Modulars for Module 4 Flashcards by Janina Joya

Which of the following groups of drugs inhibit platelet aggregation by
interfering with GPIIB/IIIA binding to fibrinogen?
a. Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban
b. Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Prasugrel
c. Aspirin, Salsalate, Prasugrel
d. Cilostazol, Dipyridamole

Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

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A 65 year old woman received an antithrombotic prophylaxis of enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heprain (LMWH). What is the MOA of the action of the drug used
a. Impairs post-translational modification of Vitamin-K idependent clotting
factors
b. Activates antithrombin III
c. Inhibits Factors Xa in the final common pathway
d. Inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase

Activates antithrombin III

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Which of the ff. drugs accelerates the conversion of plasminogen to
plasmin
a. aminocaproic acid
b. Heparin
c. Argatroban
d. Reteplase

Reteplase

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A patient complains of severe nosebleed after being treated with
warfarin. To prevent severe hemmorhage, the warfarin should be
discontinued, and the patient should be treated with which of the ff?
a. Aminocaproic acid
b. desmopressin
c.Factor 3
d. Vitamin K

Vitamin K

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Injecting botulinum toxin causes flaccid paralysis of the facial muscles
via which mechanism on acetylcholine?
a. inhibiting its degradation
b. blockade of vesicular storage
c. acting on the rate-limiting step
d. Preventing its release

Preventing its release

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A patient with suspected mushroom poisoning presents with blurring of
vision, small pupils, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, excessive sweating and
salivation, and a heart rate of 50. What treatment will you give?
a. Atropine
b. Diazepam
c. Loperamide
d. Salbutamol

Atropine

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Dobutamine is used for cardiogenic shock because of its effect on
which receptor?
a. a1
b. a2
c. b1
d. b2

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The first dose phenomenon that manifest as orthostatic hypotension
may occur when a patient takes which medication?
a. Propanolol
b. Terazosin
c. Nitroglycerin
D. Diltiazem

Terazosin

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A hypertensive patient was prescribed with Metoprolol to be taken
once a day. What is the principal contraindication when giving this drug?
a. Pre-Existing AV Block
b. Arrhythmia
c. Angina
d. Migraine

Pre-Existing AV Block

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A medication that can be utilized for both asthma and premature labor
is likely to be acting on which receptor?
a. Muscarinic-2
b. Muscarinic-3
c. B1
d. B2

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Ethacrynic acid being given for pulmonary edema acts by inhibiting
which transporter?
A. Na/Cl transporter
B. Na/K/2Cl transporter
C. Na-glucose transporter
D. Aquaporin-2 channels

Na/K/2Cl transporter

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Verapamil may be useful in patients with angina or hypertension, but
a usual undesirable effect is that it may cause:
A. Cyanide toxicity
B. Hirsutism
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Lupus

Gingival hyperplasia

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Which of the ff. drugs do we avoid giving to pregnant hypertensive
patients due to the risk of renal agenesis and neonatal morbidity
a. nifedipine
b. propranolol
c. Losartan
d. Nitroglycerin

Losartan

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This drug, when given to a patient with pesticide poisoning, will NOT
BE EFFECTIVE in reversing its central effects:
a. Atropine
b. Pralidoxime
c. Edrophonium
d.Physostigmine

Physostigmine

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Which of the following BP Lowering agents has been discontinued
due to its psychiatric effects such as predisposition for severe depression
and suicidal ideations?
a. Reserpine
b. metolazone
c. Fenoldepam
d. Diazoxide

Fenoldepam

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We must be cautious in combining atorvastatin with gemfibrozil because of an increased risk for which of the ff?
a. Cholelithiasis
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Hepatotoxicity

Rhabdomyolysis

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A 20 year old student was prescribed with a beta blocker that blocks
b1>b2. The most likely drug prescribed is
A. propanolol
B. Carvedilol
C. Nadolol
D. Metoprolol

Metoprolol

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A 15 year old teen developed bronchoconstriction, mucous membrane congestion, angioedema, and severe hypotension following
intake of a drug which he is allergic to. This is a case of anaphylaxis. The
first line of drug is
A. Dobutamine
B. Prednisone
C. Epinephrine
D. Terbutaline

Epinephrine

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An 18 year old was given atropine 0.5 mg tablet two times a day for
the reversal of hyperhidrosis. However, she took 20 tablets in single dose
because of several problems. Which of the ff. do you expect to see?
A. Increased salivation
B. Cyclopegia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypothermia

