Module 1 Flashcards
(212 cards)
1
Q
What is the Chicago Convention also known as?
A
The Convention on International Civil Aviation
It established the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).
2
Q
What organization was established by the Chicago Convention?
A
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
3
Q
What are the main responsibilities of the ICAO?
A
Coordinating and regulating international air travel
This includes establishing rules of airspace, aircraft registration, and safety.
4
Q
When was the Chicago Convention signed?
A
7 December 1944
It was signed in Chicago, Illinois, U.S.
5
Q
When did the Chicago Convention come into effect?
A
4 April 1947
6
Q
What does the Chicago Convention provide for regarding airspace?
A
Sovereignty of airspace above the territory of each state
This means each state has control over the airspace above its territory.
7
Q
How many freedoms of air transport were initially established by the Chicago Convention?
A
Five freedoms
These govern the freedom of states to operate air transport flights.
8
Q
How many freedoms were later added to the Chicago Convention?
A
Four unofficial freedoms
This expanded the total to nine freedoms.
9
Q
Which freedoms of air transport apply automatically to signatory states?
A
The first two freedoms
The remainder are subject to national agreement.
10
Q
What is the significance of Article 28 of the Chicago Convention?
A
It addresses Air Navigation Facilities and Standard Customs
11
Q
What does Article 28 of the Chicago Convention require from contracting states?
A
Contracting states must provide airport, radio services, meteorological services, and other air navigation facilities
This is to facilitate international air navigation in accordance with standards and recommended practices.
12
Q
What standard systems must contracting states adopt according to Article 28?
A
Contracting states must adopt standard systems of:
* Communications procedures
* Codes
* Markings
* Signals
* Lighting
* Other operational practices and rules
These should be recommended or established pursuant to the convention.
13
Q
What collaboration is required in Article 28 regarding aeronautical maps and charts?
A
Contracting states must collaborate in the publication of aeronautical maps and charts in accordance with established standards
This is part of international measures recommended or established by the convention.
14
Q
What is the purpose of Article 37 of the Chicago Convention?
A
To secure the highest practical degree of uniformity in regulations, standards, procedures, and organization related to air navigation
This includes matters concerning aircraft, personnel, airways, and auxiliary services.
15
Q
What organization is responsible for adopting international standards and recommended practices according to Article 37?
A
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
ICAO adopts and amends standards as necessary for air navigation.
16
Q
What specific areas does Article 37 mention for international standards and procedures?
A
International standards and procedures deal with:
* Communication systems and air navigation aids
* Licensing of operating and mechanical personnel
* Log books
* Aeronautical maps and charts
* Safety, regularity, and efficiency of air navigation
These areas are essential for improving air navigation.
17
Q
What must a state do if it cannot comply with international standards according to Article 38?
A
The state must give immediate notification to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the established international standard
This ensures transparency and communication regarding compliance issues.
18
Q
What authority do contracting states have under Article 68 regarding international air services?
A
Contracting states may designate the route to be followed and the airports to be used by any international air service
This is subject to the provisions of the Chicago Convention.
19
Q
What is Annex 1 of ICAO?
A
Personnel Licensing
20
Q
What does Annex 2 of ICAO cover?
A
Rules of the Air
21
Q
What is the focus of Annex 3 of ICAO?
A
Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation
22
Q
What type of information is provided in Annex 4 of ICAO?
A
Aeronautical Charts
23
Q
What does Annex 5 of ICAO specify?
A
Units of Measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
24
Q
What is the subject of Annex 6 of ICAO?
A
Operation of Aircraft
25
What does Annex 7 of ICAO address?
Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
26
What is covered in Annex 8 of ICAO?
Airworthiness of Aircraft
27
What does Annex 9 of ICAO pertain to?
Facilitation
28
What is the focus of Annex 10 of ICAO?
Aeronautical Communications
29
What does Annex 11 of ICAO cover?
Air Traffic Services
30
What is the subject of Annex 12 of ICAO?
Search and Rescue
31
What is addressed in Annex 13 of ICAO?
Aircraft Accident Investigation
32
What is covered in Annex 14 of ICAO?
Aerodromes
33
What does Annex 15 of ICAO focus on?
Aeronautical Information Services
34
What is the subject of Annex 16 of ICAO?
