Mod 8 Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
Define metabolic efficiency.
A
Conditions within the body must be maintained at a constant level for optimal metabolic efficiency.
2
Q
What environment do body cells live in?
A
Body cells live in extracellular fluid.
3
Q
What do enzymes control in the cell?
A
Enzymes control all metabolic activities within the cell.
4
Q
What are two constant factors needed for enzyme functioning?
A
Temperature and pH (optimal range).
5
Q
What is homeostasis?
A
The process by which organisms maintain a relatively stable internal environment in response to changes.
6
Q
What are the two stages of homeostasis?
A
Detecting changes and responding to them.
7
Q
What is a negative feedback system?
A
A system where a response reverses a change to restore stability.
8
Q
What are the roles of thermoreceptors?
A
Thermoreceptors detect temperature changes and send information to the hypothalamus.
9
Q
What is the role of the hypothalamus in temperature regulation?
A
The hypothalamus is the control center for temperature regulation.
10
Q
How does the body warm itself?
A
Heat gain center activates responses like raised hairs, vasoconstriction, shivering, and increased metabolism.
11
Q
Define glucose homeostasis.
A
The regulation of blood glucose levels, normally about 90mg/100mL.
12
Q
How does insulin lower blood glucose levels?
A
Insulin facilitates glucose transport from the blood to the cells and promotes glucose storage in the liver as glycogen.
13
Q
How does glucagon increase blood glucose levels?
A
Glucagon stimulates the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood.
14
Q
What are the main components of the nervous system?
A
The Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).
15
Q
What is the function of the CNS?
A
The CNS processes and regulates body functions and coordinates responses.
16
Q
Define hormone.
A
A chemical messenger produced by endocrine glands and released into the bloodstream.
17
Q
What is the role of insulin and glucagon?
A
They regulate blood glucose levels.
18
Q
What does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulate?
A
Water balance, osmolarity, and blood pressure homeostasis.
19
Q
What does aldosterone regulate?
A
Blood pressure, by managing sodium and potassium levels in the blood.
20
Q
What do thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) control?
A
They control metabolism, converting food into energy.
21
Q
What is an axon surrounded by?
A
An axon is surrounded by a fatty insulating cover called the myelin sheath.
22
Q
What are the types of neurons?
A
Sensory neurons, motor neurons, and connector neurons.
23
Q
Define adaptation.
A
A feature that enables an organism to survive and reproduce in different environments.
24
Q
Define endotherms.
A
Warm-blooded organisms that use internal processes to regulate body temperature.
25
Define ectotherms.
Cold-blooded organisms with body temperatures that fluctuate with the environment.
26
What is countercurrent exchange in penguins?
A process where closely aligned veins and arteries allow heat recycling to maintain internal body temperature.
27
List some behavioral adaptations to stay cool in endotherms.
Burrowing, stretching out, nocturnal activity, seeking shade, cooling down in water, and evaporative cooling (licking saliva).
28
List some structural adaptations to stay warm in endotherms.
Insulation (feathers, fur, blubber), small surface area-to-volume ratio, and countercurrent heat exchange.
29
What are the main adaptations in plants for water balance?
Thick waxy cuticles, reduced leaves, photosynthetic stems, sunken stomata, and water storage.
30
What are non-infectious diseases?
Diseases not caused by pathogens and not transmitted from one organism to another.
31
What causes genetic diseases?
Mutations in genes or chromosomes, or abnormal cell division.
32
What causes nutritional diseases?
Imbalanced diets, undernutrition (e.g., iron deficiency), or overnutrition (e.g., obesity).
33
What is cancer?
Uncontrolled cell growth and division that invades tissues and disrupts normal body functions.
34
Define epidemiology
Study of patterns of diseases in populations (distribution, frequency, and causes) to establish measures to prevent and control the spread of disease.
35
What are the key purposes of epidemiology?
Describing patterns, identifying causes of disease, and providing data essential for management, evaluation, and planning of treatment and control services.
36
What is the focus of public health data collection?
Surveillance to determine time, place, and purpose (who, where, when), essentially through descriptive studies.
37
What are the steps in epidemiological assessment?
Inference to draw conclusions and hypothesis testing to determine how and why.
38
What is intervention in epidemiology?
Action to prevent risk factors and promote healthy behaviors.
39
What is descriptive epidemiology?
The first type of study when investigating a disease, providing information about patterns, affected population sections, geographical location, and specific time periods.
40
What is analytical epidemiology?
Studies used to collect more data and test hypotheses about likely causes of disease by measuring associations between a factor and a disease.
41
What are case-control studies?
Studies comparing individuals with a disease (case) to those without (control), identifying differences in exposures that could cause the disease.
42
What are the advantages of case-control studies?
Inexpensive, smaller sample sizes, less time-consuming.
43
What are the disadvantages of case-control studies?
Difficult to select a control group representative of the entire population, inefficient for rare exposures, can only study one outcome at a time.
44
What are cohort studies?
Studies two or more groups without the disease, where one group is exposed to a risk factor and the other is not, followed over time to compare the incidence of the disease.