Cyclopegia

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Release inhibitor that reduces degranulation of mast cells from
immunologic triggering by antigen-IgE interaction.
A. Epinephrine
B. Cromolyn Na
C. Loratadine
D. Montelukast

Cromolyn Na

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A 17-year old on flight to USA has history of motion sickness. The
most appropriate drug to give 30 minutes before departure to prevent this
symptom is
A. Scopolamine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Chlorpheniramine
D. Cetirizine

Scopolamine

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KC , a 65 y/o hypertensive female presents with bipedal edema and
low eGFR. The most effective drug for producing diuresis is
A. Amlodipine
B. Losartan
C. Furosemide
D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Furosemide

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A 60 y/o hypertensive male who had myocardial infarction a few years ago is now showing signs of congestive heart failure.
Spironolactone was added to his drug regimen. Which of the following adverse effect/s may be anticipated from this drug?
a. Hyperuricemia
b. Gynecomastia
c. Lupus-like syndrome
d. Ototoxicity

Gynecomastia

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This diuretic binds to mineralocorticoid receptors and blocks
aldosterone
a. Amiloride
b. Ethacrynic acid
c. Eplerenone
d. Traimterene

Eplerenone

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A 35 y/o male who has been taking an unrecalled diuretic developed alkalosis and ototoxicity. The most likely drug is: a. Acetazolamide b. Chlorothiazide c. Furosemide d. Spironolactone

Furosemide

A pregnant mother recently had a BP of 150/190. What anti- hypertensive agent may be most likely prescribed to her? a. Irbesartan b. Reserpine c. Methyldopa d. Captopril

Methyldopa

This anti-hypertensive agent inhibits vesicular catecholamine transport and storage: a. Methyldopa b. Guanabenz c. Reserpine d. Clonidine

Reserpine

Irbesartan was substituted for Lisinopril after the patient developed a bothersome dry cough. What is the culprit for the cough of the patient? a. Overproduction of renin b. Sulfhydryl group c. Bradykinin d. Chymas

Bradykinin

Nifedipine acts to: a. Decrease the sensitivity of the ryanodine receptors b. Prevent the activation of the L-type calcium channels on the T-tubules c. Increase intracellular calcium by inhibiting the Na-K ATPase pump d. Blocks the active site of actin

Prevent the activation of the L-type calcium channels on the T-tubules

Which stage of anesthesia is present if the patient is hyperactive and has irregular vital signs a. Stage I - Analgesia b. Stage II - Excitation and Delirium c. Stage III - Surgical Anesthesia d. Stage IV - Respiratory Depression

Stage II - Excitation and Delirium

The following are inhaled anesthetics, EXCEPT: a. Nitrous Oxide b. Halothane c. Methoxyflurane d. Midazolam

Midazolam

TRUE regarding ESTER vs AMIDE anesthetics: a. Amides are usually short-acting compared to ester-based anesthetics. b. Esters are degraded by hepatic esterases c. Mepivacaine and Bupivacaine are examples of amide anesthetic agents d. Ropivacaine has the shortes half-life among all local anesthetics

Mepivacaine and Bupivacaine are examples of amide anesthetic agents

A 28-year old pregnant woman in her 1st trimester comes to you with exophthalmos, heat intolerance, palpitations, and unintentional weight loss which are signs of Grave's Disease (under hyperthyroidism). What is the preferred treatment? a. Propranolol b. Methimazole c. Propylthiouracil d. Lugol's solution

Propylthiouracil

Finasteride may be used in managing benign prostatic hyperplasia because of its ability to inhibit: a. Aromatase b. GnRH receptors c. 5-alpha reducatse d. Androgen receptors

5-alpha reducatse

An example of a long-acting insulin. a. Lispro b. Aspart c. Humulin R d. Degludec

Degludec

The first line treatment for a diabetic patient with a BMI of 29 (Obese) is a: a. GLP-1 agonist b. Biguanide c. DPP-4 Inhibitor d. SGLT-2 Inhibitor

Biguanide

This drug used for hyperthyroidism acts via the mechanism of Wolff- Chaikoff effect: a. Propranolol b. Methimazole c. Propylthiouracil d. Lugol's solution

Lugol's solution

Which of the following is a common direct or reflex effect of nitroglycerin? a. Decreased heart rate b. Decreased venous capitance c. Increased afterload d. Increased cardiac force

