Module 1 Flashcards

(122 cards)

1
Q

-Sectional nephrolithotomy is performed because of coronary artery disease. To reduce blood loss it is
shown:

A

Administration of epsilon-aminocaproic acid in the pre-vein

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2
Q

-A 26-year-old G3P0030 has had three consecutive spontaneous abortions in the first trimester. As part
of an evaluation for this problem, which of the following tests is most appropriate in the evaluation of
this patient?

A

Chromosomal analysis of the couple

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3
Q

-A 61-year-old man with a history of stone disease and multiple bilateral ureterolithotomies is seen with
a fever of 103◦F, pyuria and microheamaturia. An IVP reveals a 6-mm right mid-ureteral calculus with
delayed function of the right kidney and marked obstruction. In addition to beginning parenteral
antibiotics, the most reasonable immediate management option is:

A

placement of a ureteral stent to bypass the obstruction

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4
Q

-A 19-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestation. Her
pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes requiring insulin for control. She has been
noncompliant with diet and insulin therapy. She has had two prior normal ultrasounds at 20 and 28
weeks gestation. She has no other significant past medical or surgical history. During the visit, the fundal
height measures 38 cm. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy
between the fundal height and the gestational age?

A

Polyhydramnios

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5
Q

-diagnosis of kidney aplasia is based on:

A

Angiography

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6
Q

-A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She
undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the
recovery room 4 h after her surgery the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung
exam reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is
ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?

A

Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler’s)

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7
Q

-Your patient had an ultrasound examination today at 39 weeks gestation for size less than dates. The
ultrasound showed oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index of 1.5 centimeters. The patient’s cervix
is unfavorable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A

Admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening then induction of labor

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8
Q

-the patient is 16 years old, has congenital phimosis. What can be suitable for him:

A

Circumcision

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9
Q

-A 39-year-old wants first-trimester prenatal diagnosis. Which of the following is an advantage of
amniocentesis over CVS?

A

CVS has a higher complication rate than midtrimester amniocentesis

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10
Q

-A 36-year-old obese woman with known PCOS presents to your infertility practice. She was diagnosed
with PCOS at the age of 24 years, at which time she reports having had a battery of tests done. She has
been followed by her general gynecologist who has maintained her on oral contraceptive pills since that
time. She reports she is otherwise healthy. She now desires to get pregnant and is coming to you for
advice. What is one of the most important tests to perform at this time?

A

2-hour oral glucose tolerance test

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11
Q

-You are following a 38-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks in labor. She has had one prior vaginal delivery of a
3800-g infant. One week ago, the estimated fetal weight was 3200 g by ultrasound. Over the past 3 h
her cervical exam remains unchanged at 6 cm. Fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. An intrauterine
pressure catheter reveals two contractions in 10 min with an amplitude of 40 mmHg each. Which of the
following is the best management for this patient?

A

Administration of oxytocin

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12
Q

-You are a world-renowned reproductive endocrinologist and are asked to make a diagnosis for a patient
who has ambiguous genitalia. Here are the data: Karyotype XY Spermatogenesis Absent Müllerian
structures Absent Wolffi an structures Present External genitalia Male hypospadias Breast Gynecomastia
The diagnosis is:

A

Reifenstein syndrome

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13
Q

-A mother brings her 18-year-old daughter in to see you because she has not started to develop breasts
and has not had a period. You diagnose delayed puberty. Which one of the following statements is true?

A

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism affects approximately 50% of patients presenting with delayed
puberty

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14
Q

-A 15-year-old girl, gravida 0, para 0, presents with a history of severe midline lower abdominal pain
associated with her periods since the age of 12 years. Vaginal examination is not performed because the
patient is still virginal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals normal pelvic anatomy. The patient’s mother
and two older sisters have a history of endometriosis. She has tried NSAIDs and oral contraceptive pills
to control her pain but neither has helped. What is the next step in your management?

