Mod 8 - GI Meds Flashcards

1
Q

Define pathogen

A

an organism causing disease to its host

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2
Q

what can bacteria be identified with?

A

a culture and sensitivity test or a gram stain test

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3
Q

what are the 2 types of antimicrobials

A

broad-spectrum or narrow-spectrum

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4
Q

what are the 2 types of antibiotics

A

bacteriostatic and bactericidal

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5
Q

define culture, where is it collected from, how it is used to identify the pathogen.

A

a test performed to examine different body substances for the presence of bacteria or fungus, collected by the nurse from pt’s blood, urine, sputum, wound bed, etc., then incubated in a growth-promoting environment to identify.

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6
Q

define sensitive analysis

A

a test performed in addition to a culture in order to select an effective antibiotic to treat the microorganism

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7
Q

define resistance

A

a characteristic of bacteria demonstrated lack of effective treatment by an antibiotic when a sensitivity analysis is performed.

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8
Q

define gram stain

A

a test used to quickly diagnose bacterial infection, ID the bac as gram +/-, assist the HCP in selecting an appropriate antibiotic to treat the infection. pos=violet, neg=red/pink

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9
Q

eg of gram positive bac

A

MRSA

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10
Q

eg of gram negative bac

A

N. gonorrhoeae, E.coli

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11
Q

define narrow spectrum

A

targets only specific subsets of bacterial pathogens

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12
Q

define broad spectrum

A

targets a wide variety of bacterial pathogens, including gram =/- species

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13
Q

define superinfection

A

secondary infection in a pt with a preexisting infection. Eg: C. Diff and yeast infections as a result of antibotic therapy

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14
Q

What will Broad treat and what will narrow treat? (+ or -)

A
broad = both
narrow = one or other
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15
Q

define bacteriostatic

A

stop bacteria from reproducing may not kill it

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16
Q

define bactericidal

A

kill the target bacteria (need this one if immunocompromised)

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17
Q

what are administration considerations of antimicrobials

A

half life
liver and renal fn
dose dependancy/ time dependancy

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18
Q

define dose dependancy

A

more significant response occurs in the body when the medication is administered in large doses to provide a large amount of medication to the site of infection for a short period of time

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19
Q

define time dependency

A

occurs when greater therapeutic effects are seen with lower blood levels over a longer period of time

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20
Q

define synergistic interactions

A

concurrent drug administration producing a synergistic interaction that is better than the efficacy of either drug alone

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21
Q

define antagonistic interactions

A

concurrent drug administration causes harmful effects such as a decrease of drug activity and decrease therapeutic levels due to increase metabolism and elimination, or increase potential for toxicity due to decrease metabolism and elimination

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22
Q

nursing considerations for hyperacidity medications

A

abdominal assessment, doc bowel patterns, vit B12 malabsorption may occur when stomach acid is altered, cultural preferences, report immediately if coughing up blood

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23
Q

define diarrhea

A

passage of 3 or more loose or liquid stools per day

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24
Q

nursing considerations for antidiarrheal medications

A

abdominal assessment, doc bowel patterns, stool characteristics, skin breakdown, dehydration, dont exceed doses of OTC meds, use probiotics, if not resolved in 48hr call HCP

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25
Q

what do antidiarrheal meds do?

A

relieve symptoms of diarrhea, but do not eliminate the cause of it

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26
Q

define constipation

A

3 or fewer BM in a week, stools are hard, dry, lumpy, painful/difficult to pass

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27
Q

what are possible causes of constipation

A

lack of fibre, lack of fluids, lack of ambulation, various disease processes, surgery/anesthesia, opiates, S/E of medications

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28
Q

nursing considerations for constipations

A

abdominal assessment, date of last BM, what laxative to use (dif ones for dif lengths of time since last BM, blockage and risk of perforation?

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29
Q

define nausea

A

unpleasant sensation of having the urge to vomit

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30
Q

define vomiting

A

forceful expulsion of gastric contents

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31
Q

define chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

area in the brain that responds directly to toxins in the bloodstream and also recieves stimuli for other locations that stimulates the vomiting center

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32
Q

define motion sickness

A

vomiting induced by the vestibular system

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33
Q

define vomiting center

A

inhibits peristalsis and produces retro peristaltic contractions in the small bowel to stomach, simultaneous contractions in the abdominal muscles and diaphragm that generate high pressures to propel the stomach contents upwards

34
Q

nursing considerations for nausea/vomiting

A

what is the cause, frequency and amount, appetite, fluid intake, dehydration, timing, drink fluids in small sips, bland food, small meals, avoid strong smells

