mockboard major Flashcards
makapasar (1 cards)
1
Q
- Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
a. Adipose b. Cartilage c. Nerve d. Epithelial - Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
a. Abdominal b. Spinal c. Cranial d. Thoracic - In which of the following position does a patient lie face down?
a. Dorsal b. Prone c. Erect d. Supine - Which of the following is a structure, fibrous protein found in the dermis?
a. Collagen b. Melanin c. Heparin d. Sebum - Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and interior to the ischium?
a. Calcaneus b. Tibia c. Femur d. Ulna - Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron?
a. Abducens b. Trochlear c. Hypoglossal d. Olfactory - A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery. Which one of the following organs is the most likely to be involved?
a. Appendix b. Urinary Bladder c. Spleen d. Pancreas - Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?
a. Aorta b. Pulmonary veins c. Superior vena cava d. Inferior vena cava - Which of the following orans removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the productions of prothrombin and fibrinogen?
a. Gallbladder b. Spleen c. Stomach d. Liver - By the time food leaves the stomach it is
a. a creamy paste called chime b. rolled into a bolus
c. ready to be mixed with pepsin for protein digestion d. none of the above - Fluid portion of the blood that contains blood cells
a. Plasma b. WBC c. RBC d. Platelets - Blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart
a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Heart - Chamber of the heart that receives blood from the veins
a. Atria b. Aorta c. Ventricles d. All of the above - The parathyroid glands are located
a. below the thyroid, hence the name “para”
b. Above the thyroid, hence the name “para”
c. imbedded in the posterior surface of that thyroid gland
d. distant from the thyroid but named because there are two and they resemble the thyroid glands - Which system is a major source of heat by allowing us to maintain body temperature?
a. Immune system b. Muscular system c. Integumentary system d. Lymphatic system - What is the density of a fluid?
a) The weight per unit volume of the fluid
b) The mass per unit volume of the fluid
c) The force per unit area of the fluid
d) The volume per unit weight of the fluid
Solution: Density 𝜌= Mass/Volume. It is the mass per unit volume. - The specific gravity of a fluid is defined as the ratio of its:
a) Weight to the weight of water
b) Mass to the mass of water
c) Density to the density of water
d) Volume to the volume of water
Solution: Specific gravity (SG) is defined as SG=Density of fluid/Density of water. - If a fluid has a specific gravity of 0.9, it is:
a) Lighter than water
b) Heavier than water
c) The same weight as water
d) Equal in density to air
Solution: A specific gravity of less than 1 indicates the fluid is less dense than water. - The specific volume of a fluid is the:
a) Volume per unit weight of the fluid
b) Mass per unit volume of the fluid
c) Weight per unit volume of the fluid
d) Volume per unit mass of the fluid
Solution: Specific volume is the reciprocal of density: Specific Volume= 1/Density - Which property is inversely proportional to the density of a fluid?
a) Specific weight
b) Specific gravity
c) Specific volume
d) Surface tension
Solution: Specific volume ∝ 1/Density - A fluid has a mass of 300 kg and a volume of 1.5 m³. What is its density?
a) 150 kg/m³ b) 200 kg/m³ c) 300 kg/m³ d) 400 kg/m³
Solution: 𝜌= Mass/Volume = 300/1.5= 200 g=kg/m³ - The density of a fluid is 900 kg/m³. Calculate its specific weight.
a) 8820 N/m³ b) 9000 N/m³ c) 9500 N/m³ d) 9800 N/m³
Solution: Specific Weight =𝜌⋅𝑔 = 900⋅9.8=8820N/m³ - A fluid with a specific gravity of 0.85 has what density?
a) 750 kg/m³ b) 850 kg/m³ c) 950 kg/m³ d) 1000 kg/m³
Solution: Density=SG⋅Density of water=0.85⋅1000=850kg/m³ - A fluid’s volume is 0.25 m³ and its density is 800 kg/m³. Calculate its mass.
a) 200 kg b) 250 kg c) 300 kg d) 320 kg
Solution: Mass=ρ⋅Volume=800⋅0.25=200kg. - A liquid with a specific weight of 10,000 N/m³ occupies 0.2 m³. What is its weight?
a) 1500 N b) 2000 N c) 2500 N d) 3000 N
Solution: Weight=Specific Weight⋅Volume=10,000⋅0.2=2000N. - A tank contains 2 m³ of oil with a specific gravity of 0.92. Calculate its weight.