Increased cardiac force

A 23-year old woman is using albuterol inhaler for frequent acute episodes of asthma and complains of symptoms that she ascribed to the albuterol. Which of the following is not a recognized action of albuterol? (Note: Albuterol is also known as Salbutamol) a. Diuretic effect b. Positive inotropic effect c. Skeletal muscle tremor d. Smooth muscle relaxation

Diuretic effect

A 19-year old college student has well-controlled asthma, but on reporting to the college health clinic, complains of a sore throat. On examination, he has typical signs of thrust, a fungal infection with Candida albicans. The asthma controller medication most likely to be associated with Candida infection is: a. Salbutamol by aerosol b. Beclomethasone by aerosol c. Ipratropium inhaler d. Predinsone by mouth

Beclomethasone by aerosol

Oral medications are popular for the treatment of asthma in children because young children may have difficulty with proper use of aerosol inhalers. Which of the following is an orally active inhibitor of leukotriene receptors? a. Zileuton b. Aminophylline c. Ipratropium d. Zafirlukast

Zafirlukast

Which of the following drugs has been shown to reduce mortality in chronic heart failure? a. Atenolol b. Digoxin c. Furosemide d. Spironolactone

Spironolactone

Which of the following drugs can be used by nebulizer for a prompt direct bronchodilatior effects in severe, actue asthma attacks? a. Salbutamol b. Ipratropium c. Predisone d. Salmeterol

Salbutamol

Which of the following drugs in high doses can cause bradycardia? a. Amlodipine b. Isosorbide dinitrate c. Nitroglycerin d. Verapamil

Verapamil

The following are examples of mucolytics/mucoregulators, EXCEPT: a. Carbocisteine b. Erdosteine c. Bromhexine d. Butamirate citrate

Butamirate citrate

This drug classification used for cough acts by reducing disulfide bridges that bind glycoproteins to other proteins such as albumin. a. Mucolytic b. Expectorant c. Centrally-acting antitussive d. Peripherally-acting antitussive

Mucolytic

This condition can occur if topical decongestatns are used for more than 5 days. a. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome b. Rhinitis medicamentosa c. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis d. Cushing's Syndrome

Rhinitis medicamentosa

The study of a drugs absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. a. Biopharmaceutics b. Bioavailability c. Pharmacodynamics d. Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacokinetics

The following are drugs with narrow therapeutic index, EXCEPT: a. Warfarin b. Theophylline c. Digoxin d. Paracetamol

Paracetamol

Which of the following is TRUE regarding crystalline properties of drugs? a. Crystals are less rigid & less thermodynamically stable than amorphous form b. Generally, they have a faster dissolution rate compared to amorphouse forms c. Hydrates are also called amorphous compounds d. Erythromycin dihydrate has a faster dissolution than its monohydrate or anhydrous counterparts in phosphate buffer

Erythromycin dihydrate has a faster dissolution than its monohydrate or anhydrous counterparts in phosphate buffer

Supposed that the drugs below were administered at the same dosages, which of the following has the highest fraction/concentration in the central compartment? a. Drug A - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% - systemic circulation (20% protein bound, 40% unbound) b. Drug B - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% systemic circulation (45% protein bound, 15% unbound) c. Drug C - 70% peripheral tissues, 30% systemic circulation (10% protein bound, 20% unbound) d. Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30% protein bound, 50% unbound)

Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30% protein bound, 50% unbound)

Which of the following drugs will be most active? a. Drug A - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% - systemic circulation (20% protein bound, 40% unbound) b. Drug B - 40% peripheral tissues, 60% systemic circulation (45% protein bound, 15% unbound) c. Drug C - 70% peripheral tissues, 30% systemic circulation (10% protein bound, 20% unbound) d. Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30% protein bound, 50% unbound)

Drug D - 20% peripheral tissues, 80% systemic circulation (30% protein bound, 50% unbound)

What type of reaction order/elimination order is being portrayed: 2.5 units/h, 2.5 unit/h, 2.5 unit/h a. First-Order Elimination b. Zero-Order Elimination c. Pseudo-Order Elimination d. Second-Order Elimination

Zero-Order Elimination

The time required for one-half of the drug concentration to disappear a. Half-life b. t50 c. t1/2 d. All of the above

All of the above

The following statements describe First-Order Kinetics, EXCEPT: A. Fixed percentage or fraction of drug is removed per unit of time. B. To compute for the half-life of a drug in first-order kinetics we use the formula, t50= 0.693/k1. C. The rate is dependent upon the concentration of the drug. D. Fixed amount or concentration of drug is removed per unit of time.

Fixed amount or concentration of drug is removed per unit of time.