Environmental Protection
35
What does Annex 17 of ICAO pertain to?
Security
36
What is the focus of Annex 18 of ICAO?
The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
37
What is the purpose of Annex 11 Air Traffic Services (ATS)?
Establishment of airspace, units and services necessary to promote a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic
38
Which organization provides Air Traffic Control services in India?
Airports Authority Of India (AAI)
39
What does the Civil Aviation Regulation (CAR) Section 9 cover?
Air Space and Air Navigation Standards
40
What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services? (List at least three)
* Prevent collisions between aircraft
* Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions
* Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
41
True or False: The purpose of Air Traffic Services is to provide advice and information for safe and efficient flights.
True
42
Fill in the blank: The objectives of Air Traffic Services include notifying appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of _______.
search and rescue aid
43
What are the three services that comprise Air Traffic Services (ATS)?
* Air Traffic Control (ATC) service
* Flight Information service
* Alerting service
## Footnote
These services are identified in ICAO Annex 11.
44
What is the primary objective of the Air Traffic Control (ATC) service?
To prevent collisions between aircraft
## Footnote
This objective is defined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DGCA--CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.
45
What are the three parts into which Air Traffic Control services are divided?
* Area control service
* Approach control service
* Aerodrome control service
## Footnote
These divisions help manage different phases of air traffic.
46
What is an Area Control Center responsible for?
Controlling aircraft flying at high altitudes between airport approaches and departures
## Footnote
Also known as an en-route center.
47
What governs the operations and airspace boundaries of Area Control Centers?
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
## Footnote
ICAO sets international standards and regulations for aviation safety.
48
What are the two main objectives of an Area Control Center?
* Prevent collisions between aircraft
* Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
## Footnote
These objectives are in accordance with ICAO Annex 2 & 11.
49
What is the focus of the Approach Control service?
Air traffic control service for controlled flights during arrival or departure
## Footnote
This service ensures safe and efficient transitions to and from airports.
50
What are the objectives of the Approach Control service?
* Prevent collisions between aircraft
* Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
## Footnote
These objectives are outlined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA--CAR--Section 9, Series E, Part 1.
51
What is the primary objective of aerodrome traffic control service?
To provide a service for the whole aerodrome traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and for all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
## Footnote
This is in accordance with ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA---CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.
52
List the three main objectives of aerodrome traffic control service.
* Prevent collisions between aircraft
* Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions
* Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
## Footnote
These objectives are outlined in ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA---CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.
53
What is the definition of Flight Information Service (FIS)?
A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information for the safe and efficient performance of flights.
## Footnote
FIS is provided by air traffic controllers for controlled flights and for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.
54
True or False: Flight Information Service is only provided for controlled flights.
False
## Footnote
Flight Information Service is also provided for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.
55
What types of information does Flight Information Service provide?
* Traffic information
* Meteorological information
* Information on runway state
* Other information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
## Footnote
This information is essential for the performance of flights according to ICAO standards.
56
Fill in the blank: The service that aims to prevent collisions on the maneuvering area is known as _______.
[aerodrome traffic control service]
57
What is the role of air traffic controllers in relation to Flight Information Service?
To provide FIS for controlled flights and for all flights in the vicinity of controlled airports.
## Footnote
This ensures the safety and efficiency of air traffic operations.
58
What is the purpose of the Alerting Service?
To notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and assist such organizations as required.
## Footnote
This service cooperates with Search and Rescue Centres and informs about any aircraft that are, or appear to be, in a state of emergency.
59
Who is entitled to receive the Alerting Service?
* All aircraft provided with air traffic control service
* All other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known
* Any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
## Footnote
Based on ICAO Annex 2 & 11 and DCA-CAR-Section 9, Series E, Part 1.
60
Define Instrument Flight Rules (IFR).
A set of regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in weather conditions not clear enough to see where they are going.
## Footnote
IFR are used for instrument piloting and non-visual runways only.
61
What dictates how aircraft are operated under IFR?
Regulations defined by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) or a local governing authority, such as the DCA in India.
## Footnote
Each country's aviation authority has its own set of regulations.
62
What must an IFR pilot rely upon during flight?
Onboard instruments inside the cockpit to safely achieve different phases of flight such as departure, navigation, and approach.
## Footnote
This is necessary when visual navigation is not possible.
