Module 1 Flashcards

(196 cards)

1
Q

Physical assessment findings for Crohn’s disease:

A

• Fever
• Diarrhea (Five loose stools, a day with mucus/pus)
• Distention 
• High pitched bowel sounds
• Steatorrhea

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2
Q

What disease has abdominal pain/cramping: often RLQ pain and Anorexia/ weight loss?

A

Crohn’s Disease

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3
Q

True or false hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased in Crohn’s disease? 

A

True

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4
Q

List the diagnostic tests that can diagnose, ulcerative colitis:

A

• Sigmoidoscopy
• Colonoscopy
• Barium enema
• CT/MRI 
• Stool sample

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5
Q

Assessment findings for ulcerative colitis:

A

• Fever
• 15 to 20 liquid stools/day
• Mucus, Blood, or Pus in stools
• Distended abdomen
• High pitched bowel sounds
• Rectal bleeding

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6
Q

Name diseases that require yearly colonoscopies due to increased risk of cancer:

A

Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease

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7
Q

Sulfasalazine is used to treat?

A

Crohn’s & Ulcerative colitis

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8
Q

Acute onset of LLQ pain, nausea/vomiting, fever, chills, tachycardia, and distention are manifestations of what disease?

A

Diverticulitis

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9
Q

A capsule endoscopy can be used to diagnose which IBD?

A

Crohn’s

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10
Q

Which IBD manifest with ulceration/inflammation of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

A

Ulcerative Cholitis

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11
Q

What is the treatment plan for treating severe diverticulitis?

A

•Make patient NPO
•Place an NG tube on suction
•IV fluids/ABX
•Opioids

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12
Q

What electrolyte needs to be closely, monitored and replaced with Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease?

A

Potassium

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13
Q

List the different classes of drugs that can be used to treat ulcerative colitis, and Crohn’s:

A

• Sulfonamides
•Non-Sulfonamides
• Corticosteroids
• Immuno suppressants
• Immunomodulators
• Antidiarrheals
• Antimicrobials

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14
Q

Therapeutically treated with a colectomy or possible ileostomy?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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15
Q

This is a life-threatening inflammation of the peritoneum, in the lining of the abdominal cavity:

A

Peritonitis

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16
Q

What occurs due to the destruction of the bowel wall leading to an infection generally caused after surgery and procedures and the G.I.?

A

Abscess / Fistula formation

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17
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s deep seas, which of the following blood laboratory results. Should the nurse expect to be Elavated? SATA

A

•Hematocrit
• ESR(Erythrocyte sedimentation rate)*
• WBC*
• Folic acid
• Albumin

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18
Q

Name the condition that results from a massive dilation of the colon with perforation and the surgical procedure required?

A

Toxic Mega colon, Ileostomy

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19
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking prednisone falling in exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as the priority?

A

• Client reports difficulty sleeping
• The clients urine is positive for glucose
• The client reports having elevated body temperature*
• The client reports gaining 4lbs in the last 6 months

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20
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

• Take the medication 2hrs after eating
• Discontinue this medication if your skin turns yellow-orange
• Notify the provider if you experience a sore throat*
•Expect your stools to turn black

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21
Q

A nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client who has Crohn’s disease which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

• Decrease intake of calorie-dense foods
•Drink, canned protein, supplements *
•Increase intake of high-fiber foods
•Eat high-residue foods

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22
Q

A nurse in the clinic is teaching a client who has ulcerative colitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A

• I will plan to limit fiber in my diet*
• I will restrict fluid intake during meals
• I will switch to black tea instead of drinking coffee
• I will try to eat cold foods, rather than warm when my stomach feels upset