A

Diagnostic laparoscopy

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15
Q

-An 8-year-old girl is brought to your office by her mother because of occasionally bloody vaginal
discharge. Her mother suspects sexual abuse because she does not “know of any other reason why a
little girl should be bleeding from her vagina.” She has no other medical history except for a throat
infection a few weeks ago, which was treated with penicillin. On physical examination, she has
enlargement of both breasts and enlarged areolae. There is no axillary hair growth. No pubic hair is
apparent. The external genitalia have an age-appropriate clitoris and normal labia minora. There are no
bruises, hematomas, or lacerations. You take a culture of the vaginal discharge, which is pink to red
colored and not foul smelling. You are not able to perform a more thorough examination. The most
likely cause of her vaginal bleeding is:

A

Bacterial infection

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16
Q

-the peak of occurrence of urolithiasis coincide with:

A

Max Temp

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17
Q

-A 30-year-old G2P0 at 39 weeks is admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of membranes
occurring 2 h prior to admission. The patient noted clear fluid at the time. On exam her cervix is 4 cm
dilated and completely effaced. The fetal head is at 0 station and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive.
Two hours later on repeat exam her cervix is 5 cm dilated and the fetal head is at +1 station. Early
decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate tracing. Which of the following is the best next step in
her labor management?

A

Initiate Pitocin augmentation

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18
Q

-You are delivering a 33-year-old G3P2 and encounter a shoulder dystocia. After performing the
appropriate maneuvers, the baby finally delivers, and the pediatricians attending the delivery note that
the right arm is hanging limply to the baby’s side with the forearm extended and internally rotated.
Which of the following is the baby’s most likely diagnosis?

A

Erb palsy

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19
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents to your office with an ultrasound report stating she has “polycystic
appearing ovaries.” She has a friend who has PCOS and is currently having trouble conceiving and wants
to know what this means for her. You tell her that she may have PCOS if she also

A

Is hirsute

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20
Q

-You performed a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery on a 20-year-old G1 at 40 weeks for maternal
exhaustion. The patient had pushed for 3 hours with an epidural for pain management. A second-degree
episiotomy was cut to facilitate delivery. Eight hours after delivery, you are called to see the patient
because she is unable to void and complains of severe pain. On examination you note a large fluctuant
purple mass inside the vagina. What is the best management for this patient?

A

. Incision and evacuation of the hematoma

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21
Q

-A pediatrician asks you to consult on a case of a baby that was born with because they are not able to
assign a gender. There is a significant degree of clitoral enlargement and labial folds are
uncharacteristically large and partially fused. You recommend:

A

C Serum sodium level

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22
Q

-An 11-year-old girl presents with a 1.5-month history of a persistent white colored vaginal discharge
that is watery and odorless. There is no associated pain or pruritis. Examination reveals Tanner stage III
breasts and stage II pubic hair. Wet mount is negative for clue cells and yeast. Please select the most
appropriate management:

A

Observation

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23
Q

-A 65-year-old man has continuous urinary dribbling following a trans-urethral resection of the prostate
for benign hyperplasia. Possible explanations include:

A

all of the above

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24
Q

-A 24-year-old woman is in a car accident and is taken to an emergency room, where she receives a
chest x-ray and a film of her lower spine. It is later discovered that she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of
the following is the most appropriate statement to make to the patient?