63
When is a pilot required to operate an aircraft under IFR?
* Visual meteorological conditions (VMC) are not met
* Weather parameters are more restrictive at a current time
## Footnote
This determination is made by checking the weather conditions.
64
What are the two types of IFR approaches?
* Precision IFR approaches
* Non-precision IFR approaches
## Footnote
These approaches differ in the type of guidance provided during landing.
65
What characterizes a Precision IFR approach?
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance.
## Footnote
Guidance can be provided by systems such as Instrument Landing System (ILS) or Precision Approach Radar (PAR).
66
What is a Non-precision IFR approach?
An instrument approach and landing which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance.
## Footnote
Examples include approaches using VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range (VOR) or Non-Directional Beacon (NDB).
67
What determines whether IFR is compulsory for a pilot?
IFR is compulsory if Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) are not met or if weather parameters are more restrictive at a current time
## Footnote
IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules, which govern the operation of aircraft in weather conditions where visual reference is not sufficient.
68
What are the two types of IFR approaches?
* Precision IFR approaches
* Non-precision IFR approaches
## Footnote
These approaches vary based on the guidance provided during landing and the weather conditions at the airport.
69
Define a Precision IFR approach.
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance provided by:
* a ground-based navigation aid (GBAS Landing System)
* computer-generated navigation data displayed to the pilot
* a controller interpreting radar displays (Precision Approach Radar)
## Footnote
Precision approaches utilize systems such as the Instrument Landing System (ILS).
70
What is a Non-precision IFR approach?
An instrument approach and landing that utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance, often interpreted by the pilot using ground beacons.
## Footnote
Lateral guidance can be provided by VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range (VOR) or Non-Directional Beacon (NDB).
71
What is the Decision Height (DH) for CAT I precision approaches?
Not lower than 60 m (200 ft)
## Footnote
CAT I approaches require specific visibility and lateral guidance parameters.
72
What are the visibility requirements for CAT II precision approaches?
Not less than 300 m
## Footnote
CAT II approaches have different decision height and visibility requirements compared to CAT I.
73
What organization is designated as the Instrument Flight Procedure Design Service Provider (IFPDSP) in India?
Airports Authority of India (AAI)
## Footnote
AAI is responsible for the design, implementation, and maintenance of instrument flight procedures for all civil airports in India.
74
What must the IFPDSP in India comply with?
ICAO standards
## Footnote
The IFPDSP must follow provisions of regulatory control and monitoring system requirements specified in the Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR).
75
Fill in the blank: Visual Flight Rules (VFR) are defined by the _______.
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
## Footnote
VFR allow pilots to operate aircraft in weather conditions generally clear of clouds and with good visibility.
76
What are the primary tasks a pilot must perform under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
* See outside the cockpit
* Control the aircraft's altitude
* Navigate
* Avoid obstacles and other aircrafts
## Footnote
VFR emphasizes visual navigation and situational awareness.
77
What does IFP stand for in aviation regulations?
Instrument Flight Procedure
## Footnote
IFP is crucial for maintaining safe and efficient air traffic operations.
78
Who is responsible for the maintenance of IFP for all civil airports in India?
Airports Authority of India (AAI)
## Footnote
AAI acts as the IFPDSP on behalf of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
79
What are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in clear weather conditions
## Footnote
VFR allows pilots to navigate visually without relying solely on instruments.
80
What must a pilot be able to do under Visual Flight Rules?
* See outside the cockpit
* Control the aircraft's altitude
* Navigate and avoid obstacles and other aircraft
## Footnote
These abilities are essential for safe VFR operations.
81
In which airspace are VFR flights not allowed, regardless of weather conditions?
Class A airspace
## Footnote
Class A airspace requires IFR operations at all times.
82
What types of lighting systems are commonly found at airfields for VFR operations?
* Low intensity runway lights
* Medium intensity runway lights
* Taxiway lighting
* Approach lighting systems
## Footnote
These lighting systems assist pilots during takeoff and landing in visual conditions.
83
What is controlled airspace?
Airspace of defined dimensions where air traffic control services are provided
## Footnote
Controlled airspace facilitates the safe and orderly flow of air traffic.
84
What is the purpose of Control Zones (CTZ)?
