Module 1 Micro Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
The relationship between the microorganism and the host
A
Symbiosis
2
Q
The lactobacillus in the intestine exemplifies what symbiotic relationship?
A
Mutualism
3
Q
The stapyloccocus on the skin exemplifies what symbiotic relationship?
A
Commensalism
Staphy feeds on dead cells of the skin
4
Q
T or F: The host is axenic ( free of microorganism) during development in the womb
A
True
5
Q
Normal microbiota mostly established during the 1st month of life and persist thruout life
A
Resident microbiota
6
Q
Microbiota that remain only in the body for a short period of time
A
Transcient microbiota
7
Q
These are organisms that always cause a disease
A
Strict pathogens
8
Q
Normal microbiota that causes disease under certain conditions
A
Opportunistic pathogens
9
Q
The ff are conditions that provide opportunities for pathogens except :
A.introduction into unusual site in the body
B. Immune suppression
C. Relative abundance of the microorganism
D. Increase phagocytic activity
A
D
10
Q
An ongoing process by which a central system of power dominates a certain surrounding and components. Eg. Microbes in the body
A
Colonization
11
Q
Invasion of bacteria,viruses, and microbes in the body
A
Infection
12
Q
What are the 4 portals of entry of microbes into host
A
Skin
Mucous membrane
Placenta
Parenteral route
13
Q
Group of microorganisms which cells stick to each other and adhere to a surface
A
Biofilm
14
Q
The adherent cells of a biofilm are frequently embedded within a self-produced matrix of _____________
A
Extracellular polymeric substance ( EPS)
15
Q
__________ is the invasion of the hist by a pathogen and is considered a _________ if it alters the normal fxn of the body
A
Infection; Disease
16
Q
The ff is true of the koch’s postulates except:
A. Pathogen can be isolated and grown in pure culture
B. Can cause the disease when inoculated into healthy animal
C. Microorganism is present in only one case of the disease
D. Pathogen is the same when isolated from the new host
A
C
17
Q
Koch’s postulates is not feasible in all cases because
A. Some pathogen cant be cultured in lab
B. Some diseases are caused by combination of pathogen and other cofactors
C. Ethical considerations on pathogens that require human host
D. AOTA
A
D
18
Q
It us the ability of the organism to cause disease
A
Pathogenicity
19
Q
It is the degree of pathogenicity
A
Virulence
20
Q
Whcih of the ff can pathogens can cross the placenta A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Trepenoma pallidum C. Lentivirus D. Cytomegalovirus E. AOTA
A
E
21
Q
The absence of _______ explains why west africans do not have malaria?
A
Duffy antigen
22
Q
Determine the tissue/organ the parasite can live on
A
Tissue tropism
23
Q
Chemical that harm tissues or trigger host immune responses that cause damage
A
Toxins
24
Q
Refers to toxins in the bloodstream that are carried beyond the site of infection
A
Toxemia
25
Bacteria produces this toxin and kill host's cells
Exotoxins
26
Dead gram negative bacteria release this toxin from lipid which induces effects like fever and inflammation
Endotoxins
27
Antiphagocytic factors that directly destroy phagocytic white blood cells
Leukocidins
28
Subjective characteristics of disease felt only by the patient
Symptoms
29
Objective manifestations of disease observed or measured by others
Signs
30
Signs and symptoms that characterize a disease
Syndrome
31
First Stage in infectious disease that there is no apparent signs and symptoms
Incubation
32
Stage of infectious disease where there is vague and general symptoms like fever
Prodromal period
33
A disease of period of sickness where most severe signs and symptoms are observed affecting the body and mind
Illness
34
Declining signs and symptoms
Decline period
35
Gradual recovery of health and strength after illness or injury
Convalescence
36
Disease in which symptoms develop rapidly and runs its course rapidly
Acute disease
37
Dx with usually mild symptoms that develop slowly and last long
Chronic dx
38
Dx with time course and symptoms between acute and chronic
Subacute
39
Dx that appears a long time after infection
Latent dx
40
Disease transmitted from 1 host to another
Communicable
41
Communicable dx that is easily spread
Contagious
42
Dx arising from outside of host or from opportunistic pathogen