A

The fetus has received less than the assumed threshold for radiation damage

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25
-A man of 60 is investigated for symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction and the diagnosis is made of moderate benign prostatic hypertrophy leading to an obstructed urinary flow and incomplete bladder emptying. It is decided to treat him conservatively with medication. He is on no other medication and is otherwise fit. Appropriate drugs would include:
all of the above
26
-Diagnosis of Urethritis is based on all except:
Blood clinical analysis and prostate secretion analysis
27
-The most common location of the urethral hole during hipospady is
On the ventral surface of the penis
28
-The most common histological type of testicular, genital cancer is:
Seminoma
29
-. A healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to counsel this patient?
Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to meet the demands of pregnancy
30
-the patient is 40 years old, has a solitary cyst of the middle segment of the kidney 7X8X8 cm without any signs of urodynamic disturbance and inflammation. It is more advisable..?
percutaneous puncture of the cyst, aspiration and insertion of a sclerosing solution into the cavity of the cyst
31
in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the symptoms which correlate most with obstruction are all the following except:
Urgency
32
- A 28-year-old women with PCOS and her husband present to your infertility clinic for consultation. She stopped taking her oral contraceptive pills 6 months ago and has not had a period since. She is morbidly obese and her past medical history is significant for sleep apnea and diabetes. She and her husband want get pregnant and ask for your help. What would be your first recommendation to increase their chances of conception at this time?
Weight loss program
33
-A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit secondary to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp and occurring with movement and exercise. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits. She also denies any fever or chills. The application of a heating pad helps alleviate the discomfort. As her obstetrician, what should you tell this patient is the most likely etiology of this pain?
Round ligament pain
34
-While acute cystitis, which type of examination is shown:
Cystoscopy (in most cases)
35
-A 26-year-old woman presents complaining of intermenstrual spotting over the last 3 months, accompanied by minimal flow during her menses. She has been taking the same low-dose combined oral contraceptive faithfully for the last 5 years. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The most probable explanation for her symptoms is:
Progesterone breakthrough bleeding
36
-the torsion of the testis is characterized by:
Sudden onset of the disease, with rapidly increasing scrotal oedema, pronounced pain syndrome, scrotal hyperthermia
37
-32-year-old female, gravida 1, para 1, presents with worsening pelvic pain with her period. She reports that her previous providers told her she likely has endometriosis based upon a longstanding history of dysmenorrhea but lately her pain is worse. She also complains of left-sided pain with intercourse and when she is jogging. She is sexually active with a single partner and uses condoms for birth control. She has had no prior surgeries and no other medical problems. On physical examination she is afebrile, has a nontender abdomen but on pelvic examination, has an enlarged left adnexal mass that is approximately 5 cm and is mildly tender to palpation. The next appropriate step is:
Obtain a pelvic ultrasound to evaluate the pelvis
38
- During the follicular phase, hormone X provides negative feedback and suppresses FSH expression from the pituitary. Hormone Y is responsible for stimulation of the LH surge. Hormone Z is responsible for the conversion of primary oocytes to secondary oocytes.
Hormones X and Y are the same
39
-A 23-year-old G1 at 40 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with the complaint of contractions. She states they are occurring every 4 to 8 minutes and each lasts approximately 1 minute. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. The nurse places an external tocometer and fetal monitor and reports that the patient is having contractions every 2 to 10 minutes. The nurse states that the contractions are mild to palpation. On examination the cervix is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the vertex is at −1 station. The patient had the same cervical examination in your office last week. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. Which of the following stages of labor is this patient in?
False labor
40
-a 15-year-old female is brought to your office complaining of severe dysmenorrhea that has become progressively worse since the onset of menses. Menarche occurred at age 13. The pain is located predominantly on the right side, lasts for the duration of the menstrual fl ow, and at its worst is associated with nausea and vomiting. She has had to miss school with every menstrual period for the past year. She has tried nonsteroidal medications, which initially helped but no longer relieve the pain significantly. The next step in management is:
Obtain a pelvic ultrasound
41