Drugs with long elimination half-lives will have a ________ clearance. A. fast B. slow C. intermediate D. instantaneous

slow

The removal of the “intact” drug from the body is __________. A. Drug elimination B. Biotransformation C. Drug excretion D. Absorption

Drug excretion

The rate at which a drug reaches the systemic circulation can be determined by the slowest step of the sequence of a kinetic process which we call ________________. A. Irreversible step B. Reversible step C. Steady-state concentration D. Rate-limiting step

Rate-limiting step

Which statement is TRUE regarding Fick’s Law of Diffusion? A. Increasing the concentration gradient will also increase the rate of absorption. B. Increasing the thickness of the membrane will increase the rate of absorption. C. Decreasing the lipid/water partition coefficient will increase the lipid solubility of the substance, thus increasing its rate of absorption. D. Increasing the surface area for absorption will decrease the rate of diffusion.

Increasing the concentration gradient will also increase the rate of absorption.

TRUE regarding passive diffusion vs carrier-mediated system: A. In carrier-mediated transport, the initial rise in the curve is governed by first-order kinetics, while the saturation point or plateau phase of the slide is governed by zero-order kinetics. B. Passive Diffusion has a curvilinear graph. C. Passive Diffusion is governed by zero-order kinetics. D. In carrier-mediated transport, once the saturation point is reached, increasing the drug’s concentration can increase the rate of drug absorption.

In carrier-mediated transport, the initial rise in the curve is governed by first-order kinetics, while the saturation point or plateau phase of the slide is governed by zero-order kinetics.

The movement of drugs across biologic membranes is influenced by: A. Mechanism of transport B. Binding affinity for tissue or plasma proteins C. Degree of ionization as influenced by the pKa of the drug and the pH of the medium D. All of the above. E. None of the above

All of the above.

A patient who took excessive amounts of Aspirin had ABG findings revealing high-anion gap metabolic acidosis. One way to aid in the elimination of this drug from the body is by: A. Acidification of urine with ammonium chloride B. Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate C. Administration of tranexamic acid D. Administration of prostaglandin analog

Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate

Characteristics of a drug that allows it to undergo extensive distribution include the following, EXCEPT: A. Charged B. Non-polar C. Water-insoluble D. Unionized

Charged

What is the possible reason why a patient taking Warfarin may have increased risk of hemorrhage when he/she is also taking grapefruit juice? A. The juice is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor. B. The juice also has anticoagulant effects. C. Warfarin increases the amount of the juice. D. The two severely damage the mucosal lining.

The juice is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor

A drug administered via which route would be able to completely reach the systemic circulation? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Oral D. Subcutaneous

Intravenous

The following are functions of gastric/stomach motility: A. To allow the stomach to serve as a reservoir for the large volume of food that may be ingested at a single meal. B. To fragment food into smaller particles via the process of antral milling, and mixing these food particles with gastric secretions to form chyme. C. Emptying gastric context into the duodenum at a controlled rate. D. All of the above.

All of the above.

The following factors will cause an increase in the gastric emptying, EXCEPT: A. Increase in food temperature B. Metoclopramide C. Anxiety, stress, aggressiveness D. GIT with high osmolality

GIT with high osmolality

The following drugs will have increased absorption with food, EXCEPT: A. Penicillin G B. Phenytoin C. Dicoumarol D. Griseofulvin

Penicillin G

This is the best site for GIT absorption. It has a large surface area (due to villi and microvilli) and is highly perfused, thus drug absorption is highly effective in this segment. A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Colon

Duodenum

How does bile affect GI drug absorption? A. Bile increases the absorption of polar drugs through the process of micelle formation. B. Bile increases the absorption of fat-soluble drug through the process of pinocytosis. C. Bile increases the absorption of pola drugs through the process of pinocytosis. D. Bile increases the absorption of non-polar drugs through the process of micelle formation.

Bile increases the absorption of non-polar drugs through the process of micelle formation.