Noncommunicable
43
Infection confined to a small region of the body
Local infection
44
Widespread infection often travels in blood or lymph
Systemic infection
45
Infection that serves as a source of pathogens for infection at other site of the body
Focal infection
46
Initial infection within a given patient
Primary infection
47
Infections that follow a primary infection, often by opportunistic pathogens
Secondary
48
Sites where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection
Reservoir of infection
49
Diseases that are naturally spread from their usual host to humans
Zoonoses
50
The usual dead end host of zoonotic pathogens
Human
51
Infected individuals who are asymptomatic but infective to others
Human carriers
52
What are the 3 reservoir of infection
Animal
Human carrier
Non-living (soil,water,food)
53
Hat are the modes of transmission of infectious disease
Contact
Vehicle
Vector
54
Laboratory testing underlies approximately what percent of diagnoses and treatment decisions
60-70%
55
T or F : lab testing is not intended to replace clinical judgement but to support individualized decision-making
True
56
T or F: Pathogens may be from the environment and from inside the body.
True
57
Morphologic exam that identify the colony and cellular morphology, growth characteristics of the pathogen
Microbial identification
58
A high or rising titer of specific IgG ab or presence of IgM may suggest or confirm a diagnosis. Useful in viral infections
Serodiagnosis
59
Microorganisms Particularly bacteria are tested in vitro to determine whether they are susceptible to antimicrobial agents. Useful in testing resistant bacteria
Antimicrobial susceptibility
60
What are the 3 bacterial shape
Cocci
Bacilli
Spirochetes
61
Cocci are arranged in 3 patterns namely:
Pair- diplococci
Chains- strepto
Clusters- staphylo
62
What is the smallest bacterium
Mycoplasma sp
63
What is the largest bacterium
Thiomargarita namibiensis
64
The largest medically important bacterium that cause Lyme dx
Borrelia burgdorferi
65
All bacteria have cell wall composed of peptidoglycan layer except
Mycoplasma
66
The peptidoglycan layer of cw is made up of sugar backbone and peptide side chains cross-linked by
Transpeptidases
67
Gram + or - : Teichoic acid is unique
Gram positive
68
Gram + or - : Presence of endotoxin/Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane
Gram negative
69
Holds together the thick peptidoglycan layer of gram + bacteria and also serves as an anchor to the cell membrane
Teichoic acid
70
A space between the cell membrane and peptidoglycan of gram negative bacteria
Periplasmic space
71
What is the only gram positive organism that has endotoxin?
Listeria monocytogenes
72
The outer membrane of the gram neg bacteria contains
Endotoxins
73
A gram _______ can cause inflammation because it consist of lipid A and O antigen that induce IL-1 and TNF
Negative
74
Steps in gram staining
Primary stain
Mordant
Decolorizing agent
Counterstain
Remember: VIAS
75
Mycobacteriae uses _________ stain because there is too juch lipid in cw so dye cannot penetrate
Acid-fast
76
Used in spirochetes because they are too thin to see
Darkfield microscopy
77
What organism is staining techniques are nit applicable bec of lacking cw
Mycoplasma spp
78
Used in Legionella sp because of poor uptake of counterstain
Silver stain
79
Staining used in Chlamydiae to observe inclusion bodies and Rickettsiae
Giemsa stain
80
It is the propagation of microorganisms in media conducive to their growth
Culture
81
A nutritive substance where culture of microorganisms are grown
Culture medium
82
Agar used to isolate various gram positive cocci. Also determines pattern of hemolysis
Blood agar
83
Agar has property of differentiating lactose fermenters and nonfermenters and select gram positive bacteria
MacConkey
| Eosin methylene blue
84
Agar distinguishes lactose fermenters from nonfermenters and H2S producers from non-producers
Triple sugar iron (TSI)
85
Memorize: agars
Clostridium perfringens- egg yolk
Corynebacterium diphtheriae-tellurite
Strep group D - bile esculin
Staphy- mannitol salts
N. Meningitis and gonorrhoeae (sterile site)- chocolate
N. gonorrhoeae (nonsterile site) -Thayer- martin
H. Influenzae - chocolate + factors X and V
Memorize
86
Media designed for the recovery of specific organisms that may be present in a mixture of other organisms.
