

Other S&S from Gingival recession

A

Poor aesthetics

Root caries

dentine hypersensitivity

54
Q

What do you want to know about a enamel dentine pulp fracture before you decide on Tx

A

Size of exposure

When injury occured

55
Q

Stages of pulpotomy

A

Apply dam and LA

Remove pulp tissue 2-3mm around exposed area

Assess bleeding and if no bleeding remove more tissue and if gushing dark red bleeding

Gain haemorrhage control using saline soaked cotton rool

Asess nleeding and if hyperanemic remove more

Once normal bleeding stopped apply non-setting CaOH and seal with GI and restore

56
Q

What are favorable signs on a radiograph that pulp has stayed vital

A

Continued root development

Continued thickening of dentine

Apical devlopment

No pathology

57
Q

A puloptemy didnt what to do now

A

Dental dam and LA

endo access and pulp extirpation

Dress with CaOH

Immmediate referral to paeds

MTA placed for apexification

58
Q

4 ways MRONJ can be prevented

A

Pt education

OHI

Make pt dentally fit before Drug Tx

smoking cessation

Non-invasive alternatives eg endo

Remove risk factors

59
Q

10 management options of MRONJ

A

Careful monitoring

Specific OHI in relation to exposed bone areas e.g. irrigation syringes

Antiseptic MW

Ocassionally antibiotics

Primary closure where possible

remove any traumatic causes

Consult with GMP if drug replacement or modification wararnted

Symptomatic relief

Topical preperations eg. analgesics

Surgical debridement of dead bone

60
Q

4 histopathological features of minor salivary gland biopsy in sjrogens

A

lymphocytic focus particulary located in the periductal area, each focus 50+ cells with at least 1 every squared4mm

Atrophy of acini

Ductal epithelial hyperplasia

Ductal dilation

Fibrosis

61
Q

Most common maliganancy assoc. wit sjogrens

A

Non-hodgkins lympoma

62
Q

4 URA active components that move teeth

A

palatal finger spring

buccal canine retractor

Z spring

expansion screw

63
Q

Name space maintainers

A

Fixed palatal arch

band and loop

64
Q

In a sterilizer if the sterilization temp. of a cycle achieves 135.2 what is the corresponding pressure range in pressure absolute and the minimumu hold time

A

3.05-3.35 for a minimum of 3 mins

65
Q

Instruments need to be sterile till point of use how is this achieved

A

Instruments wrapped prior to processing in a Type B

66
Q

On a daily basis what 4 bits of info must be recorded from first production cycle

A

Cycle number

Sterilisation hold time

Temp.

Pressure

67
Q

What is the name of the PCD used in first cycle of the day on a vaccum sterilizer and what does it test for

A

Bowie dick pack

Steam penetration

68
Q

4 types of purified water

A

disilled

De-ionised

sterile

reverse osmosis

69
Q

What part of the SHTM 01-01 providers guidance for operating and teseting sterilizers

A

Part C

70
Q

What SICP do we need to know

A

Hand Hygiene
➢Personal Protective Equipment
➢Safe Management of Care Equipment
➢Safe Management of Care Environment
➢Safe Management of Blood and Body Fluid Spillages
➢Safe Disposal of Waste (including sharps)
➢Occupational Safety: Prevention and Exposure Management (including sharps)
➢Respiratory and Cough Hygiene

BDS4 past papers (2 decks)

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