To afford protection to aircraft within the immediate vicinity of aerodromes
## Footnote
CTZs are critical for ensuring safety around airports.
85
What are Control Areas (CTA) in aviation?
Areas situated above Aerodrome Traffic Zones providing protection over a larger area
## Footnote
CTAs help manage air traffic at higher altitudes.
86
What characterizes airways in controlled airspace?
Corridors of airspace connecting Control Areas, usually 10 miles wide
## Footnote
Airways extend upward to a height of 24,500 feet and link with airways in other countries.
87
Fill in the blank: The primary factor that dictates whether a pilot flies under IFR or VFR is _______.
weather
## Footnote
Weather conditions significantly influence flight rules compliance.
88
What is the purpose of Control Zones (CTZ)?
Afford protection to aircraft within the immediate vicinity of aerodromes
## Footnote
Also known as Aerodrome Control Zones (ATZ)
89
What do Control Areas (CTA) provide?
Protection over a larger area to a specified upper limit, situated above the Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)
## Footnote
Control Areas are essential for managing air traffic in a specified region.
90
What are airways in aviation?
Corridors of airspace connecting Control Areas, normally 10 miles wide, with bases between 5,000 and 7,000 feet extending to 24,500 feet
## Footnote
Airways facilitate organized flight paths for aircraft.
91
What are Upper Air Routes (UARs)?
Air routes above airways, usually from FL 250 (25,000 feet) to FL 460 (46,000 feet)
## Footnote
Aircraft above FL 245 are subject to mandatory Air Traffic Control Service.
92
What is the function of Restricted Areas?
Prevent aircraft from straying into dangerous places, which may include military training or weapons testing ranges
## Footnote
These areas can often be deactivated when not in use.
93
What is Class A airspace?
Generally, airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level (FL) 600
## Footnote
This class of airspace requires IFR operations.
94
What is Class B airspace?
Generally, airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL
## Footnote
Designed for high-density traffic areas.
95
What is the altitude range for Class C airspace?
From the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (in MSL)
## Footnote
Class C airspace requires air traffic control service.
96
What characterizes Class D airspace?
Airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (in MSL)
## Footnote
IFR and VFR flights are permitted, with air traffic control service provided.
97
What is Class E airspace?
Controlled airspace not classified as A, B, C, or D, existing from 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL up to 17,999 feet
## Footnote
IFR flights receive air traffic control service and traffic information.
98
What is Class F airspace?
Designated airspace within ATS Route segment outside controlled airspace
## Footnote
IFR and VFR flights are permitted, with advisory services available.
99
What defines Class G airspace?
Airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E, essentially uncontrolled by ATC except near temporary control towers
## Footnote
IFR and VFR flights receive flight information service if requested.
100
What is the altitude for Class G airspace?
Between 700 feet AGL and 1,200 feet AGL
## Footnote
This class allows for uncontrolled flight operations.
101
Fill in the blank: Class E airspace exists from either 700 feet AGL or 1200 feet AGL and goes up to and including _______.
17,999 feet
102
True or False: Class A airspace is primarily used for VFR operations.
False
103
What types of flights are permitted in Class F airspace?
IFR and VFR flights
## Footnote
All participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service.
104
What type of airspace is classified as Class G?
Airspace outside ATS route segment and outside controlled airspace
## Footnote
It is essentially uncontrolled airspace.
105
What is the purpose of air traffic advisories in Class E airspace?
To provide traffic information to all flights as far as is practical
## Footnote
IFR flights are separated from each other in this airspace.
106
What does the term 'controlled airspace' refer to?
Airspace in which air traffic control services are provided
## Footnote
This includes Classes A, B, C, D, and E.
107
What is the significance of Class G airspace?
It allows for uncontrolled flight operations and is typically used for general aviation
## Footnote
Traffic information is provided upon request.
108
What airspace classification is registered above Class A?
Class E
109
What is Class F airspace?
Designated airspace within ATS Route segment, outside controlled airspace
110
What types of flights are permitted in Class F airspace?
IFR and VFR flights
111
What services do participating IFR flights receive in Class F airspace?
Air traffic advisory service
112
What is provided to all flights in Class F airspace if requested?
Flight information service
113
What are the basic types of Indian airspace within controlled airspace?
Class C, Class D, Class E
114
What is the classification of airspace outside ATS route segment and outside controlled airspace?