Selective media
87
Factor disks impregnanted with hemin and NAD used in the differentiation of Haemophilus species
Factors X & V
88
What is the main component if chocolate agar
Heated and oxidized sheep's blood
89
Thus test determines whether antibodies are present in px serum and detect the antigens of organism in tissues or body fluids
Serologic test
90
Test that is Highly specific, quite sensitive and much faster than culture useful for bacteria that are difficult to culture
Molecular test
91
Diagnostic method that uses antigen-antibody rxn as the primary means of detection
Immunodiagnostics
92
More specific and cumbersome to perform technique that uses flourescein- labeled antibodies used in rabies test
Immunoflourescent(IF) antibody staining
Direct and indirect
93
Give example of nontreponemal screening tests for syphilis
VDRL( venereal dx research lab)
| RPR( rapid plasma reagin)
94
Confirmatory test that measure antibodies against T pallidum antigens
Treponemal antibody test
95
More sensitive where each primary antibody contains several epitopes bound to secondary antibody allowing for signal amplification
Indirect ELISA
96
Similar to ELISA but uses radiolabeled ab not enzyme and uses gamma counter to measure radioactive signal not spectro in measuring color change
RIA
97
Primarily directed at the detection of carbohydrate antigens of encapsulated microorganism used in the diagnosis of gr A strep pharyngitis
Latex agglutination
98
Performed to detect antibodies against specific antigen based upon the electrophoretic separation of major proteins in a 2-D agarose gel. Used for HIV confirmatory test
Western blot immunoassay
99
Helically coiled protein subunit of flagella
Flagellin
100
Pattern of flagella that surrounds the prokaryote
Peritrichous
101
Flagella contain this antigen used for virulence
H antigen
102
What are the functions of flagella
Chemotaxis
Phototaxis
Periplasmic flagella
103
Organ of attachment for cells and surfaces
Fimbriae
104
Appendage that facilitate transfer of DNA and cell adhesion with protein subunits called pilins
Pili
105
Attachment of donor and recipient cells in bacterial conjugation
Sex pili
106
Serves as protection from wall degrading enzymes
Slimy layer
107
High tensile strength for osmotic protection. Composed of peptidoglycan and determines the shape of bacteria
Cell wall
108
Gram positive bacteria have _______% of peptidoglycan cell wall
50%
109
Component of the cell membrane that increase internal surface, cw synthesis, and guide in duplication of bacterial chromosome
Mesosomes
110
What are the fxn of the cell membrane
```
Regulate transport
Respiration
Release
Reproduction
Receptor
```
111
What is the structure of Prokaryotic ribosome
70s ( 30s and 50s)
112
Reservoir of structural building blocks
Inclusions, granules
113
Rich in iron and nickel used in the orientation of south and north
Magnetosomes
114
Aggregate of chromosome without nuclear membrane composed of Circular DNA
Nucleoid
115
These are tiny, circular extra chromosomal structures used in modern genetic engineering techniques
Plasmids
116
A polymer of ribitol or glyceroland phosphate embedded in the peptidoglycan of gram positive bacteria
Teichoic acid
117
These are special outer membrane channels in gram neg bacteria
Porin proteins
118
Phases of growth
Lag phase
Log/exponential
Stationary
Death
119
The average time required for the population or biomass to double
Generation time or doubling time
120
Rate of growth is equal to
Growth rate constant x biomass concentration
121
A process of propagating organisms by providing the proper environmental condition
Cultivation
122
He carried out experiments in an 8yr old boy that solidify the birth of immunology
Edward jenner
123
Cell mediated immunity id mediated by