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23
Q

Inflammation of the gall bladder wall

A

Cholecystitis

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24
Q

Stones in the gallbladder

A

Cholelithiasis

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25
Yellowing greenish tent to the skin or sclera
Icterus
26
For mild gallbladder pain want pain medication would you use?
Ketorolac
27
The shockwave method is used to break up small stones and nonsurgical candidates.
Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
28
For interest operative complications during a Coley cystectomy this can be placed in the common bile duct to drain.
T-tube
29
Scan that assesses the patency of the biliary duct system after an IV injection of contrast. 
HIDA scan
30
Patient presents with RUQ pain radiating to the right shoulder, belching, rebound tenderness, tachycardia. What is the patient’s condition? 
Gallbladder
31
An acute or chronic disease that can cause pancreatitis?
Cholecystitis
32
Female with a history of diabetes mellitus, estrogen, therapy, obesity, and of Native American descent is more likely to have what condition?
Cholecystitis or Cholelithiasis
33
A nurse is providing discharge, teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? SATA
• Take a bath rather than a shower • Resume a diet of choice * • Cleanse the puncture site using mild soap and water * • Remove adhesive strips from the puncture site in 24 hours • Report nausea and vomiting to the surgeon*
34
A nurse is reviewing risk factors with a client who has cholecystitis the nurse should identify Which of the following as a risk factor for cholecystitis?
• Obesity* • Rapid wt gain • Decreased blood triglyceride level • Male sex
35
A nurse is completing preoperative, teaching for a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which of the following should be Included in the teaching?
• The scope will be passed through your rectum • You might have shoulder pain after surgery* • You will have a Jackson-Pratt dream place after surgery • You should limit how often you walk for 1 to 2 weeks
36
A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for Chenodiol With a client who has cholelithiasis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
• This medication is used to decrease acute biliary pain • This medication requires thyroid function monitoring every 6 months • This medication is not recommended for clients who have diabetes mellitus • This medication dissolves call stones gradually over up to 2yrs*
37
A nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory reports of a client who has suspected cholelithiasis. Which of the following is an expected finding?
• Blood amylase 80 units/ Liter • WBC 9000/mm^3 • Direct Bilirubin 2.1 mg/dl* •Alkaline phosphate 25 units/Liter
38
This occurs when the pancreas starts to use its digestive enzymes before they reach the intestines.
Pancreatitis
39
List the enzymes that assist with digestion in the pancreas:
• Lipase(fat) • Amylase(carb) •Trypsin(protein)
40
What is the target range for Annalise?
100-300
41
Target range for Bicarbonate?
19-25 What does Bicarbonate do in the body? Maintain healthy pH levels.
42
Left upper quadrant, pain, mid epigastric, pain, and or pain, radiating to the back that is sharp like a knife, severe in nature, and constant or signs of what disorder?
Pancreatitis
43
This is often associated with cholelithiasis, auto immune, pancreatitis, idiopathic pancreatitis, Or hereditary pancreatitis. This is associated with alcohol use in a constant calcifying of the pancreas:
Chronic Progressive Pancreatitis
44
List expected findings for pancreatitis:
• Fetal positioning • N/V • Hypocalcemia • Ascites • Paralytic ileus
45
List metabolic risk factors of pancreatitis:
• Hyperlipidemia • Hypercalcemia • Hyperparathyroidism
46
Another medical term for Ecchymosis of the flank
Grey Turners Spots
47
Laboratory findings for someone with pancreatitis
Increase in blood amylase and lipase, Increase in bilirubin, increased glucose, increased WBC, Decreased platelets, decreased calcium and magnesium
48
Breakdown of the pancreas causes the girl to be
Soapy
49
Another term for Periumbilical discoloration
Cullins sign
50
What is the best Diagnostic test for Pancreatitis?
CT w/Contrast
51
List complications of acute pancreatitis:
• Pseudocyst • Abscess
52
List a ppi and it’s action
Omeprazole-Decreases gastric acid secretions
53
List, an H2 receptor antagonist and its action
Cimetidine- Decreases gastric excretions
54
List an antibiotic that is common for pancreatitis
Imipenem
55
What is a therapeutic treatment that is used if pancreatitis is caused by a gallstone?
An ERCP is Done to create an opening in the sphincter of Oddi.
56
A complication of hypovolemia
3rd spacing Up to 6 L of fluid can be lost in the retroperitoneal space
