MODULE 1 Flashcards

(67 cards)

0
Q

People who has a defect in this enzyme turns red after drinking even just one bottle of alcohol.

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

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1
Q

Process of combining 2 identical atoms.

A

Catenation

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2
Q

Defective enyzme that leads to the accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood after alcohol consumption

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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3
Q

Aspirin inhibits the _________ which will convert arachidonate to prostaglandins and thromboxanes.

A

Cyclooxygenase

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4
Q

Functions to transport FA to them mitochondria where FA oxidation takes place.

A

Carnitine

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5
Q

Form of melanin that is brown-black in color.

A

Eumelanin

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6
Q

Formation of this type of melanin occurs in the presence of glutathione

A

Pheomelanin

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7
Q

Cell division in prokaryotic organisms is via which process?

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Augmentation

A

C. Binary fission

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8
Q

Site of protein synthesis in the cell.

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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9
Q

Site of the cytochrome P450 in the liver.

A

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

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10
Q

Site of glycosylation.

A

Golgi Apparatus

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11
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The mitochondria most likely evolved from bacteria that were engulfed by an ancestral eukaryotic cell living in symbiosis with their host.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

Also called microbodies. Function to protects sensitive cell components from oxidative attacks.

A

Peroxisomes

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13
Q

Functions to digest material ingested by endocytosis and recycle cellular components.

A

Lysosomes

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14
Q

Constituent of cilia; Composed of the protein tubulin

A

Microtubules

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15
Q

Consist of actin; Responsible for intracellular movements

A

Microfilaments

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16
Q

Prominent parts in the cell subject to mechanical stress.

A

Intermediate filaments

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17
Q

The following processes occur in the cytosol EXCEPT:

A. PPP
B. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Oxidation of Fatty Acids

A

D. Oxidation of Fatty Acids

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18
Q

Major component of cell wall.

A

Cellulose

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19
Q

Process of isolating specific organelles in relatively pure form, free of contamination by other organelles.

A

Subcellular Fractionation

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20
Q

A step of subcellular fractionation that involves the disruption of cell to liberate its constituents.

A

Homogenization

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21
Q

Content of the final supernatant in centrifugation corresponds to:

A. RER
B. Plasma membrane
C. Cytosol
D. Nucleus

A

C. Cytosol

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22
Q

Which of the following organelle:marker pairing is NOT correct?

A. Mitochondria : Glutamic Dehydrogenase
B. Nucleus: DNA
C. Golgi Apparatus: Galactosyl transferase
D. Cytosol: Glucose-6-Phosphatase

A

D. Cytosol: Glucose-6-Phosphatase

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23
Q

Marker for the plasma membrane

A. Uric acid oxidase
B. Catalase
C. Na+ - K+ ATPase
D. Glutamic dehydrogenase

A

C. Na+ - K+ ATPase

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24
Uses Catalase or Uric Acid Oxidase as marker.
Peroxisomes
25
Alternating double bonds that yield a very stable structure within a molecule is a phenomenon also called __________.
Resonance
26
TRUE or FALSE: Hydrocarbons are polar and soluble in water.
False. They are nonpolar substances and are insoluble in water.
27
C==O is called __________. A. Carbonyl B. Carboxyl C. Ether D. Ester
A. Carbonyl
28
Formed by combining an acid and an alcohol.
Ester
29
Combination of a phosphate and a carboxyl group, or two or more phosphate groups gives __________.
Acid Anhydride
30
Composed of two or more elements.
Compounds
31
Formed when two or more atoms unite on the basis of their electron structures.
Molecules
32
Bond that links alphaGlucose and betaFructose to form Sucrose.
Alpha 1➡️2 Glycosidic bond
33
Form of fatty acid with the presence of a 'kink' in the chain.
Unsaturated Fatty Acid
34
A polymer of 3 or more amino acids forms a __________.
Polypeptide
35
Classification of protein with an axial ration of less than 10.
Globular
36
The following are examples of non-covalent bonds EXCEPT: A. Hydrogen bonds B. Electrostatic bonds C. Van der Waals forces D. Peptide bonds
D. Peptide bonds
37
Link two portions of polypeptide chain through a cystine residue.
Disulfide bonds
38
Which of these is not a true bond: A. Electrostatic bond B. Disulfide bond C. Hydrophobic interaction D. Van der Waals forces
C. Hydrophobic interaction
39
Reagent that cleaves the carboxylic side of lysine and arginine.
Trypsin
40
Cleaves Asn-Gly bonds.
Hydroxylamine
41
Mild acid hydrolysis cleaves this type of bond. A. Arg-Arg B. Pro-Pro C. Asp-Pro D. Arg-Pro
C. Asp-Pro
42
Fundamental unit of collagen.
Tropocollagen
43
Collagen has a Gly-X-Y sequence. Y is usually?
Proline or hydroxyrpoline
44
The following statements are true about tropocollagen EXCEPT: A. Undergoes aldol condensation. B. Consist of 4 polypetide chain in R-handed helix. C. Stabilized by H bonds. D. Have 3 residues/turn on a L-handed helix.
B. Consist of 4 polypetide chain in R-handed helix.
45
Composed of stacked anti-parallel beta sheets. Consists largely of glycine, serine, and alanine.
Silk Fibroin
46
Heat shock proteins.
Chaperonins
47
Large multi-subunit proteins that accelerate the folding process by providing a protected environment where polypeptides fold into their native conformations and form quaternary structure.
Molecular chaperones
48
The secondary structure of myoglobin contains a very high proportion (75%) of ___________.
Alpha helices
49
Myoglobin comprises of how many right handed helices?
8
50
The oxygen binding site contains a heme prosthetic group with _______ in the center and ________ residues located above and below.
Fe 2+, Histidine
51
The 4 pyrrole molecules in heme are linked by....
Alpha methylene bridges
52
The protoporphyrin is consist of the following EXCEPT: A. 2 methyl groups B. 2 vinyl groups C. 4 methyl groups D. 2 propionate side chains
A. 2 methyl groups
53
HgA in adults consist of 4 subunits namely:
2 alpha and 2 beta
54
The quaternary structure of the fully oxygenated high affinity form of hemoglobin (HbO2) is said to be in:
Relaxed state
55
The tertiary configuration of low affinity, deoxygenated hemoglobin (Hb) is said to be in:
Taut state
56
The curve of oxygen binding to hemoglobin is _________ in shape. In contrast the oxygen binding curve for myoglobin is __________.
Sigmoidal, hyperbolic
57
TRUE or FALSE: Myoglobin has a greater affinity than hemoglobin for oxygen at all oxygen pressures.
TRUE
58
The alpha-globin genes are on chromosome ____ and the beta-globin genes are on chromosome ____.
16, 11
59
Fetal hemoglobin is composed of:
2 Zeta and 2eta subunits
60
TRUE or FALSE: Hemoglobin Saki: BLeu➡️ Pro
TRUE
61
BHis146➡️Leu
Hemoglobin Cowtown
62
Caused by a single nucleotide substitution (A to T) of valine for glutamate at position 6 on the B-subunit of hemoglobin. GAG to GTG.
Sickle cell anemia
63
In hemoglobin M, histidine F8 has been replaced by what amino acid?
Tyrosine
64
An abnormal hemoglobin in which leucine is substituted for arginine in the alpha chain (92), results in high oxygen affinity.
Chesapeake
65
Most common prion diseases.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
66
What is the molecular pathogenesis of prion diseases?
Change in conformation of the normal/native PrPC to PrPSC.