- A 41-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks, who has been completely dilated and pushing for 3 hours, has an epidural in place and remains undelivered. She is exhausted and crying and tells you that she can no longer push. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F). The fetal heart rate is in the 190s with decreased variability. The patient’s membranes have been ruptured for over 24 hours, and she has been receiving intravenous penicillin for a history of colonization with group B streptococcus bacteria. The patient’s cervix is completely dilated and effaced and the fetal head is in the direct OA position and is visible at the introitus between pushes. Extensive caput is noted, but the fetal bones are at the +3 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Attempt operative delivery with forceps
42
-the paradoxal ishuria is:
Combination of urinary retention with involuntary urinary incontinence
43
-Urethral stricture may develop in men as a consequence of
All of the above
44
-In which age is urolithiasis most common?
20-40
45
-A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, undergoes a laparoscopy and bilateral tubal ligation. During her laparoscopy, you find incidentally that she has endometriotic lesions on her uterosacral ligaments and the peritoneum overlying her bladder. She is not consented for fulguration of her endometriosis; therefore, you only perform her tubal ligation. She comes to your office for her postoperative visit. She has no symptoms from her endometriosis. Your next step in her management is:
Expectant management
46
-A 23-year-old G1 at 38 weeks gestation presents in active labor at 6 cm dilated with ruptured membranes. On cervical examination the fetal nose, eyes, and lips can be palpated. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient’s pelvis is adequate. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery
47
-anterior and medial to the left kidney
Pancreas
48
-after a caesarean section, a 30-year-old woman underwent lower-third ureteral occlusion at 5 cm in length. percutaneous nephrostomy was performed. Hereafter the optimal treatment is
Nephrectomy
49
-A 15-year-old girl presents to your office with her mother because she has never had a period. They report that she seemed to grow and develop breasts at the same time as the other girls in school, but that she has not yet started to menstruate. She is active in sports at her school and plays the piano. She is 5’4’’, 128 lb; an examination reveals Tanner IV breast and pelvic examination reveals a blind vaginal pouch. Ultrasound confirms absence of a uterus. An FSH level is normal at 5.8 mIU/mL. The next step in the evaluation is:
Karyotype
50
-The most informative method of the diagnosis of para-nephritis is:
Puncture of para-nephral space
51
-A healthy 30-year-old G1P0 at 41 weeks gestational age presents to labor and delivery at 11:00 PM because she is concerned that her baby has not been moving as much as normal for the past 24 hours. She denies any complications during the pregnancy. She denies any rupture of membranes, regular uterine contractions, or vaginal bleeding. On arrival to labor and delivery, her blood pressure is initially 140/90 but decreases with rest to 120/75. Her prenatal chart indicates that her baseline blood pressures are 100 to 120/60 to 70 mm Hg. The patient is placed on an external fetal monitor. The fetal heart rate baseline is 180 beats per minute with absent variability. There are uterine contractions every 3 minutes accompanied by late fetal heart rate decelerations. Physical examination indicates that the cervix is long/closed/−2. Which of the following is the appropriate plan of management for this patient?
Proceed with emergent cesarean section
52
-A 38-year-old G3P2 at 40 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with gross rupture of membranes occurring 1 hour prior to arrival. The patient is having contraction every 3 to 4 minutes on the external tocometer, and each contraction lasts 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. The patient has a history of rapid vaginal deliveries, and her largest baby was 3200 g. On cervical examination she is 5 cm dilated and completely effaced, with the vertex at −2 station. The estimated fetal weight is 3300 g. The patient is in a lot of pain and requesting medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of pain control for this patient?
Epidural block
53
-A 22-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestational age. She voices concern because she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest, and arms. She is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins and wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
54
-The optimal treatment for in situ bladder carcinoma is :
Intravesical BCG
55
-a 30-year-old G1P0 at 8 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. She has no significant past medical or surgical history. A friend of hers just had a baby with Down syndrome. The patient denies any family history of genetic disorders or birth defects. You should tell her that she has an increased risk of having a baby with Down syndrome in which of the following circumstances?
She has had three first-trimester spontaneous abortions
56