WBC or leukocytes
124
Primary lymphoid tissues
Bone marrow
| Thymus
125
These are host macromolecules that are released during damage, injury or trauma
DAMPs
126
Common molecular signatures found on the cell surface of pathogen
PAMPs
127
Recognize DAMPs and PAMPs gives innate immune response. Broad recognition
Pattern recognition molecules(PRM)
128
The speed and strength of response is exactly the same upon second exposure; no memory
Innate
129
Enzyme that hydrolyzes bacterial cell wall found in tears and mucous
Lysozyme
130
Small iron-chelating molecules produced by microbes attempting to grow under low iron conditions
Siderophores
131
Protein that captures iron-bound bacterial siderophores
Lipocalin
132
A collection of 30 serum proteins that make up co plex system of functionally related enzymes
Complement system
133
4 principal outcomes of complement activation
1. Lysis of pathogens
2. Opsonization
3 clearance of immune complexes
4 generation of peptide by products in inflammatory response
134
What is the key feature of the complement activation
Amplification
135
B fragments are all enzymatic except
C2a
136
Allows the terminal complement components to come together and assemble the MAC
C3b
137
Classical pw, a more specific pw, is triggered when antigen present on parhogen surface bind to antibody, this abis bound by complement component ______
C1
138
C1 is composed of what subunits
1 C1q
2 C1r
2 C1s
139
What is the classical C3 convertase?
C4bC2a
140
What is the classical C5 convertase
C4bC2aC3b
141
What binds to CHO moities in pathogens in lectin pw
MBL
142
What cleaves C4 and C2 in lectin pw
MASP
143
What is the alternative C3 convertase
C3bBb
144
What binds to C3 convertase complex forming alternative C3 convertase (C3bBbP)
Properdin
145
What is the alternative C5 convertase
C3bBbPC3b
146
What stabilizes the mac complex
C6
147
Exposes hydrophobic regions facilitating penetration into the pathogens pm
C7
148
Stabilizes complex within membrane and initiatespore formation
C8
149
How many molecules of C9 complete the MAC
Atleast 4
150
Other fxns of c3b
Opsonin (CR1)
Transport
Viral neutralization
151
At high systemic conc it induces cv and bronchial effects that resemble anaphylaxis
Anaphylatoxins ( C3a, c4a, c5a)
152
_____ is a powerful chemoattractant for neutrophils and stimulate the respi burst and degranulation and plays an indirect role in adaptive immunity
C5a
153
______ and _____ increase the secretion of pro inflam cytokines IL1 and IL6
C5a and C3a
154
What are the complement activation control
Serum zymogens
Short life
Numerous rca( reg of complement act pr oteins
155
Initiates intracellular signalling
PRR
156
What are the 2 pattern recog molecules that are extracellular
Collectins
| Acute phase proteins
157
First free cytoplasmic PRR identified as detecting PAMPs of intracellular pathogens
NOD1
| NOD2
158
Three basic domains of NLR
C terminal
Central
N- terminal
159
Multimeric complexes rpthat activate caspases, proteases that routinely maintained within resting cells in zymogen form as procaspases
Inflammasomes
160
Cytosolic prm taht specifically recognize intracellular viral rna taht are outside any mem-bound compartment
RIG1-like receptors (RLR)
161
Act as lectins which bind to carb moities such as mannose and fucose
CLR
162
CLr group containing members of mannose receptor family seen in Tb, pneumonia,hiv, dengue
Group I
163
Bind to wide variety of lipid related ligands derived from pathogen or damaged cells
Scavenger receptors (SR)
164
Fxn as adhesive receptor expressed on leukocyte,endothelial cells, non hematopeietic cells
RAGE
165
Prm freely floating made up of collagen domain, mediate pathogen clearance by uptake of phagocytic cells or agglutination
Collectins
MBL most common