Class G
115
What is the altitude of Class A airspace?
18,000' MSL
116
What is the altitude range for Class B airspace?
14,500' MSL up to 10,000' FT
117
What is the maximum altitude for Class C airspace?
Up to 4,000' FT
118
What is the maximum altitude for Class D airspace?
Up to 2,500' FT
119
What type of airports is Class G associated with?
Non-towered airports
120
What is the definition of UAS?
Unmanned Aircraft System
121
What does UTM stand for?
Unmanned Aircraft System Traffic Management
122
What are the four Flight Information Regions (FIRs) of Indian airspace?
Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai
123
Fill in the blank: Class E airspace is classified as _______.
controlled airspace
124
True or False: Air traffic services are provided in Class G airspace.
False
125
What abbreviation is used for Remotely Piloted Air System?
RPAS
126
What are the established performance requirements for UAS?
UAS meet established performance requirements and cooperatively separate
127
What services do UAS receive where required?
UAS are certified and receive traditional air traffic services
128
How is airspace divided in Indian airspace?
Airspace is divided into 4 FIRs: Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai & Guwahati as sub FIR
129
What are the 5 ADIZ in Indian airspace?
North, West, Central, East, South, and South-East sub ADIZ
130
Which states surround Indian airspace?
Pakistan, Oman, Saana, Mogadishu, Seychelles, Mauritius, Male, Sri Lanka, Malaysia, Myanmar, Bangladesh, Nepal
131
What is the purpose of a Flight Information Region (FIR)?
Each division is called the 'Flight Information Region' (FIR) for communicating with flights
132
What does ADIZ stand for?
Air Defense Identification Zone
133
What is required in an ADIZ?
Ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft except Department of Defense and law enforcement aircraft
134
What are the types of separation mentioned in relation to ICAO guidelines?
Different separation standards apply to IFR and VFR aircraft
135
What must air traffic controllers do for safe operations?
Keep aircraft separated vertically or horizontally
136
What do national authorities lay down for aircraft navigation?
Vertical and horizontal separation standards
137
What does observance of separation standards ensure?
Safe separation from the ground, other aircraft, and protected airspace
138
What can separation standards reduce exposure to?
Wake Vortex Turbulence
139
What document outlines national separation standards?
ICAO Annex 11, Doc 4444
140
When shall vertical or horizontal separation be provided?
Between IFR flights in Class D and E airspaces, IFR flights and special VFR flights, and between special VFR flights
141
What is vertical separation?
Achieved by requiring aircraft to use different altitudes
142
What is the purpose of longitudinal separation in air traffic control?
To ensure the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft is never less than a prescribed minimum.
143
What are the three terms used for the application of longitudinal separation?
* Same track
* Reciprocal tracks
* Crossing tracks
144
What is radar separation?
A method where aircraft fly under the supervision of Air Traffic Control in controlled airspace.
145
What is the minimum distance for radar separation when less than 40 miles from the antenna?
6 miles.
146
What is the minimum distance for radar separation when 40 miles or more from the antenna?
10 miles.
147
What does VOR stand for and what is its purpose?
Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range; it aids in navigating aircraft.
148
What is the function of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?
To determine the aircraft's slant range from the DME ground station location.
149
What is the maximum distance that DME can measure from the aircraft to the runway?
Out to 18 Nautical Miles (NM) and beyond.
150
What are Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs) used for?
They are ground-based radio transmitters used to aid and navigate aircraft.
151
What is meteorology?
The scientific study of the atmosphere focusing on weather processes and forecasting.
152
What are meteorological phenomena?
Observable weather events explained by the science of meteorology.
153
What variables does meteorology focus on?
* Air pressure
* Wind speed and direction
* Temperature
* Humidity
* Weather patterns
154
What are some weather phenomena studied in meteorology?
* Rain
* Snow
* Thunderstorms
* Tornadoes
* Hurricanes
* Typhoons
155
What is aviation meteorology (MET)?
A crucial data stream for air traffic management services due to its impact on safety and efficiency.
156
How does weather impact airline operations?
It directly impacts the load factor.
157
What are the prophylactic values of meteorological data and information?
They include forecasts and warnings that help prevent adverse conditions during flights.
158
Fill in the blank: A flight, at all stages, is affected by the changes in _______.