45
What are the advantages of cohort studies?
Shows exposure and outcome link, calculates incidences and prevalence, and can study multiple diseases.
46
What are the disadvantages of cohort studies?
Expensive, time-consuming, high dropout rate, requires a large sample size.
47
What are morbidity and mortality?
Morbidity is the number of cases of a disease; mortality is the percentage of the population that dies from the disease.
48
What are the factors for a valid epidemiological study?
Large sample size, extended time, representative participants, use of control groups, valid data collection, statistical analysis, peer review.
49
Define interviewer bias
When the interviewer indirectly leads study participants to specific answers.
50
Define recall bias
When participants fail to accurately recall previous events or experiences.
51
Define ascertainment bias
When participants are not followed up equally after a study is conducted.
52
What is interventional epidemiology?
Tests the effectiveness of treatments or public health campaigns to reduce disease incidence.
53
What is an experimental study in epidemiology?
Participants are split into groups, with one receiving a trial drug and the other a placebo, to determine the drug’s effectiveness.
54
What is causation in disease epidemiology?
The cause-and-effect relationship where exposure to a cause leads to a higher risk of developing the disease, shown through consistent results.
55
What is the function of the ear?
To detect sound and maintain balance.
56
What is the organ of Corti?
The part of the inner ear made up of cochlear hair cells that detect sound vibrations and convert them into electrical signals for the brain.
57
What is conductive hearing loss?
Sound waves are not effectively transmitted through the outer or middle ear, often due to defects like infections or trauma.
58
What is sensorineural hearing loss?
Sound waves are not converted into electrical signals in the inner ear due to damage in the cochlea or auditory nerve.
59
What is a hearing aid?
A device that amplifies sound to assist individuals with hearing loss by directing sound waves into the ear canal.
60
What is a bone conduction implant?
A device implanted in the skull near the auditory nerve to bypass outer and middle ear issues, stimulating the cochlea directly.
61
What is a cochlear implant?
A surgically implanted device that bypasses damaged hair cells to stimulate the auditory nerve directly, converting sound into electrical signals.
62
Define myopia
Near-sightedness where light is focused in front of the retina, often due to an elongated eyeball or overly curved lens.
63
Define hyperopia
Far-sightedness where light is focused behind the retina, often due to a round eyeball or flat lens.
64
What is astigmatism?
A condition where the curvature of the cornea or lens is uneven, causing blurred vision at all distances.
65
What is accommodation in the eye?
The process by which the lens changes shape to focus on objects at different distances.
66
Define the function of the kidneys
The kidneys are the main excretory organs responsible for filtering blood and removing nitrogenous wastes in vertebrates. They also regulate water and salt concentrations in the body (osmoregulation).
67
What is the nephron?
The nephron is the structure that produces urine by filtering waste and excess substances from the blood. It includes the glomerulus, which filters blood, and the tubule, which returns needed substances to the blood and removes waste.
68
What processes occur within the nephrons?
Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion occur within the nephrons, with capillaries surrounding the nephrons to provide a large surface area for excretion.
69
Define passive transport
Passive transport is the movement of a substance from a high concentration to a low concentration, down a concentration gradient, without the use of cellular energy.
70
Define active transport
Active transport is the movement of a substance from low concentration to higher concentration, against a concentration gradient, requiring the use of energy (ATP).
71
Define filtration in urine formation
Filtration is the process by which waste materials dissolved in blood fluid move from blood vessels to nephrons to be removed from the body, occurring from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule via passive transport.
72
What is glomerular filtrate?
Glomerular filtrate consists of water and small solutes pushed from the capillaries into the glomerular capsule during filtration.
73
Define reabsorption in urine formation
Reabsorption is the movement of essential components (e.g., amino acids, glucose, minerals, vitamins) filtered out from nephron tubules back into the bloodstream using active transport.
74
What occurs in the Loop of Henle?
In the Loop of Henle, the descending limb is permeable to water (not solutes) and the ascending limb is permeable to solutes (Na, Cl, K) but not water, creating a concentration gradient.
75
Define secretion in urine formation
Secretion is the active transport of substances from the blood into the nephrons, occurring in distal tubules, where waste ions and hydrogen ions combine with filtrate to become urine.
76
What is excretion?
Excretion is the process where urine (95% water, 5% waste) leaves the body through the ureter to the urinary bladder, and out through the urethra.
77
What are the roles of ADH and Aldosterone in osmoregulation?
ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) increases nephron permeability to water, and Aldosterone increases nephron permeability to sodium, regulating water and salt concentrations.
78
What are the symptoms of kidney function loss?
Loss of kidney function can result in a build-up of waste, electrolytes, and fluid in the blood, with symptoms appearing late.
79
What are the causes of kidney function loss?
Causes include diabetes (high blood glucose), high blood pressure, inflammation, kidney stones/tumors, infections, and prolonged use of certain medications/drugs.
80
What is haemodialysis?
Haemodialysis is a process where blood is pumped into an artificial kidney machine to remove metabolic wastes. Blood is filtered and returned to the body via intravenous tubes.