a) 14,336 N b) 16,000 N c) 18,032 N d) 19,600 N
Solution: Density=SG⋅1000=0.92⋅1000=920kg/m³ Weight=ρ⋅g⋅Volume=920⋅9.8⋅2=14,336N - The mass of a liquid is 500 kg, and its volume is 0.6 m³. Calculate its specific volume.
a) 0.002 m³/kg b) 0.012 m³/kg c) 0.0012 m³/kg d) 1.2 m³/kg
Solution: Specific Volume= Volume/Mass = 0.6/500 =1.2m³/kg. - A liquid has a density of 950 kg/m³. Calculate its specific weight.
a) 8800 N/m³ b) 9300 N/m³ c) 9500 N/m³ d) 9800 N/m³
Solution: Specific Weight=ρ⋅g=950⋅9.8=9500N/m³ - A fluid has a specific weight of 7000 N/m³. Calculate its density.
a) 690 kg/m³ b) 700 kg/m³ c) 714 kg/m³ d) 725 kg/m³
Solution: Specific Weight/g = 7000/9.8 ≈714kg/m³. - A tank holds 100 L of oil with a density of 800 kg/m³. Calculate its weight.
a) 785 N b) 800 N c) 820 N d) 860 N
Solution: Mass=ρ⋅Volume=800⋅0.1=80kg Weight=Mass⋅g=80⋅9.8=785N - Which of the following is the correct dimensional formula for energy?
[MLT][MLT-2}] [ML2T−2] not sure - If x has dimensions of [L2T-1] and y has dimensions of [L3T2], what are the dimensions of the quantity x/y?
[L−1T−3] [ L−1T−3] not sure - What is the main difference between scalar and vector quantities?
a) Scalar quantities have direction, while vector quantities have magnitude.
b) Scalar quantities have magnitude, while vector quantities have direction.
c) Scalar quantities can be negative, while vector quantities cannot.
d) Vector quantities are always greater than scalar quantities. - Which of the following is an example of an object in equilibrium?
a) A car moving at a constant speed b) A book resting on a table
c) A plane accelerating upwards d) A ball thrown in the air - In which situation does an object experience zero net force?
a) When it is accelerating b) When it is moving at a constant speed in a straight line
c) When it is at rest d) Both b and c - What is the equivalent of 0.025 nanoseconds (ns) in seconds (s)?
a) 2.5 * 10 ^ - 8 * s b) 2.5 * 10 ^ - 9 * s c) 2.5 * 10 ^ - 10 * s d) 2.5 * 10 ^ - 7 * s
Solution: 1ns=10^ 9s, so 0.025 ns=0.025×10^ 9=2.5×10^ 9 s - Convert 75 gigabytes (GB) to bytes (B).
а) 7.5 * 10 ^ 7 * B b) 7.5 * 10 ^ 8 * B c) 7.5 * 10 ^ 9 * B d) 7.5 * 10 ^ 10 * B
Solution: 1GB=10^ 9B, so 75 GB=75×10^ 9=7.5×10^ 9 - A chemical reaction releases 3.2 * 10 ^ 3 joules of energy. How many millijoules (ml) does this correspond to?
a) 3.2 * 10 ^ 6 * mJ b) 3.2 * 10 ^ 5 * mJ c) 3.2 * 10 ^ 4 * mJ d) 3.2 * 10 ^ 2 * Mj
Solution: 1km=10^3mJ, so 3.2×10^ 3 J=3.2×10^ 6 mJ - What is the equivalent of 3.5 kilometers per second (km/s) in micrometers per second (µm/s)?
a) 3.5 * 10 ^ 9 * mum / s b) 3.5 * 10 ^ 6 * mum / s
c) 3.5 * 10 ^ 3 * mum / s d) 3.5 * 10 ^ 12 * mum / s
Solution: 1km=10^ 6μm, so 3.5 km/s=3.5×10^ 6×10^ 3=3.5×10^ 9 - Convert 1.2 * 10 ^ 4 micrometers (µm) to kilometers (km)
a) 1.2 * 10 ^ - 3 * km b) 1.2 * 10 ^ - 5 * km c) 1.2 * 10 ^ - 7 * km d) 1.2 * 10 ^ - 9 * km
Solution: 1μm=10−6m and 1km=10^ 3m, so: 1.2×10^4 μm=1.2×10^ 4×10^ 6×10^ 3=1.2×10^ 5 km - A force F of magnitude 100 N acts at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. What are the components of the force in the horizontal and vertical directions?