These are any foreign substances not normally found in the human body. A. Toxins B. Poisons C. Xenobiotics D. Antibiotics

Xenobiotics

The ability of a substance to cause biological change, leading to adverse effects. A. Risk B. Hazard C. Toxicity D. Intoxication

Toxicity

This is the smallest dose that kills 50% of the populations and is usually measured in poisons administered at any route except inhalation: A. LD50 B. LC50 C. ED50 D. Therapeutic Index

LD50

TRUE regarding local effects of acids and bases: A. Alkalis are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis (solidification) B. Acids are caustics which lead to liquefactive type of necrosis (perforation) C. Acid are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis (solidification) D. Alkalis are caustics which lead to coagulative type of necrosis (solidification)

Acid are corrosives which lead to coagulative type of necrosis (solidification)

Sternutators are substances which stimulate __________. Examples of which are strychnine and veratrine. A. Excessive flow of tears from lacrimal glands B. Excessive sneezing C. Produce muscular weakness; exhaustives D. Produce mental weakness, depression, stupor, coma, and respiratory depression

Excessive sneezing

Exposure to a toxic substance for 2 months will be classified under: A. Acute B. Sub-acute C. Sub-chronic D. Chronic

Sub-chronic

Which organ system is usually the first one involved during systemic toxicity? A. CNS B. Circulatory System C. Blood and hematopoietic system D. Visceral organs (liver, kidneys, lungs, skin)

CNS

This type of reaction/molecular binding is practically irreversible (permanent). It is common with electrophilic toxicants and to a lesser degree with neutral free radicals. A. Covalent Binding B. Noncovalent Binding C. Hydrogen Abstraction D. Electron Transfer

Covalent Binding

A classic hepatotoxin, but kidney injury is often more severe in humans. It also plays a significant role in atmospheric ozone depletion. A. Tetrachloroethylene B. Methylene chloride C. Carbon Tetrachloride D. Chloroform

Carbon Tetrachloride

It is used primarily in the production of the refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane (Freon 22). Is it hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic. It can invoke CNS symptoms at subanesthetic concentrations (similar to alcohol intoxication). A. Tetrachloroethylene B. Methylene chloride C. Carbon Tetrachloride D. Chloroform

Chloroform

It is derived primarily from petroleum and is used in the synthesis of other chemicals and is used as an antiknock agent in unleaded gasoline. Inhalation is the primary route of exposure. It can cause hematopoietic toxicity on chronic exposure manifesting initially as anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or a combination of these. A. Benzene B. Toluene C. Xylene D. Ethylbenzene

Benzene

This poison identification test is used to detect the presence of acetone. A positive result yields an indigotin, blue ppt). A. Beilstein Test B. Benzoldt Gunning Test C. Marquis Test D. Nessler Test

Benzoldt Gunning Test

Penicillamine acts as a chelator and is given to patients with toxicity to which metal? A. Mercury B. Lead C. Copper D. Arsenic

Copper

In the management of a poisoned patient, a commonly used agent which acts via adsorption is: A. Normal saline solution B. EDTA C. Petroleum jelly D. Activated charcoal

Activated charcoal

Which of the “sampung halamang gamot” approved by the DOH is said to be useful in patients with gout or rheumatic pains? A. Ampalaya B. Ulasimang bato C. Sambong D. Yerba buena

Ulasimang bato

A 30 y/o male with dilated pupils, tachycardia, muscle twitching, and urinary retention. A. Naloxone B. Deferoxamine C. Physostigmine D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

Physostigmine

Salicylate poisoning A. Naloxone B. Deferoxamine C. Physostigmine D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

IV Sodium Bicarbonate

Newborn baby developed respiratory depression due to IV meperidine (an opioid) given to her mother A. Naloxone B. Deferoxamine C. Physostigmine D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

Naloxone

A 53 y/o accidentally ingests 10 tablets of a certain medication and is currently experiencing vomiting, abdominal pain, black-tarry stools, with frequent passage of bloody diarrhea. A. Naloxone B. Deferoxamine C. Physostigmine D. IV Sodium Bicarbonate

Deferoxamine

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 90. Bumetanide A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Loop Diuretic

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 91. Amiloride A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition)

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 92. Brinzolamide A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 93. Metolazone A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Thiazide Diuretic

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 94. Ethacrynic Acid A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Loop Diuretic

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 95. Eplerenone A. Loop Diuretic B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism) D. Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Sodium Channel Inhibition) E. Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Potassium-Sparing Diuretic (via Aldosterone Antagonism)

Match the given drug with their mechanism of action. 96. Metformin A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1 E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 97. Acarbose A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1 E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 98. Vildagliptin A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1 E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 99. Gliclazide A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1 E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release

Match the given drug with their respective pharmacologic classification. 100. Dapagliflozin A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue response to insulin B. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels leading to depolarization, Ca+2 influx, and insulin release C. Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters D. Prevents deactivation/degradation of GLP-1 E. Inhibits alpha glucosidase located in the intestinal brush border

Inhibits reabsorption of glucose by inhibiting sodium-glucose-2 transporters