[atmospheric conditions]
159
What aspects of flight operations are affected by poor visibility and low cloud base?
* Take-off
* Landing phases
160
What is becoming increasingly important to aviation with the development of satellite navigation?
Space weather.
161
What do airlines require weather details for?
To plan their operations
## Footnote
Weather details have a direct impact on the load factor.
162
What are the prophylactic values of meteorological data?
Forecasts and warnings
## Footnote
Meteorological data helps in anticipating and mitigating potential issues.
163
Which phases of a flight are affected by poor visibility and low cloud base?
Take-off and landing phases
## Footnote
Changes in atmospheric conditions impact these critical phases.
164
Name some inflight operations affected by severe weather.
* Thunderstorms
* Hailstorms
* Line squalls
* Turbulence
* Cyclonic storms
## Footnote
These weather phenomena significantly influence inflight safety and operations.
165
What meteorological inputs are necessary at every stage of flight?
Meteorological information
## Footnote
Essential for planning and safety.
166
List the factors that meteorological information helps airlines to plan.
* Scheduled or Expected Time of Departure
* Take-off gross weight
* Flight path and altitudes
* Reserve fuel
* Alternate aerodrome
* Landing weight
## Footnote
Accurate planning helps ensure flight safety and efficiency.
167
What theorem explains the acceleration of air over an aerofoil?
Bernoulli's theorem
## Footnote
This principle is fundamental to understanding lift generation.
168
What components result from the force acting on an aircraft due to air flow?
* Lift (L)
* Drag (D)
## Footnote
These forces are critical for flight dynamics.
169
What conditions must be true at the time of take-off?
L > W and T > D
## Footnote
Lift must exceed weight and thrust must exceed drag for successful take-off.
170
What forces should balance each other at cruising level?
* Lift (L)
* Weight (W)
* Thrust (T)
* Drag (D)
## Footnote
A stable flight requires equilibrium among these forces.
171
What is the effect of head wind on take-off and landing operations?
Favourable
## Footnote
Headwind helps in achieving necessary lift during take-off and improves control during landing.
172
What is the benefit of tail wind at cruising level?
Fuel saving
## Footnote
Tailwinds assist in maintaining speed with less fuel consumption.
173
What are wind observations used for in aviation?
* Selection of runways
* Determination of maximum landing weights
## Footnote
Wind conditions are crucial for safe take-off and landing.
174
What is a head wind?
Wind blowing against the direction of aircraft operations
## Footnote
It is favourable for take-off and landing operations.
175
What is a tail wind?
Wind blowing in the same direction as that of aircraft operations
## Footnote
It is beneficial at cruising level by way of fuel saving.
176
What are wind observations used for in aviation?
Selection of runways and determination of maximum allowable take-off and landing weights.
177
What is the maximum cross wind speed for landing?
25 knots (45 Kmph)
## Footnote
Landing is generally not allowed when this limit is exceeded.
178
What is the maximum strong tail wind speed for landing?
15 knots (30 Kmph)
## Footnote
Landing is not considered safe beyond this limit.
179
What happens when strong or gusty winds blow across the runway?
Landing will be prohibited.
180
How does temperature affect engine performance?
High temperature leads to low air density and reduced carrying power.
181
What is the effect of a 2 °C rise in temperature on aircraft load?
Offloading of passenger/cargo load by a few hundreds of kilograms.
182
Name a common type of cloud found above 18,000 feet.
Cirrus, Cirrocumulus.
183
Name a common type of cloud found between 6,000 - 20,000 feet.
Altostratus.
184
What types of clouds are found below 6,000 feet?
Stratocumulus, Cumulus, Stratus.
185
List three aviation weather hazards.
* Thunderstorms and Lightning
* Tornadoes and Cyclones
* Dust storms.
186
True or False: Wind shear is an aviation weather hazard.
True.
187
Fill in the blank: High temperature requires a _______ runway.
lengthy.
188
What must be done if runway length is insufficient due to high temperature?
Take-off weight has to be reduced.
189
What is a significant effect of high temperature on take-off speed?
Higher take-off speed is needed.
190
Name two weather conditions that can lead to aircraft icing.
* Precipitation
* Low temperatures.
191
What is the altitude range for Cumulus clouds?