a) F_{x} = 50N F_{y} = 50N b) F_{x} = 100N F_{y} = 0N
c) F_{x} = 100N F_{y} = 100N d) F_{x} = 86.6N F_{y} = 50N e) F_{x} = 50N F_{y} = 86.6N
Solution: Fx=Fcos(30∘)=100⋅0.866=86.6N, Fy=Fsin(30∘)=100⋅0.5=50N. - A force of 200 N is applied at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. Which of the following is the correct vector form for the components of the force?
a) Fx = 200i + 200j b) Fx = 173.2i + 100j
c) Fx = 100i + 173.2j d) Fx = 200i + 100j e) Fx = 100i + 200j
Solution: Fx=200cos(30∘)=173.2,Fy=200sin(30∘)=100. - A 100 N force acts at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the vertical component of the force?
a) 100 cos 60° b) 100 sin 60° c) 100 N d) 50 N e) 100 cos 30°
Solution: Vertical component is Fy=Fsin(60∘)=100⋅0.866 - A force of magnitude 250 N is applied at an angle of 120° to the horizontal. Which of the following is the vector form of the components of the force?
a) Fx=-1251i + 216.5j b) Fx= 125i-216.53j c) Fx=-125i-216.53j d) Fx = 250i+2503j e) Fx=-250i+2503j
Solution: Fx=250cos(120∘)=−125,Fy=250sin(120∘)=216.5. - A force of magnitude 300 N is applied at an angle of 90° to the horizontal. Which of the following represents the vector form of the force?
d) F = 0i + 300j
Solution: Horizontal component is zero, and vertical component is Fy=300 - What is the SI unit of Absolute temperatures?
a) Celsius b) Fahrenheit c) Kelvin d) Rankine
Solution: The SI unit for absolute temperature is Kelvin (K) - What is the English unit of Absolute pressures?
a) kg/cm² b) Kpaa c) Atmosphere (atm) d) Psia
Solution: Absolute pressure in English units is measured in pounds per square inch absolute (psia). - The ideal gas law relates which of the following quantities?
a) Volume, pressure, and specific weight b) Temperature, pressure, and volume
c) Density, temperature, and specific heat d) Pressure, viscosity, and volume
Solution: The ideal gas law: PV=nRT, relates pressure (P), volume (V), and temperature (T). - Which statement about absolute zero is correct?
a) It is the point at which all molecular motion ceases. b) It is equivalent to 0°C.
c) It is the temperature at which water freezes. d) It is the boiling point of water.
Solution: Absolute zero is 0 K, where molecular kinetic energy is theoretically zero. - In the ideal gas law, what does the universal gas constant R represent?
a) A substance-specific constant for each gas b) A constant value for all ideal gases
c) The ratio of temperature to pressure d) The volume per mole of gas
Solution: R is the universal gas constant, the same for all ideal gases. - A gas has a pressure of 100 kPa, a volume of 2 m³, and a temperature of 300 K. Calculate the number of moles. (Take R = 8.314 J/mol-K)
a) 8.04 mol b) 8.57 mol c) 9.02 mol d) 9.45 mol
Solution: Using PV=nRTPV n=PV/RT (100×10ˆ3) (2)/8.314⋅300=8.57 mol. - A gas at a pressure of 2 atm occupies 5 L. If the pressure is reduced to 1 atm, what is the new volume, assuming temperature is constant?
a) 2.5 L b) 5 L c) 10 L d) 20 L
Solution: From Boyle’s Law: P1V1=P2V2 V2=P1V1/P2 = 2X5/1= 10L - A gas at a volume of 3 m³ and a temperature of 300 K. What will its volume be at 450 K, assuming pressure remains constant?
a) 2 m³ b) 3 m³ c) 4.5 m³ d) 6 m³
Solution: From Charles’s Law: V1T1=V2T2 V2=V1.T2/T1= 3. 450/300 = 4.5m³ - Calculate the pressure of 2 mol of an ideal gas in a 10 L container at 400 K. (Take R = 0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)
a) 5.48 atm b) 6.57 atm c) 6.85 atm d) 7.29 atm
Solution: Using PV=nRT: P=nRT/V=(2)(0.0821)(400)/10=6.85 atm - A gas has a volume of 4 m³ at a pressure of 300 kPa. If the volume changes to 6 m³, what is the new pressure, assuming temperature is constant?