- A 15-year-old female is referred to you because of worsening dysmenorrhea, associated with nausea and vomiting. She has had such severe vomiting that she has not been able to go to school for the past 6 months and has forced out of the cheerleading squad because of her frequent absences. The rest of her medical history is notable for asthma, irritable bowel, and renal agenesis diagnosed during her fetal ultrasound. Her abdominal examination reveals no masses, but is mildly tender. Her external genetalia appear normal, but she refuses an internal examination. Her pediatrician has given her a diagnosis of “cyclic vomiting syndrome” and is treating her with antinausea medication and antidepressants and has referred her to a psychiatrist. Her mother is at her wits end and is coming to you for a second opinion. You recommend:
Pelvic ultrasound
57
-A 46-year-old woman, gravida 6, para 4, presents complaining of a 2-year history of heavy menstrual fl ow lasting 9 days, with occasional episodes of soaking her clothes and bedsheets with menstrual blood. She has a history of bilateral tubal ligation. Her menses are occurring every 26 days, and she denies any bleeding between menses. The rest of her history is unremarkable. The test most likely to aid in diagnosis would be:
Pelvic ultrasound
58
-A 33-year-old G3P2012 presents for an annual examination. She had a Pap smear showing ASC-US at age 22. She has received annual Pap tests since that time and all have been normal. She is in a monogamous relationship with her husband of 15 years. She had never had an STI. She uses an IUD for birth control. She asks you how she should be screened for cervical cancer. You inform her:
Both B and C are correct
59
-How many times more frequently does urolithiasis occur in men than women:
3-4x
60
-A 20-year-old woman, G1P0, at 33 weeks of gestation arrives to labor and delivery reporting profuse vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her vitals are as follows: T – 36 C, BP - 78/40, P - 138, R - 28. Her abdomen is firm and tender to touch. Fetal heart tones are in the 160s with minimal variability and late decelerations. Tocometer demonstrates contractions every 1 to 2 minutes. Ultrasound shows a cephalic fetus; placenta is fundal and free of the os without a retroplacental clot. Cervical examination is 3/90/ ⫺ 1. Which is the most appropriate management plan?
Immediate cesarean delivery with appropriate maternal and fetal resuscitation;
61
-Operative treatment of penile hypospadias is shown in the following cases:
Always;
62
-Theories of urinary stone formation include the following:
Renal hypersecretion of stone-forming Salts;
63
-While having varicocele, Ivanisevich's operation implies:
Ligation of the testicular vein in the middle
64
-A 29-year-old Caucasian primigravid patient is 20 weeks pregnant with twins. She found out today on her routine ultrasound for fetal anatomy that she is carrying two boys. In this patient’s case, which of the following statements about twinning is true?
. If division of these twins occurred after formation of the embryonic disk, the twins will be conjoined
65
-A primipara is in labor, and an episiotomy is about to be cut. Compared with a midline episiotomy, which of the following is an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy?
Less extension of the incision;
66
-A 24-year-old primigravida with twins presents for routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks gestation. Based on the ultrasound findings, the patient is diagnosed with dizygotic twins. Which of the following is true regarding the membranes and placentas of dizygotic twins?
They are dichorionic and diamniotic regardless of the sex of the twins.
67
-After a first pregnancy resulted in a spontaneous loss in the first trimester, your patient is concerned about the possibility of this recurring. Which of the following is the most appropriate answer regarding the chance of recurrence?
d. It is no differ
68
-A new patient presents to your office for her first prenatal visit. By her last menstrual period she is 11 weeks pregnant. This is the first pregnancy for this 36-year-old woman. She has no medical problems. At this visit you observe that her uterus is palpable midway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. No fetal heart tones are audible with the Doppler stethoscope. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the fetus
69
-The typical symptom of acute urethritis is:
Frequent urination, pains during urination; urethral discharge
70
-You are following a 22-year-old G2P1 at 39 weeks during her labor. She is given an epidural for pain management. Three hours after administrating the pain medication, the patient’s cervical examination is unchanged. Her contractions are now every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate tracing is 120 beats per minute with accelerations and early decelerations. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Place an IUPC
71
-A 16-year-old girl had had irregular vaginal bleeding every 1 to 4 weeks since she fi rst started menstruating approximately 10 months ago. The bleeding is usually light but sometimes is heavy. Her last episode of bleeding (moderate in quantity) lasted for about 2 weeks. The next best step is to:
Obtain a pregnancy test
71
-A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
Secondary arrest of dilation
71
-a healthy 12-year-old girl complains of several weeks of vaginal itching. She denies having vaginal discharge or a foul odor. The patient leads an active lifestyle—she is on the swim team, plays soccer, and performs gymnastics. She does well in school and desires to become a veterinarian. Her mother accompanies her to the office visit. You suspect a vaginal yeast infection and would like to prepare a slide for microscopy. The appropriate steps include:
Both B and D are correct
72