57
List complications of older adults that can cause pneumonia with pancreatitis:
Left lung effusion and atelectasis
58
A nurse is reviewing the admission laboratory results of a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
• Decreased blood lipase level • Decrease blood amylase level • Increased blood calcium level • Increased blood glucose level*
59
A nurse is preparing to administer pancrelipase to a client who has pancreatitis. Which of the following action should the nurse take?
• Instruct the client to chew the medication before swallowing • Offer a glass of water following medication administration* • Administer the medication 30 minutes before meals • Sprinkle the continents on peanut butter glass of water
60
A nurse is completing an admission assessment of a client who has pancreatitis which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
• Pain in RUQ radiating to right shoulder • Report of pain being worse when sitting upright • Pain relieved with defecating • Epigastric pain radiating to the left shoulder*
61
A nurse is assessing a client who has pancreatitis which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pancreatitis?
• Generalized cyanosis • Hyperactive bowel sounds • Gray blue discoloration of the skin around the umbilicus* • Wheezing in the lower lung fields see
62
A nurse is completing nutrition, teaching for a client who has pancreatitis, which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? SATA
• I plan to eat small, frequent meals • I will eat easy to digest foods with limited spice* • I will use skim milk when cooking* • I plan to drink regular Cola • I will limit alcohol intake to 2 drinks per day
63
Three types of ulcers
Gastric, duodenal, esophageal
64
What is the types of stress ulcers?
Curling’s ulcers with your caused from severe burns Cushing’s ulcers which are caused by head injuries
65
Common causes of PUD in kids
Alcohol, smoking, NSAIDs, H. pylori, and anxiety or stress
66
Adult knowing mid epigastric pain that occurs after eating or clinical characteristics of:
Gastric ulcers
67
This bacteria grows in the stomach and converts urea to carbon dioxide
H. pylori
68
List, noninvasive and invasive test for PUD
Breath urea test, Stool, antigen, serological, endoscopy, and biopsy
69
This test can be done after the insertion of an NG tube to test HCL acid
Gastric analysis
70
This test is used for patients that cannot undergo endoscopy and can diagnose gastric outlet obstruction
Barium contrast study
71
This blood test assesses for anemia
CBC or white blood count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
72
This blood test can determine the pancreatic function win duodenal ulcer penetration of the pancreas is suspected
Serum amylase
73
What would be the plan of care for patient with PUD?
Stop the use of aspirin/NSAIDs for 4 to 6 weeks, smoking, cessation, dietary modification. Inform the patient it could take 3 to 6 days for the pain to subside, complete healing to take 3 to 9 weeks, follow up treatment in 3 to 6 months.
74
List drug therapy for H. Pylori
Antibiotics such as Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin, Proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole, And bismuth salts such as Pepto-Bismol
75
Describe Carafate
It’s a cytoprotective drug, it creates a sucrose barrier, needs to be taken one hour before a meal on an empty stomach, It is a short term treatment for ulcers
76
This synthetic prostaglandin is specifically used to prevent ulcers in the stomach due to NSAIDS.
Misoprostol *Cannot be given to pregnant patients
77
This medication is used in chronic ulcer patients. I have persistent pain and an over secretion of stomach acid.
Tricyclic antidepressants
78
Six small meals a day are recommended during the symptomatic phase of what disorder
PUD
79
Which type of ulcer accounts for a greater percentage of upper G.I. bleeds
Duodenal
80
What is the most common complication of PUD?
Hemorrhage
81
At what point would a physician order for patient to be transfused?
Hemoglobin 8 or below
82
What is the most lethal complication of PUD?
Perforation
83
Complications of PUD perforation
Bacterial peritonitis, which can occur within 6 to 12 hours
84
A patient is predisposed to a gastric outlet obstruction, when ulcers occur in what locations:
The antrum of the stomach, the pre pylorus and the pylorus, as well as the duodenum
85
Signs and symptoms of patient may have an obstruction
N/V, Epigastric, fullness, constipation, weight loss for anorexia, and relief is felt when belching or vomiting.
86
List treatments for gastric outlet obstruction
Continuous section NG allowing for the stomach to heal and regain muscle tone, IV. Fluids, checking residual on your NG, endoscopy with possible balloon, dilation.
87
What is a BilRoth 1?
Removing the antrum and sewing the stomach to the duodenum