81
Describe the peritoneal dialysis process
Peritoneal dialysis uses a catheter to pump dialysis fluid into the abdominal cavity. Waste diffuses out of the blood into the fluid, which is then drained and replaced.
82
What is a kidney transplant?
A kidney transplant is a surgery to place a healthy kidney from a living or deceased donor into a person whose kidneys no longer function properly.
83
What is the purpose of evaluation in medical technologies?
Evaluation assesses if the technology does what it is intended to do.
84
List technologies used to treat hearing impairments
Hearing aid, cochlear implant, bone conduction implant
85
List technologies used to treat vision impairments
Contact lenses, IOC, Lasik, glasses
86
List technologies used to treat kidney issues
Haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis
87
What is a hearing aid primarily used to treat?
Sensorineural hearing loss or middle ear impairment
88
What are the limitations of hearing aids?
Does not work for inner ear impairments, can amplify unwanted noise, does not fully restore hearing, expensive, cannot be worn in water or during physical activities.
89
What are the strengths of hearing aids?
Amplifies sound, improves hearing and communication, especially in noisy environments.
90
What is a bone conduction implant used to treat?
Conductive hearing loss
91
What are the limitations of bone conduction implants?
Requires surgery, risk of infection, can cause skin irritation, ineffective for auditory processing disorder or sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL).
92
What are the strengths of bone conduction implants?
Reduces background noise, useful for individuals with bone malformation, improves speech recognition.
93
What is a cochlear implant used to treat?
Severe sensorineural hearing loss
94
What are the limitations of cochlear implants?
Low sound quality, expensive, short battery life, surgical implantation required, issues with background noise, relies on lip reading for full understanding, does not restore normal hearing.
95
What are the strengths of cochlear implants?
Wider hearing range than hearing aids, helps in hearing one's own voice, improves speech clarity, aids development in listening and language skills.
96
What is the primary use of glasses?
To correct sight defects like myopia and hyperopia.
97
What are the limitations of glasses?
Not a permanent fix, non-adjustable, can be costly.
98
What are the strengths of glasses?
Improves vision, easy to wear, no invasive surgery required.
99
What is LASIK used to treat?
Refractive errors such as myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism.
100
What are the limitations of LASIK?
Won’t work for thin corneas, potential side effects like dry eyes, costly, chance of vision changes with age, possible serious complications.
101
What are the strengths of LASIK?
Quick recovery, high success rate, eliminates need for glasses or contacts, quick procedure.
102
What is haemodialysis used to treat?
Chronic kidney failure, diabetes, polycystic renal disorders, hypertension.
103
What are the limitations of haemodialysis?
Requires long sessions, constant dialysis, costly, diet restrictions, complex process.
104
What are the strengths of haemodialysis?
Can be done while asleep, decreases risk of uremia, versatile treatment for various health issues.
105
What is peritoneal dialysis used to treat?
Kidney disorders where the kidneys can't filter blood well enough.
106
What are the limitations of peritoneal dialysis?
Must be done daily, risk of infection, protein reduction in dialysis fluid, leads to fatigue and malnutrition.
107
What are the strengths of peritoneal dialysis?
Can be done at home, ongoing daily dialysis, cheaper than haemodialysis.
108
What is cystic fibrosis?
A respiratory disease characterized by the production of thick, sticky mucus due to mutations in the CFTR gene.
109
What does the CFTR gene do?
Codes for transport proteins that facilitate the transport of chloride ions in and out of epithelial cells.
110
How does the absence of the CFTR gene affect mucus?
Absence of the CFTR gene disrupts chloride transport, preventing osmosis and causing mucus to dehydrate, leading to increased viscosity.
111
What are the consequences of thickened mucus in cystic fibrosis?
The thick mucus obstructs airflow, traps bacteria, and increases the risk of lung infections.
112
How is the influenza virus transmitted?
Via airborne droplets, particles, or physical contact with infected individuals or surfaces.
113
What is antigenic variation in the influenza virus?
Frequent changes in surface proteins to evade immune systems, counteracting long-term immunity.
114
How does the influenza virus replicate?
It rapidly replicates within host cells to produce a high viral load, increasing transmission potential.
115
How is E. coli transmitted?
Through contaminated food and water or direct contact.
116
What are fimbriae in E. coli?
Hair-like structures that allow the bacteria to adhere to intestinal lining, facilitating infection.
117
How does E. coli produce toxins?
E. coli produces toxins that damage host cells, helping it spread and transmit to new hosts.
118
What is biofilm formation in E. coli?
E. coli forms biofilms in the intestines, allowing it to adhere to surfaces and providing protection against the immune response and antibiotics.
119
What are similarities between influenza and E. coli?
Both infect humans, both are transmitted via contact with contaminated environments, both require low infectious doses to cause disease.
120
What are differences between influenza and E. coli?
Influenza infects the respiratory tract, while E. coli infects the gastrointestinal tract; influenza adaptations evade immune responses, while E. coli adaptations protect against them.