35
Q

what are possible causes for nausea

A
stress/anxiety
other medications (opioids)
pressure on GI tract
-pregnancy
-liver disease
withdrawal/substance use
surgery/anesthesia
malnutrition
36
Q

what can trigger the vomiting reflex

A

smells, poisons, toxins, medications

37
Q

how does erythromyocin work

A

inhibit RNA synthesis and suppress reproduction of bacteria

38
Q

what are the uses of erythromyocin

A

respiratory infections, otitis media, pelvic inflammatory infections, chlamydia

39
Q

what are the O/E of erythromyocin

A

kill your good bacteria and nausea, vomiting, GI upset

40
Q

what are the considerations of erythromyocin

A

timing of doses, finishing prescription, taking with food, can cause a super infection because it will kill good bacteria Eg; yeast infection after/with a dif. infection

41
Q

how does calcium carbonate work

A

neutralize gastric acidity and elevate pH of stomach

42
Q

what are the uses of calcium carbonate

A

relieve heartburn, indigestion, upset stomach

43
Q

what are the O/E of calcium carbonate

A

rebound hyperacidity

44
Q

what are the considerations of calcium carbonate

A

acid rebound effect when used long term
don’t administer 1-2 hours around other medications
smoking cessation can decrease stomach acidity
avoid foods and bevs with high acidity
drink a full glass of water after administering

45
Q

how does ranitidine work

A

block histamine’s action at the H2 receptor of the parietal cells, decrease production of HCL

46
Q

what are the uses of ranitidine

A

treat GERD, peptic ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, hypersecretory conditions, upper GI bleeding

47
Q

what are the O/E of ranitidine

A

none

48
Q

what are the nursing considerations for ranitidine

A

may require dose adjustment if preexisting liver or kidney dysfunction
smoking interferes
take 15-60 min before eating/drinking what may cause heartburn

49
Q

how does pantoprazole work

A

binds to the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme system in parietal cells, inhibiting secretion of HCL for >24hr

50
Q

what are the uses of pantoprazole

A

GERD, prevent further damage, allow to heal, H. pylori

51
Q

what are the O/E of the pantoprazole

A

too much reduction of production of acid

52
Q

what are some nursing considerations of pantoprazole

A

don’t take with other meds

use of GI irritants is discouraged

53
Q

how does loperamide work

A

decrease flow of fluid/electrolytes into the bowel and slow peristalsis

54
Q

what are the uses of loperamide

A

diarrhea

55
Q

what are the O/E of loperamide

A

constipation

56
Q

what are the nursing considerations of loperamide

A

should not exceed rec. dose (leads to abnormal heart rhythm)

avoid CNS depressants (drowsy)

57
Q

how does lactobacillus work

A

help replenish normal gut flora

58
Q

what are the uses of lactobacillus

A

prevent and treat diarrhea

59
Q

what are the O/E of lactobacillus

A

gas and bloating

60
Q

what are some nursing considerations for lactobacillus

A

take when taking an antibiotic

61
Q

how does polyethylene glycol (PEG) work

A

cause water to be retained with stool, soften stool, and increase the number of bowel movements

62
Q

what are the uses of PEG

A

constipation

63
Q

what are the O/E of PEG

A

diarrhea

64
Q

what are the nursing considerations of PEG

A

stir and dissolve in bev, produces BM in 1-3 days

65
Q

how does bisacodyl work

A

stimulate lining of intestine to contract and increase peristalsis

66
Q

what are the uses of bisacodyl

A

constipation

67
Q

what are the O/E of bisacodyl

A

diarrhea

68
Q

what are the nursing considerations of bisacodyl

A

BM within 15 minutes
oral and rectal form
may cause cramps, dizziness, rectal burning

69
Q

how does dimenhydrinate work

A

block H1 receptors in the vestibular center

70
Q

what are the uses of dimenhydrinate

A

nausea and vomiting associated with motion

71
Q

what are the O/E of dimenhydrinate

A

drowsiness

72
Q

what are the nursing considerations of dimenhydrinate

A

contradicted with glaucoma, enlarged prostate, avoid CNS depressants

73
Q

how does metoclopramide work

A

blocks dopamine and increases peristalsis to empty GI and decrease nausea

74
Q

what are the uses of metoclopramide

A

nausea, vomiting

75
Q

what are the O/E of metoclopramide

A

diarrhea, EPS, GI upset

76
Q

what are the nursing considerations of metoclopramide

A

good for surgery/chemo/anesthesia related nausea
dont use when GI motility may be dangerous/perforation, blockage, hemorrhage
EPS, dont use if epilectic

77
Q

how does acetaminophen work

A

inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins

78
Q

what are the uses of acetaminophen

A

mild pain and fever, not anti-inflammatory

79
Q

what are the O/E of acetaminophen

A

toxicity

80
Q

what are the nursing considerations of acetaminophen

A
no with alcohol
don't exceed dosage of 4000mg/day
elderly 3000mg/day
chronic alcohol use 2000mg/day
check other meds to see if they contain acetaminophen (cold and flu)