88
What is the BilRoth 2? And risk?
Removal of the Antrum, and sewing the stomach to the jejunum- Short gut syndrome
89
What procedure can be done to reduce gastric acid production in the stomach it is highly selective It is followed with what procedure to aid in emptying gastric contents
Vagotomy- Pyloroplasty
90
How fast can dumping syndrome occur after eating
15-30 min
91
To avoid dumping syndrome what is recommended with meals
To avoid drinking fluids, smaller meals, and to lying down for 30 minutes after
92
Name a rare tumor, causing condition caused by hyper suppression of acid, Tell me about the condition.
ZES-Tumor occurs in the gastric triangle which consist of the pancreas, duodenum and stomach because of its location. These tumors are known to wrap around the aorta.
93
Patience on total parenteral, nutrition are at risk for what gallbladder conditions
Cholecystitis Cholelithiasis
94
When the gallbladder is inflamed with no stone
Acalculous
95
When the gallbladder is inflamed with stones
Calculi
96
What percentage of patients are fine after conservative treatment for gallbladder issues
80%
97
Is it indicated for contraindicated for morphine to be used for gallbladder pain? Explain.
It is not recommended to use morphine in Cholelithiasis patients. It can cause contractions in the sphincter of Oddi.
98
Client scheduled for a cholecystectomy ask the nurse how a person can live without a gallbladder. What is the most appropriate response?
• You will be prescribed by a replacement therapy • You will have to permanently eliminate fat from your diet • Try not to worry the gallbladder does not have a vital bodily function • The bile produced by the liver will be directly deposited into the small intestine. *
99
Client is admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following an open Cholecystectomy, which finding would require further investigation?
• Hemoglobin 11.2 mg/dl • Temperature 100.2 F • Urine output of 20 ml/hr* • Incisional pain rated at 7/10
100
Which client would be most at risk to develop a disorder of the gallbladder?
• A 55-year-old female, receiving TPN following a motor vehicle accident* • A 32-year-old female with one child prescribed an oral contraceptive • Hey 64-year-old male with a BMI of 28 and DM • A 42-year-old male diagnosed with a hiatal hernia and hypertension
101
Famotidine is what class of drug and what can it be used to treat?
H2 receptor antagonists - H. Pylori
102
A nurse in the emergency department is completing an assessment of a client who has suspected stomach perforation due to peptic ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse expect? SATA A. Rigid abdomen B. Tachycardia C. Elevated blood pressure D. Circumoral cyanosis. E. Rebound tenderness.
Rigid abdomen, tachycardia, and rebound tenderness
103
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of dumping syndrome following gastric surgery, which is the following information. Should the nurse include in the teaching? A. 83 moderate sized meals a day B. Drink at least one glass of water with each meal. C. Eat a bedtime snack that contains a milk product. D. Increase protein in the diet. 
Increased protein in the diet
104
A nurse is completing discharge, teaching for a client who has an infection due to H. pylori, which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I will continue my prescription for corticosteroids B. I will schedule a CT scan to monitor improvement C. I will take a combination of medication’s for treatment D. I will have my throat swab to recheck for this bacteria.
I will take a combination of medication’s for treatment
105
A nurse is completing an assessment of a client who has a gastric ulcer which of the following findings should the nurse expect SATA A. Client reports pain relieved by eating B. Client states that pain often occurs at night C. Client reports a sensation of bloating D. Client states the pain occurs 30 minutes to an hour after a meal E. Client experiences pain upon palpation of the epigastric region.
Client reports a sensation of bloating, client states the pain occurs 30 minutes to an hour after a meal, client experiences pain upon palpation of the epigastric region
106
The nurse is Teaching a client who has a duodenal ulcer in a new prescription for Esomeprazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? SATA A. Take the medication one hour before meal B. Limit NSAIDs when taking this medication C. Expect skin flushing when taking this medication D. Increase fiber intake when taking this medication E. Choose the medication thoroughly before swallowing.
Take the medication one hour before meal, limit NSAIDs, when taking this medication
107
What is the average age for diagnosis of prostate cancer?
66
108
Inflammation with possible infection of the prostate
Prostatitis
109
