Mocks

Question 1

What is the triad of haemolytic uraemia syndrome?

Answer 1

AkI, thrombocytic anaemia, normocytic anaemia

Question 2

What are the risk factors for DDH?

Answer 2

female, firstborn, family history, breech, oligo/polyhydramnios, high birth weight

Question 3

What are some examples of MAOIs?

Answer 3

phenelzine and tranylcypromine

Question 4

What foods can’t people on MAOIs have?

Answer 4

tyramine-rich foods - cheese, herring, bovril, Oxo, marmite, broad beans

Question 5

What mood stabilisers can be used for bipolar?

Answer 5

Lithium, Valproate is second line

Question 6

What is the first line med used for depression in bipolar?

Answer 6

fluoxetine

Question 7

What is the immediate management of mania or severe depression in bipolar?

Answer 7

urgent referral to CMHT
(routine referral if hypomania)

Question 8

What kind of tremor is seen in lithium toxicity?

Answer 8

course tremor = toxicity
fine tremor = normal Side effect

Question 9

What are the features of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

Answer 9

occurs within hours/days of starting an antipsychotic. Pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability (hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnoea), delirium/agitation

Question 10

What blood result is usually seen in neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

Answer 10

raised creatinine kinase + leukocytosis

Question 11

What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignancy syndrome?

Answer 11

Stop antipsychotic, IV fluids, dantrolene

Question 12

What are the features of serotonin syndrome?

Answer 12

fast onset, increased reflexes, clonus, dilated pupils

Question 13

What heart defect is associated with turner’s syndrome?

Answer 13

bicuspid aorta

Question 14

What is LSD?

Answer 14

a hallucinogen

Question 15

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

Answer 15

BRCA genes, many ovulations - early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

Question 16

What is the treatment for UTIs in pregnancy?

Answer 16

1st line : nitrofurantoin (not near term)
2nd line: amoxicillin/cefalexin

Question 17

What UTI treatment can’t you give pregnanct women?

Answer 17

Trimethoprim - no women on METH!!!

Question 18

What is the treatment for a UTI in non-pregnant adults?

Answer 18

trimethoprim/nitrofurantoin for 3 days (7days for men and catheterised patients)

Question 19

How long must pain be present for for a diagnosis of endometriosis?

Answer 19

6 months

Question 20

What is the first line investigation in chlamydia?

Answer 20

vulvovaginal swab - NAAT
men: first void urine sample

Question 21

What is the treatment of chlamydia?

Answer 21

doxycycline - 7 day
if pregnant - azithro/erythromycin

Question 22

What is the treatment for syphilis?

Answer 22

Benzathine benzylpenicillin (IM 2/3doses 1 week apart) or doxycycline

Question 23

What medication do you give to close contacts of people with bacterial meningitis?

Answer 23

ciprofloxacin

Question 24

How do you diagnose orthostatic hypotension?

Answer 24

BP - drop of >20 systolic or >10 diastolic within 3 mins of standing

Question 25

What are the features of aortic dissection?

Answer 25

pain - maximal at point of onset, can spread to back or front of chest

Question 26

Give an example of a DOAC?

Answer 26

apixaban/rivaroxaban

Question 27

What is the treatment of VTE?

Answer 27

DOACs - rivaroxaban/apixaban for at least 3 months

Question 28

What is the management of pericarditis?

Answer 28

NSAIDS and Colchicine

Question 29

What drugs should be given post MI?

Answer 29

Aspirin, beta blockers, clopidogrel, ACE-I, statins

Question 30

What is seen in microscopy of gout?

Answer 30

negatively bifringent needles (negative needles - henry the 8th had gout and he was negative) monosodium urate

Question 31

What is seen in microscopy of pseudogout?

Answer 31

positively bifringent crystals - calcium pyrophosphate

Question 32

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

Answer 32

Cox 1 inhibitor

Question 33

What are the B symptoms of hodgkin's lymphoma?

Answer 33

Fever, night sweats, weight loss >10% in 6m

Question 34

What are the two common sanctuary sites for chemotherapy?

Answer 34

CNS and testes (BBB and BTB)

Question 35

What are the 5 main atypical antipsychotics?

Answer 35

Clozapine, Risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole (come run on queen's ass)

Question 36

Name two typical antipsychotics

Answer 36

haloperidol, chlorpromazine (Zines and haloperidol and typical)

Question 37

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin

Answer 37

Is inhibits the synthesis of vitamin-K dependant clotting factors (1972) - used in AF, DVT and PE

Question 38

What is the mechanism of action of DOACs?

Answer 38

Factor 10a inhibitors - preventing clotting cascade

Question 39

What is the mechanism of action of aspirin and clopidogrel?

Answer 39

aspirin - cox 1 inhibitor, clopidogrel P2Y12 inhibitor - antiplatelet drugs

Question 40

What do you have to do in an APGAR score?

Answer 40

appearance, pulse, grimace/reflex, activity, resp effort

Question 41

What are some causes of a loss of red light reflex?

Answer 41

congenital cataracts, retinal detachment

Question 42

What are the features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

Answer 42

atypical genitalia in females, very early puberty, rapid initial growth, fertility issues

Question 43

What is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

Answer 43

Lack of the 21-hydroxylase enzyme - autosomal recessive

Question 44

What are the symptoms of adrenal crisis?

Answer 44

diarrhoea, vomiting, low blood sugar, seizures and shock. (low sodium and high potassium due to low aldosterone)

Question 45

What is the management of an adrenal crisis?

Answer 45

IV fluids, dextrose, hydrocortisone

Question 46

Who must be notified for notifiable diseases?

Answer 46

Local health protection unit

Question 47

What is the treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

Answer 47

Sodium valproate levetiracetam (in women of child-bearing age)

Question 48

What is the pathophysiology of duchenne muscular dystrophy?

Answer 48

gene mutation on Xp21, dystrophin is absent which is important for muscle architecture, muscle is lost and is replaced by adipose tissue

Question 49

When does physiological jaundice typically resolve?

Answer 49

term - before 14 weeks preterm - before 21 days

Question 50

What is the treatment of neonatal jaundice?

Answer 50

phototherapy and exchange transfusion

Question 51

What type of fracture is a toddler's fracture?

Answer 51

a spiral fracture of the tibia