-A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
Perform an emergent cesarean section
72
-Urinary tract cancers most common among children are:
Wilms Tumor
73
-A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
Secondary arrest of dilation
74
-A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
Perform an emergent cesarean section
75
A 43-year-old G1P0 who conceived via in vitro fertilization comes into the office for her routine OB visit at 38 weeks. She denies any problems since she was seen the week before. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid per vagina, vaginal bleeding, or regular uterine contractions. She reports that sometimes she feels crampy at the end of the day when she gets home from work, but this discomfort is alleviated with getting off her feet. The fundal height measurement is 36 cm; it measured 37 cm the week before. Her cervical examination is 2 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Instruct the patient to return to the office in 1 week for her next routine visit.
76
During in vitro fertilization, medical stimulation causes multiple follicles to develop to the stage of ovulation, rather than just one dominant follicle. What hormone is responsible for this multifollicular development?
FSH, because the high FSH levels support the growing follicles
77
-A concerned mother brings her 17-year-old daughter to your offi ce for a second opinion. The patient appears to have normal female secondary sexual characteristics with normal breast development as well as normal pubic and axillary hair growth. However, the mother is very concerned because her child still has not gotten her period. After review of the records you learn that the initial gynecologist made a diagnosis of a müllerian agenesis after obtaining an abnormal pelvic ultrasound and a normal (46,XX) karyotype. You recommend:
Complete retroperitoneal ultrasound to evaluate for renal or urinary tract anomalies
78
-A 26-year-old female is referred to your office by her primary care doctor. She reports regular menses in the past, but has not had a period for 2 years. She did not bleed after a course of progesterone prescribed by her doctor. On examination she is 58 inches tall, has normal secondary sexual characteristics. Laboratory test reveals an FSH level of 82 mIU/mL and estradiol of 26 pg/mL. What is the next step in her evaluation?
Karyotype
79
-A 32-year-old woman returns to your care 5 months after the birth of her child. She had a postpartum hemorrhage following vaginal delivery of her son, requiring emergency surgery and multiple blood transfusions. She complains of fatigue, constipation, and states that her periods have not returned despite the fact that she has not been able to breastfeed. Her laboratory test reveals an FSH level of 1.2 mIU/mL, TSH of 0.3 IU/mL, and prolactin of 1 ng/mL. The most likely etiology of her secondary amenorrhea is:
Sheehan’s syndrome
80
-34-year-old woman, gravida 0, presents to you reporting bleeding between her periods with cycles that seem irregular and more than 40 days apart. She has never had monthly periods. She is bothered by acne as well as hair growth on her face, chest, and abdomen. She would like to become pregnant. She denies any medical problems but states that her doctor has advised her to lose weight because of borderline diabetes. She is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 230 lb. Her gynecologic examination is unremarkable. The most likely explanation for her abnormal uterine bleeding is:
Polycystic Ovarian syndrome
81
-A pregnant woman who is seven weeks from her LMP comes into the office for her first prenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy ended in a missed abortion in the first trimester. The patient, therefore, is very anxious about the well-being of this pregnancy. Which of the following modalities will allow you to best document fetal heart action?
Transvaginal sonogram
82
-During the routine examination of the umbilical cord and placenta after a spontaneous vaginal delivery, you notice that the baby had only one umbilical artery. Which of the following is true regarding the finding of a single umbilical artery?
. It is an indicator of an increased incidence of congenital anomalies of the fetus;
83
-A 62-year-old G2P2002 presents for a routine examination. Her last period was 10 years ago and she has had no postmenopausal bleeding. She brings a copy of her records that indicate a history of normal Pap tests for the past 20 years, with the most recent 1 year ago. Her last mammogram was 2 years ago. She takes a calcium and vitamin D supplement. She took estrogen and progesterone replacement therapy in early menopause but stopped 8 years ago. Her vasomotor symptoms are minimal. She is otherwise healthy and on no medications. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. You recommend the following screening tests.
Mammogram
84
-. A 22-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation by LMP presents to labor and delivery complaining of decreased fetal movement. She has had no prenatal care. On the fetal monitor there are no contractions. The fetal heart rate is 150 beats per minute and reactive. There are no decelerations in the fetal heart tracing. An ultrasound is performed in the radiology department and shows a 28-week fetus with normal-appearing anatomy and size consistent with dates. The placenta is implanted on the posterior uterine wall and its margin is well away from the cervix. A succenturiate lobe of the placenta is seen implanted low on the anterior wall of the uterus. Doppler flow studies indicate a blood vessel is traversing the cervix connecting the two lobes. This patient is most at risk for which of the following?