a) 150 kPa b) 200 kPa c) 250 kPa d) 300 kPa
Solution: From Boyle’s Law: P1V1= P2V2 P2=P1.V1/V2=300⋅4/6=200 kPa - A gas at 273 K and 1 atm occupies 22.4 L. Calculate its volume at 546 K, keeping pressure constant.
a) 11.2 L b) 22.4 L c) 33.6 L d) 44.8 L
From Charles’s Law: V2=V1⋅T2/T1=22.4⋅546/273=44.8 L - A 1.5 m³ tank contains nitrogen gas at 400 kPa and 300 K. Calculate the mass of nitrogen. (Take R = 296 J/kg-K)
a) 5.08 kg b) 6.76 kg c) 8.12 kg d) 9.13 kg
Solution: Using PV = mRT: m=PV/RT= (400×103) (1.5)/296⋅300=5.08kg - The pressure of an ideal gas is tripled while the volume remains constant. If the initial temperature was 300 K, what is the final temperature?
a) 600 K b) 900 K c) 1200 K d) 1500 K
Solution: From Gay-Lussac’s Law: T1/ P1=T2/ P2 T2=T1⋅P2/P1=300⋅3=900 K - A gas occupies 0.1 m³ at 100 kPa. What is its new pressure if the volume decreases to 0.04 m³, assuming temperature is constant?
a) 250 kPa b) 300 kPa c) 400 kPa d) 500 kPa
Solution: From Boyle’s Law: P2=P1.V1/V2=100⋅0.1/0.04=500 kPa - If a gas has a pressure of 200 kPa and a temperature of 400 K, what will its pressure be at 800 K with volume Constant
a) 300 kPa b) 400 kPa c) 500 kPa d) 600 kPa
Solution: From Gay-Lussac’s Law: P2=P1⋅T2/T1=300⋅800/400=600 kPa
61.Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study
a. flowering. b. gamete formation. c. the inheritance of traits. d. cross-pollination. - Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits
a. is true-breeding b. makes up the F2 generation.
c. makes up the parental generation. D. is called hybrids. - The chemical factors that determine traits are called
a. alleles. b. traits c. genes. d. characters, - Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
a. not inherited by offspring.
b. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c. determined by dominant factors only.
d. determined by recessive factors only. - When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited
a. an allele for tallness from each parent.
b. an allele for tallness from the tall parent and an allele for shortness from the short parent.
c. an allele for shortness from each parent.
d. an allele from only the tall parent. - The principle of dominance states that
a. all alleles are dominant.
b. all alleles are recessive.
c. some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
d. alleles are neither dominant nor recessive. - When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because
a. the allele for tall plants is recessive.
b. the allele for short plants is dominant.
c. the allele for tall plants is dominant.
d. they were true-breeding like their parents. - A tall plant is crossed with a short plant. If the tall pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a. the offspring will be of medium height.
b. all of the offspring will be tall.
c. all of the offspring will be short.
d. some of the offspring will be tall, and some will be short. - The principle of probability can be used to
basta A. ang answer - In the P generation, a tall plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F2 plant will be tall is
a. 50%. b. 75%. c. 25%. d. 100%. - Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid. b. homozygous. c. heterozygous. d. dominant.
72 In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross? (Ttx TT)
a. About half is expected to be short. b. All are expected to be short.
c. About half is expected to be tall. d. All are expected to be tall. - The genotypic ratio of the offspring in Figure 11-1 is
a. 2TT:2Tt b. 2tall:2short c. 1TT:2Tt:1tt d. 3tall: 1short - The phenotypic ratio of the offspring in Figure 11is:
a. 2TT:2Tt b. 2tall:2short c. 1TT:2Tt:1tt d. 4 tall - Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT:
a. all possible results of a genetic cross. b. the genotypes of the offspring.
c. the alleles in the gametes of each parent. d. the actual results of a genetic cross.
76-90 at the organic chem reviewer - Evidence that the universe is expanding is best provided by the:
A. Red shift in the light from distant galaxies
B. Change in the swing direction of a Foucault pendulum on Earth
C. Parallelism of Earth’s axis in orbit
D. Spiral shape of the Milky Way Galaxy - Which object forms by the contraction of a large sphere of gases causing the nuclear fusion of lighter elements into heavier elements?
A. Comet
B. Star
C. Planet
D. Moon - Which event is caused by Earth’s revolution?
A. The apparent shift in the path of a Foucault pendulum
B. Deflection of planetary wind7s to the right in the Northern Hemisphere
C. The apparent rising and setting of the Sun
D. Different constellations observed in the night sky throughout the year - The explosion associated with the Big Bang theory and the formation of the universe is inferred to have occurred how any billion years ago?