Below 6,000 feet.
192
What type of cloud is characterized by a flat, layered appearance and typically forms below 6,000 feet?
Stratus
## Footnote
Stratus clouds are uniform gray in color and can cover the entire sky.
193
What type of cloud is known for its puffy, rounded appearance and can also form below 6,000 feet?
Stratocumulus
## Footnote
Stratocumulus clouds often appear in patches and can indicate fair weather.
194
Name three aviation weather hazards.
* Thunderstorms and Lightning
* Tornadoes and Cyclones
* Dust storms
## Footnote
Additional hazards include sand storms, wind shear, precipitation, aircraft icing, clear air turbulence, mountain waves, and fog.
195
Fill in the blank: _______ are meteorological phenomena that can significantly impact aviation safety.
Aviation weather hazards
## Footnote
These hazards include various severe weather conditions that pilots need to be aware of.
196
What is the height range for clouds classified below 6,000 feet?
Below 6,000 feet
## Footnote
This height classification applies to both stratocumulus and stratus clouds.
197
True or False: Aircraft icing is considered a significant aviation weather hazard.
True
## Footnote
Aircraft icing can occur in clouds and can severely affect aircraft performance.
198
What natural phenomenon can lead to the formation of lenticular clouds?
Airflow
## Footnote
Lenticular clouds are formed when moist air flows over mountains or hills.
199
What are the potential effects of clear air turbulence?
Unpredictable turbulence in clear air
## Footnote
Clear air turbulence can occur at high altitudes and is often difficult to detect.
200
Fill in the blank: Fog is classified as a type of _______.
Aviation weather hazard
## Footnote
Fog can significantly reduce visibility and impact flight operations.
201
List two types of storms that are considered aviation weather hazards.
* Tornadoes
* Cyclones
## Footnote
Both tornadoes and cyclones can cause severe turbulence and dangerous conditions for aircraft.
202
What are the basic types of Indian airspace?
1. Controlled Airspace
2. Non-Controlled Airspace
3. Designated Airspace within ATS routes
4. Air Route Segments
5. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)
## Footnote
Controlled airspace is designated for the safety and management of air traffic, while non-controlled airspace allows for more freedom of operation.
203
What is the purpose of the Instrument Flight Procedure Service Provider (IFPOSP)?
To ensure compliance with ICAO standards for designing, validating, promulgating, reviewing, and maintaining Instrument Flight Procedures (IFP).
## Footnote
IFPOSPs are responsible for the safety and efficiency of instrument flight procedures across civil airports.
204
What does Class A airspace typically encompass?
Airspace from the surface to 4,290 feet above the airport elevation in MSL.
## Footnote
Class A airspace is generally used for high-altitude, high-speed aircraft operations.
205
What is the definition of Vertical Separation in aviation?
The minimum vertical distance between aircraft operating at different altitudes.
## Footnote
Vertical separation is crucial for maintaining safe distances between aircraft in controlled airspace.
206
Fill in the blank: The area of airspace over land or water where control of all aircraft is required for national security is called _______.
Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)
## Footnote
This zone is crucial for monitoring and controlling aircraft to protect national interests.
207
True or False: National separation standards are based on the provisions of ICAO Annex 11.
True
## Footnote
Annex 11 outlines the standards for air traffic services, including separation standards.
208
What are the types of separation standards that apply to aircraft operating under instrument flight rules?
1. Horizontal Separation
2. Vertical Separation
3. Special VFR Flights
## Footnote
Different standards are implemented based on the operational context and aircraft types.
209
What is the classification for airspace that is not under Class A, B, C, or D?
Class E
## Footnote
Class E airspace is generally used for controlled airspace that does not fit into the other categories.
210
What is the significance of Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace?
It allows for reduced vertical separation between aircraft to increase airspace capacity.
## Footnote
RVSM typically applies between Flight Levels 290 and 410.
211
What type of airspace is generally classified as Class D?
Airspace from the surface to 2,300 feet above the airport elevation in MSL.
## Footnote
Class D airspace is typically associated with airports that have an operating control tower.
212
What is the role of the Office of the Director General of Civil Aviation?
To oversee the regulatory control and monitoring system requirements for instrument flight procedures in India.
## Footnote
This office ensures that aviation standards are maintained in accordance with international regulations.
