MOD 2 + 3 Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the innate immune response?

A

A rapid, non-specific response that leads to viral clearance and adaptive immune development.

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2
Q

What do PAMPs include?

A

Microbial signatures like viral DNA, dsRNA, ssRNA with 5’-PPP, and glycoproteins.

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3
Q

Where do PRRs detect viruses?

A

At the cell membrane, cytoplasm, and endosomes.

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4
Q

What do TLRs detect?

A

Viral DNA/RNA at the cell membrane and endosomes.

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5
Q

What do RLRs bind to?

A

Viral RNA in the cytoplasm, undergo conformational change, and expose CARD domain.

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6
Q

What are Type I interferons?

A

Cytokines that are produced by most cells and induce an antiviral state.

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7
Q

What is Type II interferon?

A

Produced by activated T and NK cells and activates pro-inflammatory cytokines.

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8
Q

What do Type III interferons act via?

A

IL-28 receptor and induce an antiviral state.

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9
Q

What can interferon-stimulated genes (ISGs) do?

A

Inhibit replication, inhibit cell growth, induce apoptosis, regulate differentiation.

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10
Q

What does oligoadenylate synthetase activate?

A

RNase L to degrade viral RNA.

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11
Q

How do viruses evade immunity?

A

By strategies like membrane compartmentalisation, nuclear sequestration, RNA capping/methylation.

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12
Q

What does the NS5 protein of Dengue/Zika do?

A

Degrades STAT2 to block IFN signaling.

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13
Q

What does systems biology integrate?

A

High-throughput molecular methods and computational tools.

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14
Q

What does Illumina sequencing use?

A

Short reads, is accurate but expensive.

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15
Q

What does Oxford Nanopore sequencing provide?

A

Long reads, detects RNA modifications, and is portable and low-cost.

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16
Q

How does Gene Ontology classify genes?

A

By biological process, molecular function, cellular component.

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17
Q

What do RNA-Seq data formats like FASTQ contain?

A

Read IDs, sequences, and quality scores.

18
Q

What does the false discovery rate (FDR) account for?

A

Type I error in identifying differentially expressed genes.

19
Q

What are diagnostic tests used for?

A

To guide treatment, control outbreaks, and monitor new/emerging viruses.

20
Q

What can electron microscopy be used for?

A

To visualise virus particles during diagnosis.

21
Q

What does ELISA detect?

A

Viral proteins like NS1 in Dengue.

22
Q

What are lateral flow tests?

A

Portable, cheap, and used for antigen/antibody detection.

23
Q

What does PCR detect?

A

Viral nucleic acid and requires reverse transcription to cDNA for RNA viruses.

24
Q

What is TaqMan RT-PCR?

A

Quantitative, real-time, using fluorogenic probes and exonuclease activity.

25
What do microsphere immunoassays attach components to?
Beads, detected via flow cytometry with lasers.
26
What does epidemiology study?
Patterns and causes of health and disease in defined populations.
27
What shapes virus epidemiology?
Agent traits, host factors, and environmental context.
28
What is incidence?
New cases.
29
What is prevalence?
Existing active cases.
30
What is morbidity?
Percentage with symptoms.
31
What is case fatality?
Deaths among infected individuals.
32
What do epi curves show?
Onset of illness across time and population during outbreaks.
33
What do cohort studies involve?
Defined populations and compare cases vs non-cases.
34
What do case-control studies use?
Undefined populations and compare cases with healthy controls.
35
What are quasispecies?
Related but non-identical viral genomes with high mutation and diversity.
36
How often do RNA virus mutations occur?
1 per 0.1–10 virions, while DNA viruses mutate 1 per 50–500 virions.
37
When does recombination occur?
When two viral genomes infect the same cell and exchange genetic material.
38
When does reassortment occur?
In segmented viruses where genome segments mix in coinfected cells.
39
What did rabbit myxoma virus evolution select for?
Less virulent strains and more resistant hosts.
40
What are high mutation rates in viruses?
Positive forces in evolution and enable escape from immunity.