A. Less than 1
B. 4.6
C. 2.5
D. Over 10 - Which type of electromagnetic energy has the longest wavelength?
A. Infrared radiation
B. Radio wave radiation
C. Ultraviolet radiation
D. X-ray radiation - Which object is closest to Earth?
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Venus
D. Mars - Compared to other groups of stars, the group that has relatively low luminosities and relatively low temperatures is the
A. White Dwarfs
B. Red Giants
C. Red Dwarfs
D. Blue Super Giants - Which list of three planets & Earth’s moon is arranged in order of increasing equatorial diameter?
A. Earth’s moon, Pluto, Mars, Mercury
B. Pluto, Earth’s moon, Mercury, Mars
C. Mercury, Mars, Earth’s moon, Pluto
D. Mars, Mercury, Pluto, Earth’s Moon - During night time cooling, most of the energy radiated by Earth’s oceans into space is
A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Visible light rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Infrared rays - Stars like Earth’s Sun most likely formed directly from a
A. Nebula
B. Red Giant
C. Supernova
D. Black Dwarf - The Milky Way galaxy is best described as
A. A type of solar system
B. A constellation visible to everyone on Earth
C. A region in space between the orbits of Mars & Jupiter
D. A spiral-shaped formation composed of billions of stars - In which list are forms of electromagnetic energy arranged in order from longest to shortest wavelengths?
A. Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultraviolet rays, Visible light
B. Radio waves, Infrared rays, Visible light, Ultraviolet rays
C. X-rays, Infrared rays, blue light, Gamma rays
D. Infrared rays, Radio waves, blue light, red light - The passage of the Moon into Earth’s shadow causes a?
A. Lunar eclipse
B. New Moon
C. Solar eclipse
D. Full moon - Which statement describes the general relationship between the temperature and the luminosity of
A. As temperature decreases, luminosity increases
B. As temperature decreases, luminosity remains the same
C. As temperature increases, luminosity increase
D. As temperature increases, luminosity increases - Light and other forms of electromagnetic radiation are given off by stars using energy released during
A. Nuclear fusion
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Radioactive decay - What pathogen is often detected in cerebrospinal fluid in cases of bacterial meningitis?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus - What stage of the disease process occurs after the initial infection but before symptoms appear?
A. Prodromal stage
B. Incubation period
C. Illness stage
D. Decline stage - Which term refers to the invasion of the host by pathogenic organisms?
A. Pathogenicity
B. Infection
C. Contamination
D. Virulence - Which component of the immune system provides a rapid, non-specific defense against pathogens?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Innate immunity
D. Antibodies - Which type of immunity results from the administration of a vaccine?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Artificial immunity - What type of microorganism is the focus of clinical bacteriology?
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa - Which field of microbiology studies the structure and replication of viruses?
A. Bacteriology
B. Virology
C. Mycology
D. Parasitology - Which COVID-19 diagnostic test is considered the gold standard?
A. Rapid antigen test
B. ELISA
C. Western blot
D. RT-PCR - Which protein of SARS-CoV-2 is responsible for binding to ACE2 receptors in human cells?
A. Membrane (M) protein
B. Nucleocapsid (N) protein
C. Envelope (E) protein
D. Spike (S) protein - What type of vaccine uses mRNA to stimulate an immune response against COVID-19?
A. Viral vector vaccines
B. mRNA vaccines
C. Protein subunit vaccines
D. Inactivated vaccines - What type of microorganism is studied in mycology?
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa - Which fungal pathogen is responsible for candidiasis?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida albicans
C. Rhizopus
D. Cryptococcus neoformans - Which type of fungal infection affects internal organs?
A. Superficial mycoses
B. Subcutaneous mycoses
C. Systemic mycoses
D. Opportunistic mycoses - Which parasitic diagnostic technique is commonly used to detect malaria?
A. Stool sample analysis
B. Blood smear
C. Rapid antigen test
D. Microscopic examination of tissue - What type of organism is Plasmodium, the cause of malaria?
A. Protozoa
B. Helminth
C. Ectoparasite
D. Fungi - In a titration what is put into the buret?
A. The titrant B. The sample C. The analyse D. The product - A chemist following a procedure carefully was asked to decant a solution. This means
A. stir the solution thoroughly to suspend the solids and pour the mixture into a filtering apparatus
B. allow any solid material to settle to the bottom of the flask, and then pours off the liquid above the solution
C. pour the solution from one flask to another.
D. pour immediately everything to the sink. - Which of the following does not come under the Chemical methods of qualitative analysis?