Diagnostic procedures for prostate
Digital rectal exam, transracial ultrasound with the Bx, And an early prostate cancer antigen blood test
110
Prostate metastasizes via 3 routes
1. Lymph system 2. Direct extension 3. Bloodstream
111
Direct extension involves:
Seminal vesicles, urethras mucosa, bladder wall, and external sphincter
112
Blood steam metastasizes to
Pelvic bones, head of femur, lower lumbar spine, liver and lungs.
113
Dietary factors that contribute to prostate cancer
Diets high in red meat
114
Clinical manifestation of prostate issues
All the Urias, retention hesitancy, urgency, interruption of urine stream.
115
Symptom of Prostate CA spreading
Back pain. Hip pain. Perineal and rectal discomfort. Weight loss. Spontaneous pathologic fractures.
116
Diagnostic test for prostate and the normal range
PSA 0-4 ng/ml
117
Diagnostic test done to get a prostate biopsy
TRUS
118
DHT lowering medication
Finasteride - This medication can cross the placenta to a male fetus, decreased libido, could take up to 6 months to work
119
What stage of prostate cancer is cancer that has grown outside of the prostate could’ve possibly spread to the seminal vesicles?
Stage 3
120
What is the first line treatment for prostate cancer?
Radical prostatectomy involving vesicles, Best of Friends, nerves, fat, and blood vessel
121
Post surgical expectations after prostatectomy
Turning at the surgical site, indwelling catheter(30ml), Monitor incision sites educate patient on adverse outcomes( dvt, incontinence, hemorrhage, infection, PE, ED)
122
Name the types of radiation therapies for prostate cancer
Teletherapy -Extertal being radiation therapy that is the most common used and it takes 28 treatments over the course of 5 1/2 weeks Brachytherapy-Use of radioactive seeds placed into the prostate. This is used in early-stage disease for advanced tumors. That’ll be used in combination with external being radiation. It is generally it one time outpatient procedure.
123
Hormonal strategies can be both medical and surgical list the therapy’s
Medical castration with androgen deprivation Surgical castration/Orchiectomy
124
Name the medication for LHRH agonist the suppresses testicular androgen
LEUPROLIDE
125
This medication is an anti-androgen receptor antagonist
FLUTAMIDE
126
Chemotherapy that is used in late stage disease in for palliative care. This is only used if the tumor is non-androgen dependent.
DOCETAXEL
127
Nursing care and education for prostate issues
Preventative screening start at age 50, younger If risk factors are present.
128
What are some of the quality of five interventions that can be done for prostate health?
Pharmacological, Penile implants for ED, negative pressure devices
129
This is the score that is used as an assessment tool to determine the severity of manifestations in their effect on the clients quality of life
I-PSS/ The international prostate symptom score
130
What is the most common urologic problem in male adults?
BPH
131
What is often the first symptoms of BPH
Nocturia
132
BPH symptoms types
Irritating symptoms are associated with inflammation or infection Obstructive sometimes I do to urinary retention
133
BPH Complications
Urinary retention, UTI, renal, calculi, kidney failure, or via chemical abnormality that creates sediment build up
134
Range for BUN
7 to 21
135
Your bio chemical abnormality defined as elevation, or buildup of nitrogen is products in the blood and other secondary waste products within the body
Azotemia
136
Diagnostic studies, the porch
DRE, UA, PSA, TRUS Uroflowmetry, Cystoscopy
137
Conservative treatment for BPH
Avoid certain meds, diet, restrict fluid intake, Pee schedule
138
a-Adrenergic receptor blockers and their function
Tamsulosin, Doxazosin, Terazosin Remotes, smooth my story like station in frosting in the bladder neck improves urine flow.
139
5a-Reductase inhibitors and there action
Finasteride & Dutasteride Take 3 to 6 months to show improvement. Where are the size of the prostate gland and can offer symptomatic relief of BPH
140
Saw Palmetto blocks?
The effects of DHT
141
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors and there action
Sildenafil, Taldalafil, Vardenafil Effectively reduce the symptoms of those BPH and erectile dysfunction And AVOID nitroglycerin
142
Therapeutic procedure for ED
Vacuum construction device, penile implant
143
Colorectal cancer, most commonly metastasize to what site in the body
Liver followed by the lungs, Bones and brain
144
What is the most common type of CRC?
Adenocarcinoma
145
What is the most common hereditary colon cancer?
Lynch syndrome
146
And women what is thought to decrease the risk of CRC
Long term use of NSAIDs
147
What type of diet is thought to prevent CRC?
Large amounts of fruit, vegetables and grains
148
What is often the first finding before CRC
Polyps in the colon
149