Fetal exsanguination after rupture of the membranes
85
-You are seeing a patient in the hospital for decreased fetal movement at 36 weeks gestation. She is healthy and has had no prenatal complications. You order a BPP. The patient receives a score of 8 on the test. Two points were deducted for lack of fetal breathing movements. How should you counsel the patient regarding the results of the BPP?
The results are normal, and she can go home
86
-A 41-year-old had a baby with Down syndrome ten years ago. She is anxious to know the chromosome status of her fetus in her current pregnancy. She is currently at eight weeks of gestation. Which of the following tests will provide the most rapid diagnosis of Down syndrome?
Chorionic villus sampling(CVS);
87
-An 18-year-old college student presents to your offi ce feeling depressed and irritable from 3 days prior to her menses until the day after her menses start. She reports that she frequently has to stay home from classes and is worried about its potential impact on her performance. She reports she is otherwise healthy. Menarche was at age 12, and her menses are currently regular each month. She denies signifi - cant menstrual cramping or bloating. She is sexually active with one partner, using condoms for contraception. She reports a penicillin allergy. Providing that her symptoms are prospectively documented and confi rmed, what would be possible treatments for this woman?
Calcium carbonate
88
-A 14-year-old nulligravid girl presents to the emergency department by ambulance because she passed out on the fl oor of her house and is covered in blood. She is now conscious. She has been bleeding off and on for the past 5 months since onset of menarche. Her BP 98/48, P 106, RR 16, and T 96.2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Pelvic ultrasound is also unremarkable. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative, and her hemoglobin is 7 g/dL. You begin a low-dose combination oral contraceptive taper. The next best step in management of this patient is:
Coagulation profile
89
-The patient has a scrotal lesion, a large hematoma; the next steps must be:
Operative treatment, revision and drainage;
90
-Specify the optimal time for operative treatment in uncomplicated hipospady:
1-2 years
91
-Renal hypoplasia is characterized by:
arterial hypertension
92
-The normal amount of blood, circulated in the adult human kidney is on average
At 1100 ml / min
93
-The blood supply of the penis is provided:
2. Internal and external genital arteries
94
- most common congenital abnormality of the kidney are:
Kidney and ureter duplication
95
- Struvite stone is:
3. Stone caused by infection
96
-5-year-old patient has been diagnosed with “right sided orchitis”....?
Testicular torsion
97
-which type of urinary incontinence is seen mostly in female patients?
-which type of urinary incontinence is seen mostly in female patients?
98
-all of the above is true of cryptocurrency except one:
spontaneous migration of the gland may occur or association with hernia
99
-disorder of the structure of the kidney is:
solitatory cyst
100
- A 17-year-old female presents to you complaining of never having had a period. She reports breast development at the age of 13 years. She is 55 and weighs 125 lb. You suspect she has MRKH and not CAIS. Which one of the following is consistent with the diagnosis of MRKH but not with CAIS?
Scant/absent pubic hair, normal axillary hair
101
-A 24-year-old female comes in for a new patient visit with the complaint of missed menstrual cycles. She states her period has never been regular, and that in the past it was common for her to skip a month or two between cycles. Now, however, she has not had a period in the past 7 months. She denies sexual activity, reports no medical problems, and her only prescribed medication is a face wash for acne. On review of systems she reports a weight gain of 10 lb over the past year. Her laboratory test reveals an FSH level of 8.7 mIU/mL, LH of 22.2 mIU/mL, estradiol of 45 pg/mL, TSH of 2.2 mIU/mL, prolactin of 12 ng/mL, and total testosterone of 98 ng/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:
Polycystic ovary syndrome
102
- A 29-year-old nulligravida comes to your offi ce due to vaginal discharge for 3 weeks. The discharge is described as yellow-green, copious, and malodorous. She also has vulvar irritation. She informs you that she has been in a monogamous same-sex relationship for 3 years. She otherwise has no complaints. The most appropriate next step in management is to:
E Obtain a vaginal swab for office microscopy to assess for bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis
103
- A 25-year-old woman comes to your offi ce complaining of irregular menses and hair on her chin, upper lip, and chest that requires frequent plucking. She reports that she is otherwise healthy. On physical examination, you notice increased hair on her lower abdomen and upper back, but the rest of the examination and her vitals are normal. Which laboratory tests would you NOT order for this patient?
24-hour urinary free cortisol
104