A. Gravimetric B. Volumetric C. Titrimetric D. Magnetic Susceptibility - Which of these statements concerning the solubility is correct?
A. A salt is less soluble if one of its ions is already present in solution.
B. A salt is no more soluble if one of its ions is already present in solution.
C.A salt is more soluble if one of its ions is already present in solution.
D. All salts are soluble in water. - Method of averages is used:
A. For rejection of data
B. For obtaining best fitting line
C. For testing of significance
D. For completion of data - Which of the following may be the most appropriate unit of expressing lead concentrations in drinking water?
A. mg B. mmole C. ppm D. ppb - When performing an analysis, a chemist often uses a standard solution. What is a standard solution?
A. A solution that complies with standards established by the Environmental Protection Agency.
B. A solution that has a concentration of a chemical that is known to a high degree of certainty.
C. A solution that is prepared from a chemical that has been designated as a primary standard.
D. A solution whose components are easily identified.
128 A 250.0 ml. sample is concentrated for analysis to 25.0 mL… What is the correct expression for the new concentration?
A. [sample] x (25.0 ml/250.0 mL.) B. [sample] x 100
C. [sample] x (250.0ml/25.0 mL) D. all of the above - Indicators are used in a titration by changing,
A. smell B. shape C. phase D. color - The constituents present in the range of 1 to 100% by mass of sample are called as pH of an enzyme.
A. Major B. Trace C. Minor D. Ultra trace
131 The pH at which an enzyme is most efficient is called the
A. neutral B. optimum C. minimum D. experimental
132 The relationship between an enzyme and a reactant molecule can best be described as:
A. a temporary association.
B. an association stabilized by a covalent bond.
C. one in which the enzyme is changed permanently.
D. a permanent mutual alteration of structure. - Sucrose is a disaccharide made up of:
A. 2 glucose units B. glucose and fructose C. glucose and galactose D. galactose and fructose - Without the presence of enzymes, the reactions necessary to sustain life would be required to occur.
A. larger cells B. higher temperatures C. larger proteins D. smaller atoms - An “oil drop with a polar coat” is a metaphor referring to the 3D structure of
A. fibrous proteins. B. collagen. C. globular proteins. D. silk protein. - Chitin is:
A. a homopolysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine
B. a heteropolysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
C. a complex polymer of many sugars
D. a branched homopolysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine
137 A certain cell organelle which is made of a double phospholipid bilayer that has many large pores in it, is most likely:
A. the nuclear envelope B. the plasma membrane C. the mitochondrion D. the cytoskeleton - The secondary structure is primarily maintained by:
A. Van der waals forces B. Hydrogen bond C. lonic bond D. Hydrophobic bonds - Cerebrosides are glycolipids that are important constituents of
A. Lungs B. Brain C. Muscles D. Kidneys - How do enzymes speed up chemical reaction?
A. Increasing activation energy B. Decreasing activation energy
C. Increasing deactivation energy D. Decreasing deactivation energy - Which of the following is an example of a mineral?
A. Coal B. Concrete C. Quartz D. Steel - The mineral’s gold and copper are examples of?
A. Silicate minerals B. Organic minerals C. Native minerals D. Radioactive minerals - The two most abundant element in minerals are?
A. Calcium and Manganese B. Silicon and oxygen
C. Iron and magnesium D. Carton and potassium - The process of oxidation, hydration, and biological activity act to break down rocks at the earth’s surface. Together, these phenomena constitute.
A. Acid rain B. Weathering C. Soil erosion D. Mass wasting - The dissolved salt in the earth’s oceans are?
A. Marine biological activity C. Weathering of continental rocks
B. Atmospheric deposition D. The eruptions of undersea volcanoes - This refers to any motion that repeats itself at regular intervals over time.
A. Motion B. Periodic motion C. Circular motion D. Doppler effect - Refers to the number of complete oscillations that occur in a unit of time.
A. Period B. Equilibrium C. Frequency D. Amplitude - Refers to the maximum distance the system moves from the equilibrium position
A. Period B. Equilibrium C. Frequency D. Amplitude - A type of periodic motion where the restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement. EXCEPT?
A. Pendulum C. Displacement B. Simple harmonic motion D. Acceleration - The following are the applications of simple harmonic motion, EXCEPT?
A. Digital clock C. Pendulum clock
B. Hearing D. Swing
A