Which side of the body will lesions, most likely present with doll, abdominal pain, tarry stools, and diarrhea?
Right
150
What is the feelings in complete inoculation after a BM?
Tenesmus
151
I have seven gamers in the colon present as:
Bowel obstruction and bright red blood in the stool
152
The location of a tumor if the patient is experiencing pain obstruction change in bowel, habits, or anemia
Transverse colon
153
Location of a tumor if the patient experiences pain mass change in bowel habits and anemia
Ascending colon
154
Location of the chamber if the patient is experiencing blood in stool change in bowel habits and rectal discomfort
Rectum
155
Location of a Tamar if the patient is experiencing pain change in bowel habits, bright red blood in stool and obstruction
Descending colon
156
Consider the highway to everything else in the body
Lymph nodes
157
Surgical procedure to remove all or part of your colon
Colectomy
158
This results in a temporary colostomy
Preparation/peritonitis
159
Which stage of colorectal cancer which treatment consist of surgery and chemotherapy
Stage 3
160
Bring out nursing care for Bowel prep
Clear liquid diet 24 to 48 hours prior to surgery, bowel prep that was prescribed, antibiotics prior to surgery, we close to the bathroom, educate patient on expectations for postop care
161
When is indicated after balance surgery that a patient is ready for nutrients
When bowel sounds resume and patient has flatulence
162
Which type of ostomy has a lot of output, and is very liquidy
Ileostomy
163
Osteomyelitis on which side would be more formed in a less amount of stool
Left sided
164
In the case where the tumor has involved in the rectum and his large enough to need to remove the anal sphincter, what happens?
A permanent ostomy is placed in the anus is sutured shut Occurs with ulcerative colitis.
165
At what stage is there still enough tissue to be anastomosed and no ostomy is needed
Stage 1-3
166
Ostomy that is continuously draining
Ileostomy
167
Dusky blue stoma indicate
Ischemia
168
How often do you says this time if you’re bleeding?
Q4h
169
Eric acid kidney stones are result of
Too much shellfish, organ meats, mushrooms, and asparagus Patients with gout
170
Calcium oxalate kidney stones, a result of too much
Chocolate, tea, coffee, spinach, sweet potatoes, tomatoes, beans, berries, and beats
171
Struvite kidney stones occur due to
Bacteria that causes urine to come to alkaline leading to stones and then renal infection
172
Diagnostic study to diagnose kidney stones
Noncontrast CT ultrasound UA
173
Treatment for struvite stones
Acetohydroxamic acid Antibiotics Surgical removal
174
Procedures to remove urinary tract calculi
Ureteroscopy, Cystolitholapaxy Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
175
What type of diet is best for Cystine kidney stones?
Low protein
176
Pyelonephritis and example of
Upper UTI
177
Antimicrobial therapy for UTI
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole Ampicillin Cephlosporin-tendon rupture
178
Types of acute nephritis
Interstitial nephritis pyelonephritis Glomerulonephritis
179
Pyelonephritis is left untreated
Kidney failure occurs
180
This leads to hydronephrosis and renal impairment
Interstitial nephritis
181
Renal vasoconstriction, reduced medullary blood flow and intrarenal ischemia result from
Hypokalemia
182
What is a common side effect due to allergic reactions to drugs?
Acute interstitial nephritis
183
Symptoms of acute interstitial nephritis
Mental status changes, decree steering output, fever, edema, weight gain, hypertension, hematuria
184
Lab that is drawn for metabolic acidosis
ABG
185
Inflammatory disease of the lungs
Sarcoidosis
186
Urosepsis can result from
Acute pyelonephritis
187
The septic shock resulting from acute pyelonephritis
Urosepsis which can lead to death
188
Diagnostic test to confirm acute pyelonephritis
CT scan ultrasound blood culture urine culture
189
Acute paranoia, Friday’s treatment could last for
6 weeks
190
Chronic pyelonephritis
Due to the current infections in the air for your new retract, the Kimmie uses shape, shrinks and loses function due to scarring
191
Dietary changes for chronic Pyelonephritis
Oh sodium diet fresh foods, not prepackaged
192
Treatment for chronic pyelonephritis
Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy 3 to 4 L of fluids a day antibiotics and antipyretics
193
This is an acute Postinfectious glomerulonephritis that occurs after
5-21 Days after infections in the tonsils, pharynx or skin
194
This can lead to you in stage kidney disease without treatment
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
195
Treatment for rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Corticosteroid, Cytotoxic agents, and plasmapheresis
196
This type of medication or lower proteinuria and help to lower bp
ACE inhibitors