- A 51-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, presents to your offi ce with complaints of heavy menstrual fl ow that has been persistent over the last 6 weeks, occurring after a 7-month break from her periods. Her periods were monthly and regular until the age of 46 years. Review of systems is negative and she specifi cally denies lightheadedness. Her speculum examination is unremarkable. The bimanual examination reveals a slightly enlarged, regular contour, anteverted uterus that is nontender to palpation. The next best step in management is:
Endometrial biopsy
105
. A 24-year-old woman has had three first-trimester spontaneous abortions. Which of the following statements concerning chromosomal aberrations in abortions is true?
Despite the relatively high frequency of Down syndrome at term, most Down fetuses abort spontaneously
106
A 27-year-old woman (G3P2) comes to the delivery floor at 37 weeks gestation. She has had no prenatal care. She complains that, on bending down to pick up her 2-year-old child, she experienced sudden, severe back pain that now has persisted for 2 hours. Approximately 30 minutes ago she noted bright red blood coming from her vagina. By the time she arrives at the delivery floor, she is contracting strongly every 3 minutes; the uterus is quite firm even between contractions. By abdominal palpation, the fetus is vertex with the head deeply engaged. Fetal heart rate is 130 beats per minutes. The fundus is 38 cm above the symphysis. Blood for clotting is drawn, and a clot forms in 4 minutes. Clotting studies are sent to the laboratory. Which of the following actions can most likely wait until the patient is stabilized?
d. Administering oxytocin
107
- A 44-year-old G3P3 female presents with severe pelvic pain. Her history is notable for a laparoscopy 3 years ago for severe endometriosis requiring laser ablation of endometriosis on her uterosacral ligaments, dissection of pelvic adhesions and excision of a 4-cm endometrioma from her left ovary. She had been managed by GnRH agonist therapy for 4 months postoperatively followed by continuous oral contraceptive pill use. She had initial relief of symptoms; however, she is now bothered by daily pain, dyspareunia, and dyschezia. Pelvic examination reveals a fi xed retroverted uterus and bilateral uterosacral ligament nodularity. A pelvic ultrasound shows a normal uterus and right ovary and a 3-cm homogenous echogenic cyst consistent with an endometrioma of the left ovary. She does not desire future childbearing and desires the most effective therapy to relieve the pain. The most appropriate management is:
Total abdominal hysterectomy bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH/BSO)
108
-stranguria is found:
at all times listed
109
- A 25-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks is admitted in labor at 5 cm dilated. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Two hours later, she is reexamined and her cervix is unchanged at 5 cm dilated. An IUPC is placed and the patient is noted to have 280 Montevideo units (MUV) by the IUPC. After an additional 2 hours of labor, the patient is noted to still be 5 cm dilated. The fetal heart rate tracing remains reactive. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this labor?
Perform a cesarean section
110
-the higher the degree of reflux, the degree of renal damage
increases
111
-A previously fit young woman of 28 years presents with acute loin pain and a fever. An emergency IVU shows a right hydronephrosis with obstruction of the right ureter caused by a 10-mm stone impacted in the right ureter at the level of a sacroiliac joint. The most appropriate immediate treatment will be:
. immediate cystoscopy and the passage of a ureteric catheter by-passed the stone to relieve the obstruction
112
-which of the following include the highest amount of oxalate?
Tea and coffee
113
-cystitis is most commonly reported at age:
21-40
114
-the etiological factors contributing to the development of renal cancer are:
tobacco
115
- A 27-year-old woman presents to your offi ce complaining of not getting her period. She came off of the birth control pill 9 months ago to attempt pregnancy and has not had a period since. Multiple home pregnancy tests have been negative. She states she underwent menarche at the age of 12 years, and that she did not always get a period every month during high school but was told this was normal because she was an athlete. She continues to be very athletic, running 5 to 6 times per week and also bikes. She is 56 and 124 lb and has no hirsutism or acne.
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea
116
- You diagnose the previous patient with PCOS and she would like to know what she can do to help with the excessive hair growth. She is currently on no medications. Which one of the following treatments for hirsutism would you NOT prescribe to her alone?
Flutamide
117
- A 40-year-old woman pregnant at 6 weeks gestation presents to your office for prenatal care. She is interested in prenatal testing for genetic abnormalities. She read on the Internet that an ultrasound measurement of the neck of the fetus can be used in prenatal diagnosis. Which of the following is correct information to tell your patient regarding ultrasound measurement of the fetal nuchal translucency for prenatal diagnosis?
It is a screening test for Down syndrome performed between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy
118
2-month-old boy diagnosed with cryptorchidism inguinal retention form, combined with the clinically pronounced hernia. It is mandatory to:
Operational intervention
119
Chronic urine retention in prostatic hypertrophy is:
painless